甘肃省金昌市第七中学2025-2026学年九年级上学期期中考试英语试题(无答案)

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甘肃省金昌市第七中学2025-2026学年九年级上学期期中考试英语试题(无答案)

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2025—2026学年度九年级第一学期学习评价
英语(2)
注意事项:
1.全卷共120分,考试时间120分钟。
2.答卷前将密封线内的项目填写清楚。
Ⅰ.听力理解(分4小节,共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
第一节:听句子,选择与所听内容相符的图片。每个句子读两遍。
1.______ 2. ______ 3. ______ 4. ______ 5. ______
第二节:听句子,选择恰当的应答语。每个句子读两遍。
( )6. A. With pleasure. B. Never mind. C. Enjoy yourself.
( )7. A. Here you are. B. Glad to hear that. C. It doesn’t matter.
( )8. A. Thanks. B. Good job. C. I’m not sure.
( )9. A. What’s up B. Me too. C. Good luck.
( )10. A. He used to be short. B. He’s tall now. C. He likes running.
第三节:听对话及问题,选择能回答所提问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
( )11. How is the word on Bob’s bag pronounced
A. /’d ni/ B. /d e / C. /d d /
( )12. Where is the woman going
A. To the library. B. To the park. C. To the bank.
( )13. How is the weather today
A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Snowy.
( )14. What does Li Mei like best about the Dragon Boat Festival
A. Eating zongzi. B. Making zongzi. C. Watching dragon boat races.
( )15. How does the girl’s mother go to work now
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. By underground.
第四节:听短文,根据其内容选择能回答下列问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
( )16. How many people were in the speaker’s family in 2004
A. 2. B. 3. C. 5.
( )17. Why did the speaker’s family move to Santa Barbara
A. They needed a bigger house. B. The speaker’s father got a new job.
C. They wanted to be closer to the children’s schools.
( )18. What did the speaker and his brothers enjoy doing
A. Watching TV. B. Playing outside. C. Playing video games.
( )19. How did the speaker feel about their old house in Fountain Valley
A. It looked bigger than he remembered.
B. It looked the same as he remembered.
C. It looked smaller than he remembered.
( )20. What is the best title of the passage
A. My Family’s Moving Trip B. My Two Younger Brothers
C. My Old House in Fountain Valley
Ⅱ.语法与情景对话(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
阅读下列各题,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选择一个最佳答案。
( )21. Mr White will give ______ speech at the meeting this afternoon.
A. a B. an C. the D./
( )22. My British friend sent me his wish by saying “Sheng Ri Kuai Le” ______ Chinese on the phone.
A. in B. at C. for D. about
( )23. —Do you know how to increase the reading ______
—The more you read, the faster you’ll be.
A. knowledge B. expression C. speed D. grammar
( )24. —Excuse me. Where can I wash my hands
—Oh, there is a ______ near the bus station.
A. library B. store C. park D. restroom
( )25. Which sign says “No Parking”
A. B. C. D.
( )26. Many international students ______ to visit our school since last year.
A. are coming B. have come C. came D. will come
( )27. —Linda, do you know ______ for the school trip this term
—Yes. We are going to the Capital Museum.
A. where we are going B. where we went
C. where are we going D. where did we go
( )28. —Saying “Would you please ...” is a good way to ask somebody to do some-thing.
—Yes. It makes you sound ______.
A. straight B. polite C. funny D. young
( )29. —______ are the trousers
—20 pounds.
A. How many B. How long C. How far D. How much
( )30. —Do you still live at the same ______ I will send you a New Year gift.
—Yeah. Thanks a lot
A. address B. page C. background D. bottom
( )31. —How can I improve my spoken English
—I think you should practice ______ English as much as possible.
A. speak B. spoke C. to speak D. speaking
( )32. —Some students ______ have breakfast in the morning.
—It’s an unhealthy habit. They must change it.
A. always B. usually C. often D. seldom
( )33.—Hurry up, or we’ll be late for school.
—Alan, there’s no need to ______. Dad will drive us to school today.
A. rush B. hide C. shout D. wait
( )34. —______colorful and lively the Chinese New Year celebrations are!
—Yes. It’s truly a treat for the eyes.
A. What B. How C. What a D. How a
( )35. —Hi, Mike. We haven’t seen each other for a long time.
A. Good luck B. That’s great
C. Nice to see you again D. Best wishes to you
( )36. —AI helps a lot, and it can make our lives ______.
—Every coin has two sides. It can also make us lazy.
A. correct B. common C. convenient D. central
( )37. It has been more than 17 years ______ Beijing hosted the 2008 Olympic Games.
A. since B. before C. when D. because
( )38. It’s important to ______ your bad feelings in a healthy way rather than(而 不是) letting them control you.
A. look through B. write down C. deal with D. pick up
( )39. Jack’s dream of becoming a pilot can’t come true because he ______ weak eyesight.
A. was bad for B. was similar to C. was sure about D. was born with
( )40. Read the sentence group below. The speaker uses “______” to organize his ideas.
When you enter the park, you can see a fountain. If you walk straight and turn left, you can see a playground. Further on is a small pond and there are several ducks swimming in it. Also, there are many flowers around the pond.
A. time order B. space order
C. specific to general(从具体到一般) D. general to specific
Ⅲ.完形填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳答案。
Li Ying comes from a small village in Jiangxi Province. She is the best women’s soccer player in her university. When she was little, she was very good at 41 . She loved to compete against boys who were fast and strong. This made her a better player.
When Li Ying was 9 years old, she started playing 42 . Her PE teacher thought she was so good that he introduced her to the school soccer team. A year later, she was made the 43 of the team because she played the best. She started to push herself more and 44 as much as possible.
Li Ying didn’t miss any soccer match and went to the sports field every day. Although she was 45 , she worked hard for what she really wanted. Li Ying 46 that practice makes perfect. So she kept doing the same move 47 she got it right. Li Ying was the “Best Player of School” for three years because of her amazing skills.
At the age of 18, Li Ying competed in her last season before graduation(毕业). She trained even 48 , and their team won many matches. At last, their team played against Red Star Team. Li Ying’s team was not playing very well at the start, but they didn’t give up. They worked well as a team and kept fighting till the last minute. Finally, Li Ying led her team to 49 the game.
Now Li Ying volunteers to teach young girls soccer in her village every summer holiday. She wants 50 to love sports. She often says, “Everything is possible. Just go for it!” Thanks to Li Ying, more and more young girls fall in love with soccer and sports.
( )41. A. examination B. sports C. speech D. housework
( )42. A. soccer B. tennis C. volleyball D. basketball
( )43. A. cook B. nurse C. leader D. cleaner
( )44. A. ate B. slept C. walked D. practiced
( )45. A. shy B. angry C. moved D. tired
( )46. A. hated B. forgot C. believed D. answered
( )47. A. if B. but C. until D. since
( )48. A. less B. harder C. worse D. higher
( )49. A. win B. start C. watch D. report
( )50. A. her B. you C. him D. them
Ⅳ.阅读理解(共10小题;每小题2分,满分20分)
A
English Learning Program English Speech & Drama(戏剧)Program
By taking the courses here, students will not only improve their speaking but also learn how to plan their studies in the future. This will help them develop good learning habits. Time From Sept. to Nov. For kids aged 10 to 15:2:30 p. m.~4:30 p. m. Five days a week (Monday to Friday) Activities ★Creative writing ★Speech competition ★Conversations through videos ★A visit to Green Restaurant The program will help kids develop their abilities in acting, self expression,story-telling and public speaking. It can also help kids discover their creative side and practice social and thinking skills. Time From Oct. to Dec. For kids aged 3 to 6: Saturday,2 p. m.~3:30 p. m. For kids aged 7 to 12: Sunday,3 p. m.~4:30 p. m. Activities ★Role-playing ★Drama performance ★Expression & Movement
阅读以上材料,根据其内容判断下列句子正误。正确填A,错误填B。
( )51. By joining in the English Learning Program, children can know how to learn wisely.
( )52. Nine-year-old Mike can join in the English Learning Program.
( )53. Students will have classes on weekends in the English Learning Program.
( )54. Students in the English Speech & Drama Program have a class once a week.
( )55. In both of the programs, children can practice their ability in speaking.
B
In small towns, people are used to saying hello to their neighbors in stores, on the streets and in front of their homes. In today’s city life, people may feel uncomfortable talking to neighbors they do not know well in line at the supermarket. But greeting(和……打招呼) your neighbors is actually good for you, especially if you say hello to six people, according to a recent survey.
Saying hello to people increases well-being(幸福), but six is the magic number. The well-being score increases from zero to six and then there are no further increases. These results are part of the Gallup National Health and Well-Being Index which studies overall well-being and is calculated on a scale of(在……范围内)0 to 100.
The survey was based on the answers from many Americans. It covered social well-being, physical well-being, community well-being and more. People who said they didn’t say hello to anyone in their neighborhood scored 51.5. People who greeted six neighbors had a score of 64.1.
You might think that saying hello to neighbors is only about social well-being, but actually that isn’t the case. In fact, regular(经常的) greeting also improve a person’s physical well-being and community well-being. ______ You will be more likely to speak to people if you think your community is safe. Your physical well-being can improve if you are getting out and walking around your neighborhood.
“We don’t require that you know the person well; just stop and talk to him”, said Dan Witters, the survey’s director. “But the more people to whom you say hello, the greater the probability that you’re actually going to start a conversation with them is.”
While this is just a survey for now, saying hello on a regular basis is a good way to improve your own well-being.
阅读以上材料,根据其内容回答其后各个小题。
( )56. How does the writer introduce the topic
A. By telling a story. B. By doing research.
C. By raising a question. D. By comparing different scenes.
( )57. Which of the following may show the change in the well-being score
A. B.
C. D.
( )58. Which is not mentioned about the survey in the passage
A. Social well-being. B. Community well-being.
C. Family well-being. D. Physical well-being.
( )59. Which sentence can be put in ______
A. That’s because all of these are related(相关的).
B. It’s best to greet your neighbors in the morning.
C. You can even make friends by greeting neighbors.
D. Different neighbors can greet you in different ways.
( )60. What can we learn from Dan Witters’ words
A. People should greet each neighbor.
B. Neighbors don’t need to know each other.
C. Saying hello helps people start a conversation.
D. Nothing improves happiness more than conversations.
Ⅴ.任务型完形填空(共10空;每空1分,满分10分)
用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空,使短文通顺、正确、连贯,每个单词限用一次。
proud, with, and, cheer, show, other, create, be, that, luck
Yesterday was the Mid-Autumn Festival. I went out to enjoy the celebrations 61. ______ my best friend, Liu Lin. We saw a wonderful 62. ______ on the Central Square. Liu Lin told me it was called Datiehua(打铁花), a traditional art in China.
When the night came, a man scooped up the molten iron(舀起熔化的铁)and threw it into the sky. At the same time, the 63. ______ man hit it hard with a board. This brought a shower of sparks(火花). It was beautiful 64. ______ it looked like firework. The whole square was bright when the sparks were shining in the night sky. All the people couldn’t help 65. ______ for the two men.
Liu Lin told me 66. ______ Datiehua had a long history. It started in the Northern Song Dynasty. In the past, fireworks were too expensive for people, so they 67. ______ Datiehua. During the Ming and Qing dynasties, it got popular. People considered it as a sign of good 68. ______.
As time goes by, Datiehua has 69. ______ a tradition in some areas in China. I’m 70. ______ that we Chinese people are so clever that we have made so many fantastic things.
Ⅵ.口语交际(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
阅读下面的对话,根据上下文,从方框内选择恰当的选项补全对话,使句意完整,符合逻辑。(其中有两项为多余选项)
A: Hi, Lisa Your tie-dyed(扎染的)silk scarf looks so special! 71. ______
B: In Dunhuang. I took a trip there last year.
A: 72. ______
B: It was fantastic. Dunhuang is really a beautiful place.
A: How did you go there By plane
B. No. I was going to fly direct there, but I couldn’t get a plane ticket. 73. ______
A: A train journey It must have been a long journey.
B: Yes, but I enjoyed the beautiful sights along the way.
A: 74. ______
B: The Mingsha Mountain.
A: I have read a book about it. The book says the sand there can sing. Is that true
B: Yes. But it’s not anything magical. 75. ______ That’s why the mountain is called the Mingsha Mountain.
A: That sounds interesting. I’d like to visit it.
B: You really should visit Dunhuang. It’s well worth visiting.
A. What a pity! B. Where did you buy it C. How was your trip there D. How long did you stay there E. Finally, I went there by train. F. The sand makes a sound when the wind blows. G. Which place in Dunhuang is your favorite
Ⅶ.词汇考查(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
根据句意,用括号内所给单词的适当形式填空。
76. The dog has the ______(able) to sense(感觉到)danger before it comes.
77. You should choose your friends ______(wise) because they can have a great influence on your values.
78. The ______(strange) beside me was actually a well-known writer.
79. The ______(come) of the first snow always makes the children excited.
80. It is ______(help) to make a study plan to stay organized.
81. This dress is ______exact) my size and I’m thinking about wearing it to the concert.
82. It is ______(polite) to end a phone call without saying goodbye.
83. The car turned in the wrong ______(direct) and almost caused an accident.
84. The more we communicate with our parents, the ______(good) we’ll understand each other.
85. He traveled through several ______(Europe) countries last summer.
Ⅷ.根据所给汉语提示完成句子(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)(每空限填一词)
86.新年是亲朋团聚的好时光。
New Year is a wonderful time when family and friends ______ ______.
87.终身学习真是太重要了!
______ ______ lifelong learning is!
88.在回家路上,他们路过了一家新开的蛋糕店。
They ______ ______ a new cake shop on their way home.
89.我过去常常看到他在图书馆读书。
I ______ ______ see him reading in the library.
90.我哥哥时常去图书馆,因为他喜欢读书。
My elder brother goes to the library ______ ______ to time because he likes reading.
Ⅹ.书面表达(满分10分)
随着时代的变迁,人们的生活方式也随之改变。在过去的几年中,你的家乡有什么变化呢?假如你是英语社团的成员李华,下周你们社团将举办以“家乡的变化”为主题的写作大赛。请你根据下面的提示写一篇英语短文参加比赛。
提示: Introduction: location, weather, …
Changes: environment, people’s lives, ...
Wishes for the future: ...
要求:1.条理清晰,行文连贯,可适当发挥;
2.文中不能出现真实的人名、校名等信息;
3.词数:80左右。
Changes in my hometown
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