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2025——2026学年度第一学期七年级期中考试
英语试题卷
考试时间:2025 年 11 月 5 日 10:20—12:00
注意事项：
1.答题前，请先将自己的姓名、班级、考场号、座位号填写清楚；
2.必须在答卷上答题，在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效；
3.答题时，请考生注意各大题题号后面的答题提示；
4.请注意卷面，保持字体工整、笔迹清晰、卷面清洁；
5.答卷上不准使用涂改液、涂改胶和贴纸；
6.本学科试卷中听力材料以中速朗读两遍。
试卷分为四个部分，共8页，61小题，时量100分钟，满分100分。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分20分)
第一节(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. Who is the girl
A. Ella. B. Lisa. C. Helen.
2. What is that
A. A duck. B. A hen. C. A goose.
3. What colour is Teng Fei's new schoolbag
A. Red. B. Blue. C. Black.
4. Where is Flora's English book
A. In the desk.
B. On the chair.
C. Under the schoolbag.
5. What is Mark's hobby
A. Going fishing. B. Reading books. C. Playing the piano.
第二节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第六段材料，回答第6、7小题。
6. How many rabbits are there in the box
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
7. What do the rabbits look like
A. White and big.
B. White and small.
C. Black and small.
听第七段材料，回答第 8、9小题。
8. What is Lucy's last name
A. Miller. B. Green. C. Brown.
9. How old is Lucy
A. 10. B. 11. C. 12.
听第八段材料，回答第10、11小题。
10. Who has the blue ping- pong bat
A. Fred. B. Fred's dad. C. Fred's mum.
11. What can the speakers(说话者) do together
A. Go hiking. B. Go shopping. C. Play basketball.
听第九段材料，回答第12至14小题。
12. Who is Gina
A. Alice's sister.
B. Alice's teacher.
C. Alice's classmate.
13. Where does Gina live now
A. In China. B. In the UK. C. In the US.
14. What is Gina's favourite food
A. Mapo tofu.
B. Beef noodles.
C. Beijing roast duck.
听第十段材料，回答第15 至 17小题。
15. Where is Mary's schoolbag
A. On the bed. B. On the desk. C. On the chair.
16. Where is the green pen from
A. Mary's father.
B. Mary's brother.
C. Mary's new friend.
17. What does Mary like to do
A. Play tennis. B. Play football. C. Play volleyball.
听第十一段材料，回答第18至20小题。
18. What is Dad like
A. He is kind.
B. He is clever.
C. He is handsome.
19. Who are in the middle of the photo
A. Zoe's parents.
B. Zoe's brothers.
C. Zoe's grandparents.
20. How many people are there in the photo
A. Five. B. Six. C. Seven.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分30分)
第一节 (共10小题；每小题2分，满分20分)
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
21. How many wishes are there on the wishing tree
A. Five. B. Six. C. Seven.
22. Tom wants to be a good football player. Which wish might be his
A. Join a football club.
B. Get better at English.
C. Learn to play the piano.
B
Dear Mia,
How time flies! You are now in the middle school! Are you ready for your new school life
Primary school is like a lake. It is small and safe. Dad and Mum want to keep your boat from winds. But middle school is like a river. It is wide and the water runs fast. You will meet new challenges(挑战). We are always here to help.But sometimes you have to drive your boat by yourself. Just try your best and work hard. Remember this: no pain, no gain. You will get a lot with hard work.
We make this letter into a new paper boat. We hope it helps you in the coming years!
With love,
Dad and Mum
23. Who is the letter for
A. Dad. B. Mum. C. Mia.
24. What is middle school like according to the passage
A. A big and deep sea.
B. A wide and fast river.
C. A small and safe lake.
25. What is the meaning of the underlined sentence“no pain, no gain”
A.不劳无获
B.熟能生巧
C.知足常乐
26. What do Mum and Dad hope
A. They hope Mia can become a driver.
B. They hope Mia will play with the paper boat.
C. They hope the letter can help Mia in her new life.
C
My name is Hamilton. I have the best job ever—a pet taxi driver. Why do I have this job Here's the story.
One day, my friend's dog is badly ill. They call many taxi, but no driver stops. Finally, my friend gets a car from his neighbor(邻居) and takes his dog to the animal hospital. This gives me a great idea: to start a car service(服务) just for people and their four-legged friends.
I name the service“Pet Taxi”. Every day, I take animals like dogs,cats, and even birds to where they need to go by car. Most of my passengers(乘客) are on their way to the animal hospital or a pet shop.Sometimes, the pets just go out for fun, like going to the beach or going shopping with their owners.
I love my job. Every day is a new day in this car! I get to meet new furry(毛茸茸的) friends. The best part of my work is seeing my passengers get home safely. The dogs seem to be able to know my kindness! How happy I am!
27. What is Hamilton's job
A. A doctor.
B. A teacher.
C. A pet taxi driver.
28. How does Hamilton's friend take his dog to the animal hospital
A. By car. B. By bus. C. On foot.
29. Why does Hamilton love his job
A. Because he can make a lot of money.
B. Because he doesn't like to stay at home.
C. Because he enjoys helping people and pets.
30. Which is the best title(标题) for this passage
A. My Friend and His Dog
B. The Story of My Pet Taxi
C. A Trip to the Animal Hospital
第二节(共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。每个选项仅使用一次。
Can you keep your desk tidy and clean Aclean desk helps you work better. 31
Only keep things you really need on and near your desk
Put books and notebooks in your schoolbag after class. 32 Have a pencil case for pens and pencils, and have a bin near your desk.
33
Go to the kitchen(厨房) when you want to have a drink or, if you like, keep a drink on a small table near your desk.
Keep your school things tidy
Put your books and notebooks in order together on a shelf(书架) or in your bag. 34 So you can find what you need quickly.
Clean your desk every day
Pick a time to tidy your desk and do it! 35 And you can start each new day with a clean and tidy desk.
Follow these simple tips. You will have a clean and nice desk. It will help you feel good and work better!
A. Keep them in order. B. Don't put any drinks on your desk. C. Don't keep too many things on your desk. D. Here are some easy ways to keep your desk tidy. E. If you do it every day, it will only take five minutes.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分25分)
第一节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Joe has a sweet tooth(喜欢吃甜食). That means he likes to eat 36 . But there is a problem. Joe doesn't like to 37 his teeth in the evening.
His 38 says,“If you don't brush your teeth, soon you' re going to get a toothache(牙痛).”
Joe says,“If 39 teeth hurt me, I willhavethempulledout(拔出来).”
His mother laughs.“It's not that easy,” 40 says.“Would you like to know what happens if you pull out all of your teeth ”
“Yes” Joe is very 41 .
“Everyone only gets 42 sets of teeth. First, we get 43 teeth. At age 6, our baby teeth fall out, and we grow 44 strong teeth. After that, we don't grow new teeth any more. So, if you get the teeth pulled out, you can't eat all the delicious food that you like,” says his mother.
“Oh no” Joe now 45 how bad things can be if he does not take care of his teeth.
36. A. salad B. sweets C. strawberries
37. A. brush B. count C. make
38. A. father B. brother C. mother
39. A. my B. his C. your
40. A. he B. she C. we
41. A. interested B. angry C. sad
42. A. two B. three C. four
43. A. bad B. baby C. big
44. A. old B. funny C. new
45. A. spells B. starts C. knows
第二节(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Hey, friends! I'm Oliver from England! Welcome to my Vlog!
I live 46 my fun family— my mom, my dad and my big sister. Every morning, I get up early because I want 47 (walk) my cute dog Winston! It's super fun! My dad is very outgoing 48 really loves sports! He likes playing football best. 49 do we often play football We often play football together in the park— it's great! My mom 50 (be) very kind and makes yummy cakes! I like to spend time helping her. We have so much fun in the kitchen!
My sister is 51 big book lover! She reads every day and knows so many 52 (interest) stories. Sometimes, she even reads stories to 53 (I). Look! I am playing the guitar. I can play it very 54 (good). It's so cool! I also like reading books and drawing 55 (picture).
I really love my family. They are the best!
Thanks for watching, everyone Don't forget to like my Vlog and follow me! Bye bye!
第四部分 读写综合(共两节，满分25分)
第一节(共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容回答问题。
Hi, I am Peter. Rock music(摇滚乐) is coming out of my computer. As a rock music lover, I play the guitar in the school band. Sometimes I write songs and share them online. There is so much fun in music.
Right at this moment, the sound of Grandpa's erhu cuts in. Yes,music is also my grandpa's hobby. But it's a different kind of music. He usually plays the erhu in the park with his friends. They sing Beijing opera(京剧) together. There are many fans of them.
An idea suddenly hits me:“Why don't we put our music together Ican write a song for us.”
“Grandpa!”I run into his room.
There is an art festival(艺术节) every autumn in my school. Idecide to take part in it with Grandpa this year. After a week's practice, we are on the stage(舞台). I nod to Grandpa and we start up our instruments(乐器). After hearing the music, people begin to dance.
Grandpa gives me a big smile, and I smile back. It feels great to enjoy our hobbies together.
56. What instrument does Peter play in the school band
57. Where does Grandpa usually play the erhu
58. What do people do after hearing the music during the festival
59. Do Peter and Grandpa enjoy their hobbies together
60. What do you think of(认为······怎么样) music
第二节(满分15分)
61.根据要求完成短文写作。
读了第一节的文章(回答问题)后，我们了解了 Peter 和他的爷爷。假如你是李华，你的学校正举行以“My family”为主题的英文征文活动。请根据以下思维导图，写一篇文章介绍你自己和你的家人。
要求：
(1)60词左右；
(2)短文必须包含所给要点，并适当发挥；
(3)文中不得出现真实人名和校名。
My Family
2025-2026 学年度第一学期七年级期中考试英语试题答案及解析
第一部分 听力（共 20 分）略
第二部分 阅读（共30分）
第一节（共10小题；每小题2分，满分20分）
A篇（愿望树相关）
21. 答案：B
解析：通读愿望树内容，列出的愿望分别为“Make more friends.”“Learn to dance.”“Join a football club.”“Get better at English.”“Learn to play the piano.”“Have a pet.”，共6个，故选B。
22. 答案：A
解析：题干中“Tom想成为优秀足球运动员”，与“Join a football club（加入足球俱乐部）”直接相关，“Get better at English（提高英语）”和“Learn to play the piano（学弹钢琴）”均与足球无关，故选A。
B篇（父母给Mia的信）
23. 答案：C
解析：信件开头“Dear Mia”明确收信人是Mia，故选C。
24. 答案：B
解析：由文中“But middle school is like a river. It is wide and the water runs fast.”可知，中学被比作“宽阔且水流湍急的河”，A（又大又深的海）、C（小而安全的湖，指小学）均不符合，故选B。
25. 答案：A
解析：结合上下文“Just try your best and work hard.”“You will get a lot with hard work.”，可知该句强调“努力才有收获”，对应“不劳无获”；“熟能生巧”强调练习的重要性，“知足常乐”强调满足，均不符合语境，故选A。
26. 答案：C
解析：由“We make this letter into a new paper boat. We hope it helps you in the coming years!”可知，父母希望这封信能帮助Mia的新生活；A（希望Mia成为司机，文中“drive your boat”是比喻，指应对中学挑战）、B（希望Mia玩纸船，并非核心目的）均错误，故选C。
C篇（Hamilton的宠物出租车工作）
27. 答案：C
解析：由“My name is Hamilton. I have the best job ever—a pet taxi driver.”可知，Hamilton的工作是“宠物出租车司机”，A（医生）、B（老师）均不符合，故选C。
28. 答案：A
解析：由“Finally, my friend gets a car from his neighbor and takes his dog to the animal hospital.”可知，朋友“开车”送狗去医院，B（乘公交）、C（步行）均错误，故选A。
29. 答案：C
解析：由“I love my job. Every day is a new day in this car! I get to meet new furry friends. The best part of my work is seeing my passengers get home safely.”可知，Hamilton喜欢工作是因为能帮助人和宠物；A（赚很多钱，文中未提及）、B（不喜欢待在家，文中未提及）均错误，故选C。
30. 答案：B
解析：文章主要讲述Hamilton开创“宠物出租车”服务的原因、日常工作及对工作的热爱，核心是“宠物出租车的故事”；A（朋友和他的狗，仅为开头背景）、C（去动物医院的旅程，仅为工作的一部分）均不全面，故选B。
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
31. 答案：D
解析：前文提出“整洁的书桌有助于更好地学习”，后文列出具体方法，此处需过渡句引出方法，“Here are some easy ways to keep your desk tidy.（以下是保持书桌整洁的简单方法）”符合逻辑，故选D。
32. 答案：C
解析：该段主题是“只保留真正需要的东西在书桌及附近”，前文“课后将书和笔记本放进书包”，后文“用铅笔盒放笔、在书桌旁放垃圾桶”，均为“不保留过多东西”的具体做法，“Don't keep too many things on your desk.（不要在书桌上放太多东西）”符合段落主旨，故选C。
33. 答案：B
解析：由后文“想喝水时去厨房，或把饮料放在书桌附近的小桌子上”可知，该段建议“不要把饮料放在书桌上”，“Don't put any drinks on your desk.”符合语境，故选B。
34. 答案：A
解析：由后文“So you can find what you need quickly.（这样你能快速找到需要的东西）”可知，前文需体现“有序摆放”，“Keep them in order.（把它们按顺序放好）”符合逻辑，故选A。
35. 答案：E
解析：该段主题是“每天清洁书桌”，前文“选个时间整理并执行”，后文“每天以整洁的书桌开始新的一天”，“If you do it every day, it will only take five minutes.（如果每天做，只需五分钟）”补充“每天清洁”的便利性，衔接自然，故选E。
第三部分 语言运用（共25分）
第一节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
36. 答案：B
解析：由前文“Joe has a sweet tooth（喜欢吃甜食）”可知，他喜欢吃“甜食”；A（沙拉，咸鲜类食物）、C（草莓，水果，非甜食统称）均不符合，故选B。
37. 答案：A
解析：由后文“If you don't brush your teeth, soon you're going to get a toothache.”可知，此处指“晚上不喜欢刷牙”；B（数）、C（制作）均与“牙齿健康”无关，故选A。
38. 答案：C
解析：由后文“His mother laughs.”可知，此处提醒Joe的是“妈妈”；A（爸爸）、B（哥哥）均不符合，故选C。
39. 答案：A
解析：Joe直接对话妈妈，表达“如果我的牙齿疼”，需用第一人称形容词性物主代词“my”；B（他的）、C（你的）均不符合语境，故选A。
40. 答案：B
解析：前文提到“His mother laughs.”，此处指代妈妈，用第三人称代词“she”；A（他）、C（我们）均错误，故选B。
41. 答案：A
解析：由前文“Would you like to know what happens... ”和Joe的回答“Yes!”可知，Joe对妈妈要讲的内容“感兴趣”；B（生气的）、C（难过的）均不符合，故选A。
42. 答案：A
解析：由后文“First, we get... teeth. At age 6... we grow... strong teeth. After that, we don't grow new teeth any more.”可知，人一生只有“两副牙”（乳牙和恒牙）；B（三副）、C（四副）均不符合常识，故选A。
43. 答案：B
解析：结合常识，人首先长的是“乳牙”，后文“our baby teeth fall out”也验证了此处为“baby teeth”；A（坏的）、C（大的）均错误，故选B。
44. 答案：C
解析：乳牙脱落之后，会长出“新的”恒牙；A（老的）、B（有趣的）均不符合语境，故选C。
45. 答案：C
解析：听了妈妈的话后，Joe“知道”不照顾牙齿的后果有多严重；A（拼写）、B（开始）均不符合，故选C。
第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
46. 答案：with
解析：“live with sb.”为固定搭配，意为“和某人一起住”，此处指“和有趣的家人一起住”。
47. 答案：to walk
解析：“want to do sth.”为固定用法，意为“想要做某事”，故填“to walk”（遛狗）。
48. 答案：and
解析：前文“My dad is very outgoing（爸爸很外向）”和后文“really loves sports（很喜欢运动）”为并列关系，用连词“and”连接。
49. 答案：Where
解析：由后文回答“We often play football together in the park”可知，此处提问“地点”，用“Where”，句首首字母大写。
50. 答案：is
解析：主语“My mom”为第三人称单数，时态为一般现在时，be动词用“is”。
51. 答案：a
解析：“a big book lover”意为“一个爱读书的人”，“big”以辅音音素开头，用不定冠词“a”。
52. 答案：interesting
解析：修饰名词“stories”需用形容词，“interest”的形容词形式“interesting”（有趣的），指事物本身具有趣味性；“interested”（感兴趣的）修饰人，不符合此处。
53. 答案：me
解析：介词“to”后接人称代词宾格，“I”的宾格为“me”，此处指“姐姐给我读故事”。
54. 答案：well
解析：修饰动词“play”需用副词，“good”的副词形式为“well”，意为“弹得好”。
55. 答案：pictures
解析：“draw pictures”为固定搭配，意为“画画”，“picture”为可数名词，此处用复数形式“pictures”表泛指。
第四部分 读写综合（共25分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
56. 答案：He plays the guitar.
解析：由“As a rock music lover, I play the guitar in the school band.”可知，Peter在学校乐队弹吉他，注意人称转换（文中“I”改为“He”），动词用第三人称单数“plays”。
57. 答案：He usually plays it in the park.
解析：由“He usually plays the erhu in the park with his friends.”可知，爷爷通常在公园拉二胡，“it”指代“the erhu”，避免重复。
58. 答案：They begin to dance.
解析：由“After hearing the music, people begin to dance.”可知，人们听到音乐后开始跳舞，直接提取原文信息即可。
59. 答案：Yes, they do.
解析：由“Grandpa gives me a big smile, and I smile back. It feels great to enjoy our hobbies together.”可知，Peter和爷爷一起享受爱好，故作肯定回答。
60. 答案：It's fun and can bring people together.（答案不唯一，合理即可）
解析：文中提到“There is so much fun in music.”以及Peter和爷爷通过音乐合作，可知音乐“有趣且能让人团结”，结合自身理解合理表述即可。
第二节（满分15分）
范文：
My Family
Hello, everyone! I'm Li Hua. There are three people in my family—my parents and me.
My dad is tall with big eyes. He's kind and funny, and his hobby is fishing. He often takes me to the river on weekends. My mom has long hair and a warm smile. She's friendly and likes reading. She always reads stories to me at night.
I'm of medium height. I love drawing pictures and playing basketball. We often have dinner together and talk about our days. I really love my family!
解析：
1. 内容完整：包含“外貌（tall with big eyes/long hair/medium height）、性格（kind/funny/friendly）、爱好（fishing/reading/drawing/playing basketball）”三大要点，且补充了家庭活动（dinner together/talk about days），符合要求。
2. 语言准确：使用一般现在时，语法正确（如第三人称单数“likes/reads”、介词搭配“with big eyes/of medium height”），无拼写错误。
3. 逻辑清晰：先总述家庭构成，再分别介绍父母和自己，最后表达对家庭的爱，层次分明，符合60词左右的要求。

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