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2025 -2026学年七年级上学期期中考试（绍兴专用）
英 语
（考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：120分）
学校:___________姓名：___________班级：___________考号：___________
考生注意：
1.本试题卷共10页，满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3.答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
4.考试范围：七上Starter Units1-Unit3（人教版2024）[2025年浙江省最新中考题型]
第一部分 听力 (满分20分)
第一节：听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题。请从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1分）
1．When does Sally go to the music hall
A．On Monday mornings. B．On Monday afternoons. C．On Wednesday afternoons.
2．Where does the girl want to go
A．To the office building. B．To the library. C．To the sports field.
3．What does Sam like doing
A．Playing volleyball. B．Reading books. C．Drawing pictures.
4．Where is Zhu Xiaomeng from
A．Dalian. B．Qingdao. C．Jinan.
5．Where does Li Ming have lunch
A．In the school dining hall. B．At home. C．In the classroom.
第二节：听下面两段对话。每段对话后有2至3个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1.5分）
6．What color is Dad’s hat
A．Black. B．Brown. C．Blue.
7．Where is the hat
A．On the chair. B．Under the desk. C．On the head.
听对话，回答以下各小题。
8．Where are the photos
A．On the map. B．On the book. C．On the desk.
9．Who is the man in the first photo
A．Jeff’s father. B．Jeff’s uncle. C．Jeff’s grandpa.
10．What is Jeff’s cousin’s name
A．George. B．Paula. C．Henry.
第三节：听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1.5分）。
11．How many people are there in Jenny’s family
A．Three. B．Four. C．Five.
12．Where did Jenny and Jane sit
A．On the screen.
B．In front of Mum’s computer.
C．Behind Mum’s computer.
13．When do Jenny’s family take a family photo together every year
A．On Christmas.
B．On Mid-Autumn Day.
C．During the Spring Festival.
14．Who had the good idea
A．Jenny. B．Jane. C．Mum.
15．What do you think of Jenny’s family
A．Happy. B．Sad. C．Worried.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Dear Laura, There is a flea market (跳蚤市场) every month in my neighborhood. I want to sell my old toys and books to make money for new books. Do you have any tips (建议) for a successful sale Yours, Yu Le
Dear Yu Le, When I was younger, I sold my old toys at flea markets. I even had a lemonade stand (柠檬汁小摊)! I have a few tips to share. First, have fair (合理的) prices. Many people go to flea markets to get cheap things. So don’t make your things too expensive! Second, put your toys and books into groups. This will make it easier for people to see what you are selling. Third, ▲ ! Even if you don’t sell all of your things, you can still enjoy it. I hope you have a good time! Love, Laura
16．How many tips does Laura have for Yu Le
A．One. B．Two. C．Three. D．Four.
17．Why does Yu Le write to Laura
A．To ask for some ideas. B．To buy books from Laura.
C．To tell something about his life. D．To talk about different flea markets.
18．Which of the following can be put in the “ ▲ ”
A．be careful B．good luck C．get dressed D．have fun
B
Do you like joining sports games or art shows at school Whether you play basketball on the playground or dance on the stage, these activities not only bring you joy, but also help you grow.
First, joining a team sport like football teaches you how to work with others. When you pass the ball to or cheer for each other, you learn to work together. In a basketball game, even if you lose, you can feel proud because everyone tries their best and helps each other.
Art shows, like singing or drawing competitions, can help you feel good. The first time you sing or play the piano in front of others, you might feel worried. But after hearing the applause (掌声), you can learn that making mistakes is okay. It is important to try new things.
These activities also let you have fun with your friends. You can laugh together while practicing dancing or share snacks after a tennis game.
So next time your school has a sports meeting or an art festival, don’t be afraid to join in! Winning is great, but the joy of trying, learning, and getting closer to others is more important.
19．What can you learn from the basketball game
A．How to win every game. B．How to find a good friend.
C．How to work with others in a team. D．How to be a good PE teacher.
20．What does the underlined word “worried” most probably mean in the passage
A．担忧的 B．生气的 C．兴奋的 D．疲倦的
21．What can we infer about the writer’s attitude toward mistakes
A．He thinks mistakes are terrible.
B．He thinks mistakes are part of learning.
C．He thinks students should try not to make mistakes.
D．He thinks mistakes mean you should stop trying new things.
22．Which of the following is the writer’s idea
A．Art shows are more important than sports games.
B．School activities are too difficult for most students.
C．We can only win in school activities.
D．Joining in school activities can help students grow and have fun.
C
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
①Many great scientists are left-handed, like Isaac Newton. So, some people say left-handed people are cleverer than the right-handed. Is this true
②Scientific studies show that left-handed people have no higher IQ than the right-handed. They are just good at different things.
③Left-handed and right-handed people usually use different sides of their brains (大脑). The right-handed use the left side more often, but the left-handed use both sides more evenly (均衡地).
④The left-handed are good at thinking creatively (创造性地) in anything from art to science. But it’s not all good news for them. They may easily forget names and places.
23．According to Paragraph 1, Isaac Newton was ________.
A．a left-handed scientist B．a right-handed scientist
C．a left-hander with a low IQ D．a clever right-hander
24．According to Paragraph 3, how do the right-handed use their brains
A．They use both sides quite evenly.
B．They use the right side more often.
C．They use the left side more often.
D．They use only one side of their brains.
25．Which of the following is TRUE according to the last paragraph
A．The left-handed can think about new ideas.
B．The left-handed are always becoming famous.
C．The left-handed can remember names and places easily.
D．The left-handed are good at using the left side of their brain.
26．The passage is probably in the ________ part of the newspaper.
A．music B．sports C．story D．science
D
Do you know the Monkey Buffet Festival in Thailand It is on the last Sunday of November. It is a great day for monkeys in Thailand. The festival has a history of 35 years. People there think monkeys can bring good luck to them. So, to thank monkeys, they have this special festival.
On that day every year, people put lots of fruit, vegetables, cakes and even drinks on the tables outside. They are all for monkeys. Many people come to see the monkeys on that day.
During the festival, there are a lot of interesting activities about monkeys. Young people always dress like monkeys and they sing and dance and play some music on the street.
Monkeys always live in groups. Most of them live in the trees. They are good at running and jumping. They eat fruit, vegetables, plants and birds’ eggs. Monkeys are clever. Do you think so
27．When is the festival in Thailand
A．In September. B．In October. C．In November. D．In June.
28．Why do people have the festival for the monkeys
A．Because they think monkeys are cute.
B．Because they think monkeys are clever.
C．Because they think monkeys can bring good luck.
D．Because they think monkeys are funny.
29．What do young people always do on that day
A．Sing and dance. B．Eat all kinds of delicious food.
C．Play with monkey. D．Kill monkeys.
30．What is the best title (标题) for the passage
A．Monkeys in Thailand B．Monkeys’ Favorite Food
C．Monkeys and people D．The Festival for Monkeys
第二节 任务型阅读(共5题，每小题2分，满分10分)
下面文章中有4处（第1—4题）需要添加首句。请从以下选项（A、B、C、D、E）中选出符合各段意思的首句，选项中有一项是多余选项，第5小题需要回答问题。
A．Cindy likes listening to music in her free time. B．Bob likes reading books. C． Gina likes playing baseball. D．John likes delicious food. E. Mike loves doing sports very much.
Different people have different hobbies.
31 There are two bookcases in his room. You can see a lot of books in them. He says he needs some new books.
32 He can play some sports well. He watches sports games on TV. He says that he wants to be a sports star.
Nancy likes art. When she doesn’t go to school, she often goes to an art club and draws nice pictures with other students there.
33 She always buys some music CDs and books about singers. She goes to the music party every Sunday.
34 He also likes cooking food. He often cooks food for his family on Saturdays.
5. What’s your hobby Why do you like it (no more than 20 words)
35
第三部分 语言运用 (共三节，满分40分)
第一节 完形填空 (共15 小题，每小题1分，满分15 分)
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中选出一个最佳选项。
Jenny is an eight-year-old girl. She always says to her mom, “No, thank you. No 36 for me.”
Jenny’s mom knows it’s 37 for Jenny to have milk. Milk has calcium (钙) and 38 to keep her strong.
Today, Jenny gets a 39 at her school. Jenny’s teacher, Ms. Jones, asks 40 students to read the story—Casper Kitten in it.
Jenny 41 books. She likes cats, too. 42 she thinks it’s a nice book. After coming home 43 school, Jenny reads the story.
After some time, Jenny says, “Oh, Casper Kitten can’t 44 ”
And then, she says, “Oh, Casper Kitten can’t climb a tree.”
Jenny’s mom walks to her and 45 , “What’s wrong 46 are you ”
“I’m fine, Mom. It’s just that Casper Kitten can’t walk or climb.”
“I’m 47 that Casper Kitten will be okay. It’s 6:00 p.m. Let’s have 48 ,”says Jenny’s mom. And Jenny has her first 49 of milk. “Mom, Casper Kitten needs calcium to walk, climb and keep strong. I 50 it, too.” Says Jenny.
36．A．juice B．vegetables C．milk D．eggs
37．A．short B．cool C．happy D．good
38．A．helps B．wants C．loves D．thanks
39．A．pen B．book C．map D．bag
40．A．their B．our C．her D．his
41．A．likes B．gets C．sees D．watches
42．A．If B．But C．And D．So
43．A．at B．to C．from D．with
44．A．run B．walk C．swim D．sing
45．A．asks B．calls C．thinks D．spells
46．A．Where B．Who C．How D．What
47．A．nice B．sure C．welcome D．right
48．A．tea B．breakfast C．lunch D．dinner
49．A．glass B．basket C．pair D．piece
50．A．go B．try C．have D．need
第二节 词汇运用(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
A.阅读下面短文，从框内6个选项中选出能分别填入5个小题空白处的最佳选项。
be they real activity because play
There are also some interesting school 51 in October. On October 12th, we have a soccer game. I don’t love basketball 52 it’s difficult for me. But I love soccer. I enjoy 53 soccer and watching soccer games. We have a book sale on October 20th. I have three old books and I want to sell 54 . The art festival (节日) is fun. We have it on October 29th. My birthday is also on this day. October is 55 a great month for me.
B;阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。
Hello! My name is Tom. I’m in Class Seven, Grade Seven. Every morning, I 56 (招呼) my classmates and teachers with “good morning ”or “Hi”. They are all very friendly. In my schoolbag, I have many 57 (东西), like pencils, a 58 (瓶子), a ruler and some books. My schoolbag is 59 (蓝色). It’s my favorite color. This is my 60 (爸爸的) house. There are many animals and plants in his yard. There are 61 (十二) apple trees, some 62 (胡萝卜) plants and many flowers. And he has five 63 (鹅) and eight chickens. He always 64 (保持) his yard 65 (整洁的). I really have a good time there.
第三节 语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，在空格处填入一个适当的词或填入括号中单词的正确形式。
Hello, my friends! Nice 66 (meet) you! My name is Daming. I’m 67 student in a middle school in Hangzhou, China.
I have two 68 (sister), Jane and Gina. Here 69 (be) a picture of their rooms. Jane’s room is tidy (整洁的), 70 Gina’s isn’t. In Jane’s room, 71 (she) books are in the bookcase. The quilt is 72 the bed. Look at Gina’s room. Her things are everywhere (到处) on her bed and on the sofa. She always 73 (say) she can’t find her things. Oh, 74 is that next to the sofa Haha, it’s 75 (Gina) key.
第四部分语言运用 (共一节，满分20分)
76．每个人都有自己的朋友，你一定有自己的好朋友吧。请以“My best friend”为题，并根据表格中的要点和要求用英语写一篇短文，介绍你的最好的朋友。
My best friend
Name Wang Han
Nationality (国籍） China
Age 13
Favourite subject PE/…
Hobby swimming/reading…
Personality (性格) helpful/…
Wish (愿望) join the English club/…
Plan (计划) learn to…
要求：
（1）短文必须包含以上所有信息，可适当发挥；
（2）文中不得出现真实的人名和校名；
（3）100词左右。
My best friend
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________(共7张PPT)
人教版2024七年级英语上册
七年级英语上学期期中考试
（绍兴卷）答案
一、听力测试
1-10:B A A B A A C C B A
11-15:B B C B A
一、快速核对
二、阅读理解
A:16．C 17．A 18．D
B:19．C 20．A 21．B 22．D
C:23．A 24．C 25．A 26．D
D：27．C 28．C 29．A 30．D
第二节 任务型阅读
31．B 32．E 33．A 34．D 35．开放性试题，言之有理即可。参考答案为：My hobby is doing sports. Because doing sports can make me healthier and stronger.
一、快速核对
三、完形填空
36．C 37．D 38．A 39．B 40．C 41．A 42．D 43．C 44．B 45．A 46．C 47．B 48．D 49．A 50．D
第二节 词汇运用
A:51．activities 52．because 53．playing 54．them 55．really
B:56．greet 57．things 58．bottle 59．blue 60．dad’s/father’s 61．twelve 62．carrot 63．geese 64．keeps 65．tidy
一、快速核对
第三节 语法填空
66．to meet 67．a 68．sisters 69．is 70．but 71．her 72．on 73．says 74．what 75．Gina’s
My best friend
Hello, I’m Lihua. I want to introduce my best friend whose name is Wang Han. He is from China and is 13 years old.
His favourite subject is PE because he enjoys doing sports. In his free time, he likes swimming and reading. Swimming makes him feel relaxed, and reading helps him gain knowledge. Wang Han is a helpful person. He often assists his classmates with their studies and is always ready to lend a hand when others are in need. His wish is to join the English club so that he can improve his English. He also plans to learn to play the guitar because he is interested in music.
I’m really glad to have such a great friend.
第四部分语言运用2025 -2026学年七年级上学期期中考试（绍兴专用）
英 语
（考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：120分）
学校:___________姓名：___________班级：___________考号：___________
考生注意：
1.本试题卷共10页，满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3.答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
4.考试范围：七上Starter Units1-Unit3（人教版2024）[2025年浙江省最新中考题型]
参考答案
题号 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
答案 B A A B A A C C B A
题号 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
答案 B B C B A C A D C A
题号 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
答案 B D A C A D C C A D
题号 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
答案 C D A B C A D C B A
题号 46 47 48 49 50
答案 C B D A D
1．B
【原文】M: Sally, I love art. I go to the art hall on Wednesday afternoons.
W: Well, Oliver. I like music and I go to the hall on Monday afternoons.
2．A
【原文】W: Excuse me, where is the office building I want to find the English teacher.
M: It’s in front of the library.
W: Thank you.
3．A
【原文】W: Do you like playing volleyball, Sam
M: Yes, it’s one of my favourite sports.
4．B
【原文】W: What’s your name and where are you from
M: My name is Zhu Xiaomeng. I am from Qingdao. My best friend Li Zihan is from Jinan.
5．A
【原文】W: Where do you have lunch, Li Ming
M: I have lunch in our school dining hall.
6．A 7．C
【原文】M: I can’t find my new hat. Do you see it, Emma
W: What colour is it, Dad
M: It is black.
W: No, I didn’t see it. Oh, wait a minute. Now I see it! Dad, it’s on your head!
M: Oh, thank you, Emma!
W: You’re welcome.
8．C 9．B 10．A
【原文】W: Jeff, here are two nice photos on the desk. Is this your father in the first photo
M: No, he is my uncle. My father is in the next photo.
W: Oh, is this your sister
M: Yes, she is my sister and her name is Paula.
W: Is the boy your brother
M: No, he is my cousin George.
11．B 12．B 13．C 14．B 15．A
【原文】
Hello, everyone. I am Jenny. This is a family photo of Mum, my sister Jane and me. We three sat in front of Mum’s computer. The photo came on the screen—four smiling faces.
Every year, we take a family photo together during the Spring Festival. This year’s photo was different. Dad was not at home, working in another country. And we kept our family tradition alive with the help of social media. We had a good idea this year. It was Jane’s idea. We had an online meeting, and one, two, three, cheese! I think it is our family’s best photo. We are a family, together or far away.
16．C 17．A 18．D
本文是Yu Le向Laura询问在跳蚤市场成功售卖旧玩具和书籍的建议，Laura分享了自己的经验和建议。
16．细节理解题。根据“First”、“Second”和“Third”可知，她给出了三条建议，故选C。
17．细节理解题。根据“Do you have any tips (建议) for a successful sale ”可知，Yu Le写这封信是为了寻求建议，故选A。
18．推理判断题。根据“Even if you don’t sell all of your things, you can still enjoy it. I hope you have a good time!”可以推测出Laura希望Yu Le能够享受跳蚤市场过程，因此“have fun”是最恰当的填充，故选D。
19．C 20．A 21．B 22．D
本文主要介绍了参加学校的体育比赛或艺术表演的益处。
19．细节理解题。根据“First, joining a team sport like football teaches you how to work with others.”可知，从篮球比赛中可以学到如何在团队中与他人合作。故选C。
20．词句猜测题。根据“The first time you sing or play the piano in front of others, you might feel worried.”可知，第一次在别人面前唱歌或弹钢琴，可能会感到担忧，所以划线词意为“担忧的”。故选A。
21．推理判断题。根据“But after hearing the applause (掌声), you can learn that making mistakes is okay. It is important to try new things.”可知，犯错也没关系，尝试新事物才重要，由此推知，作者认为错误是学习的一部分。故选B。
22．细节理解题。根据“Whether you play basketball on the playground or dance on the stage, these activities not only bring you joy, but also help you grow.”可知，参加学校活动可以帮助学生成长并获得乐趣。故选D。
23．A 24．C 25．A 26．D
本文是一篇说明文。文章主要探讨了左撇子和右撇子在智力、大脑使用方式以及擅长领域等方面的差异。
23．细节理解题。根据第一段“Many great scientists are left-handed, like Isaac Newton.”可知，许多伟大的科学家都是左撇子，比如艾萨克·牛顿。由此可推测出艾萨克·牛顿是一个左撇子科学家。故选A。
24．细节理解题。根据第三段“The right-handed use the left side more often,”可知，右撇子更经常使用左脑。故选C。
25．细节理解题。根据最后一段“The left-handed are good at thinking creatively in anything from art to science.”可知，左撇子在从艺术到科学的任何领域都善于创造性地思考，即左撇子能想出新点子。故选A。
26．推理判断题。根据全文内容可知，文章主要探讨了左撇子和右撇子在智力、大脑使用方式以及擅长领域等方面的差异，属于科学范畴，因此文章可能出现在报纸的科学部分。故选D。
27．C 28．C 29．A 30．D
本文主要介绍了泰国的“猴子自助餐节”。
27．细节理解题。根据“It is on the last Sunday of November.”可知，这个节日在11月的最后一个星期天。故选C。
28．细节理解题。根据“People there think monkeys can bring good luck to them. So, to thank monkeys, they have this special festival.”可知，泰国人认为猴子能给他们带来好运，为了感谢猴子，他们有了这个特殊的节日。故选C。
29．细节理解题。根据“Young people always dress like monkeys and they sing and dance and play some music on the street.”可知，年轻人穿得像猴子一样，他们在街上唱歌跳舞，演奏音乐。故选A。
30．最佳标题题。本文主要介绍了泰国的“猴子自助餐节”。故选D。
31．B 32．E 33．A 34．D 35．开放性试题，言之有理即可。参考答案为：My hobby is doing sports. Because doing sports can make me healthier and stronger.
本文是一篇记叙文。文章主要描述了五个人的爱好。
31．根据下文“There are two bookcases in his room. You can see a lot of books in them. He says he needs some new books.”可知，他的房间里有两个书架，里面有很多书，他还需要一些新书，因此可以推断出他喜欢读书；选项B“鲍勃喜欢读书。”符合语境。故选B。
32．根据下文“He can play some sports well. He watches sports games on TV. He says that he wants to be a sports star.”可知，他能很好地进行一些运动，还喜欢看体育比赛，想要成为体育明星，因此可以推断出他非常喜欢运动；选项E“迈克非常喜欢做运动。”符合语境。故选E。
33．根据下文“She always buys some music CDs and books about singers. She goes to the music party every Sunday.”可知，她总是买一些音乐CD和关于歌手的书，每个星期天都去参加音乐会，因此可以推断出她喜欢在空闲时间听音乐；选项A“辛迪喜欢在空闲时间听音乐。”符合语境。故选A。
34．根据下文“He also likes cooking food. He often cooks food for his family on Saturdays.”可知，他还喜欢做饭，经常在周六为家人做饭，因此可以推断出他喜欢美食；选项D“约翰喜欢美味的食物。”符合语境。故选D。
35．开放性试题，言之有理即可。参考答案为：My hobby is doing sports. Because doing sports can make me healthier and stronger.
36．C 37．D 38．A 39．B 40．C 41．A 42．D 43．C 44．B 45．A 46．C 47．B 48．D 49．A 50．D
本文主要讲述了一个八岁的女孩珍妮拒绝喝牛奶，但她的妈妈知道牛奶对她的健康很重要。在学校，Jenny喜欢读书，特别是关于猫的故事。她读了一本故事后，发现故事中的小猫无法行走和爬树，于是她担心起来。最后，她意识到小猫需要钙来保持健康，就像她自己一样。
36．她总是对她妈妈说，“不，谢谢你。牛奶不要给我。”
juice果汁；vegetables蔬菜；milk牛奶；eggs鸡蛋。根据“Milk has calcium (钙)”可知，提到与牛奶相关的问题。故选C。
37．珍妮的妈妈知道喝牛奶对珍妮有好处。
short短的；cool凉爽的；happy高兴的；good好的。根据“Milk has calcium (钙)”可知，牛奶中含有钙，对她有好处，be good for“对……有益处”。故选D。
38．牛奶含有钙，有助于保持身体强壮。
helps帮助；wants想要；loves爱；thanks感谢。根据“Milk has calcium (钙) and … to keep her strong.”可知，牛奶中含有钙，有助于保持身体强壮。故选A。
39．今天，珍妮在学校得到了一本书。
pen笔；book书；map地图；bag包。根据“students to read the story—Casper Kitten in it.”及下文提到的“Jenny…books.”可知，她得到了一本书。故选B。
40．珍妮的老师Ms. Jones要求她的学生读里面的故事——卡斯帕小猫。
their他们的；our我们的；her她的；his他的。根据“Jenny’s teacher, Ms. Jones, asks … students to read the story”可知，珍妮的老师琼斯女士是女性，所以此处应填her“她的”。故选C。
41．珍妮喜欢这本书。
likes喜欢；gets得到；sees看；watches看。根据“she thinks it’s a nice book.”可知，她很喜欢这本书。故选A。
42．所以她认为这是一本好书。
If如果；But但是；And和 So因此。根据“She likes cats, too.”可知，所以她认为是一本好书。故选D。
43．放学回家后，珍妮读这个故事。
at在；to到；from从；with和。根据“After coming home … school, Jenny reads the story.”可知，是从学校回家后珍妮读故事。故选C。
44．过了一会，珍妮说，“哦，卡斯帕小猫不会走路。”
run跑；walk步行；swim游泳；sing唱。根据下文提到“It’s just that Casper Kitten can’t walk or climb.”可知，它不会走路。故选B。
45．珍妮的妈妈走过去问她，“怎么了，珍妮？你好吗？”
asks问；calls打电话；thinks认为；spells拼写。根据“Jenny’s mom walks to her and …, ‘What’s wrong ’”可知，此处是在问她。故选A。
46．珍妮的妈妈走过去问她，“怎么了，珍妮？你好吗？”
Where哪里；Who谁；How如何；What什么。根据下文提到“I’m fine, Mom.”可知，此处是在问“你怎么了”。故选C。
47．我相信卡斯帕小猫会没事的。
nice好的；sure肯定的；welcome欢迎；right正确的。根据“Casper Kitten will be okay.”可知，这是妈妈在安慰她，be sure“肯定，确信”。故选B。
48．让我们吃晚饭吧。
tea茶；breakfast早餐；lunch午餐；dinner晚餐。根据“It’s 6:00 p.m.”可知，此时是晚餐时间。故选D。
49．珍妮喝了她的第一杯牛奶。
glass玻璃杯；basket篮子；pair双，对；piece片，块。根据“And Jenny has her first … of milk.”可知，此处表达的是她喝了第一杯牛奶，glass“玻璃杯”符合句意。故选A。
50．我也需要牛奶。
go走，去；try尝试；have有；need需要。根据“Mom, Casper Kitten needs calcium to walk, climb and keep strong. I … it, too.”可知，小猫需要钙来行走、攀爬和保持健康，我也需要牛奶，need“需要”符合句意。故选D。
51．activities 52．because 53．playing 54．them 55．really
本文主要介绍了作者学校十月份举行的活动详情。
51．十月还有一些有趣的学校活动。根据“we have a soccer game”和“We have a book sale on October 20th.”可知，下文介绍了学校的活动；activity“活动”，some后接可数名词复数。故填activities。
52．我不喜欢篮球，因为它对我来说太难了。“I don’t love basketball”和“it’s difficult for me”构成因果关系，设空处后为原因，because“因为”符合语境。故填because。
53．我喜欢踢足球和观看足球比赛。play soccer“踢足球”，enjoy doing sth.“喜欢做某事”，所以设空处填写play的动名词形式。故填playing。
54．我有三本旧书，我想卖掉它们。设空处指代“three old books”且在句中作宾语，所以填写they的宾格them。故填them。
55．十月对我来说真是个好月份。设空处应填写副词修饰形容词，real符合语境，其副词形式为really“真的；的确”。故填really。
56．greet 57．things 58．bottle 59．blue 60．dad’s/father’s 61．twelve 62．carrot 63．geese 64．keeps 65．tidy
本文是一篇记叙文，主要讲述了Tom的日常生活以及他父亲家中的动植物情况。
56．每天早上，我用“早上好”或“你好”招呼我的同学和老师。greet“招呼”，句子时态为一般现在时，主语为“I”，用动词原形greet。故填greet。
57．在我的书包里，我有很多东西，像铅笔、一个瓶子、一把尺子和一些书。thing“东西”，根据“many”可知，此处用复数形式。故填things。
58．在我的书包里，我有很多东西，像铅笔、一个瓶子、一把尺子和一些书。bottle“瓶子”，根据“a”可知，此处用单数形式。故填bottle。
59．我的书包是蓝色的。“蓝色”英文是“blue”，形容词。故填blue。
60．这是我爸爸的房子。dad/father“爸爸”，根据空后的名词“house”可知，此处表示所属关系，用’s所有格形式。故填dad’s/father’s。
61．有十二棵苹果树，一些胡萝卜植株和许多花。twelve“十二”，数词。故填twelve。
62．有十二棵苹果树，一些胡萝卜植株和许多花。carrot“胡萝卜”，carrot plants“胡萝卜植株”，是固定搭配。故填carrot。
63．他有五只鹅和八只鸡。goose“鹅”，根据“five”可知，此处用复数形式geese。故填geese。
64．他总是保持他的院子整洁。keep“保持”，句子时态为一般现在时，主语是“He”，用三单形式keeps。故填keeps。
65．他总是保持他的院子整洁。tidy“整洁的”，形容词。故填tidy。
66．to meet 67．a 68．sisters 69．is 70．but 71．her 72．on 73．says 74．what 75．Gina’s
本文作者大明介绍了自己以及两个姐妹的房间情况。
66．见到你们很高兴。根据“Nice...you!”可知，此处是固定表达nice to meet you“见到你很高兴”，所以空处应用不定式形式。故填to meet。
67．我是中国杭州一所中学的学生。根据“student”可知，此处泛指一名学生，且student是以辅音音素开头的单词，应用不定冠词a修饰。故填a。
68．我有两个姐妹，简和吉娜。根据“two”可知，此处应用名词复数形式。故填sisters。
69．这是她们房间的一张照片。根据“Here...(be) a picture of their rooms.”可知，本句是Here be句型，遵循就近原则，空后是单数名词a picture，所以be动词用is。故填is。
70．简的房间很整洁，但是吉娜的房间不整洁。根据“Jane’s room is tidy (整洁的),...Gina’s isn’t.”可知，前后句是转折关系，应用but连接。故填but。
71．在简的房间里，她的书在书柜里。根据“books”可知，此处应用形容词性物主代词her修饰名词。故填her。
72．被子在床上。根据“The quilt is...the bed.”可知，此处指被子在床上，应用介词on，表示“在……上”。故填on。
73．她总是说她找不到她的东西。根据“always”可知，本句是一般现在时，主语是第三人称单数，所以动词用三单形式。故填says。
74．哦，沙发旁边那是什么？根据“...is that next to sofa ”可知，此处询问沙发旁边那是什么，应用what“什么”提问。故填what。
75．哈哈，这是吉娜的钥匙。根据“it’s...(Gina) key.”可知，此处指吉娜的钥匙，应用名词所有格形式。故填Gina’s。
76．例文：
My best friend
Hello, I’m Lihua. I want to introduce my best friend whose name is Wang Han. He is from China and is 13 years old.
His favourite subject is PE because he enjoys doing sports. In his free time, he likes swimming and reading. Swimming makes him feel relaxed, and reading helps him gain knowledge. Wang Han is a helpful person. He often assists his classmates with their studies and is always ready to lend a hand when others are in need. His wish is to join the English club so that he can improve his English. He also plans to learn to play the guitar because he is interested in music.
I’m really glad to have such a great friend.
[总体分析]
①题材：本文是一篇材料作文；
②时态：时态为“一般现在时”；
③提示：写作要点已给出，注意不要遗漏要点，可适当添加细节，并突出写作重点。
[写作步骤]
第一步，引出“我的好朋友”的话题；
第二步，具体阐述写作内容。从“个人信息、爱好性格、愿望计划”等方面进行介绍；
第三步，书写结语，总结全文。
[亮点词汇]
①enjoy doing喜欢做
②plan to do计划做某事
③be interested in对……感兴趣
[高分句型]
①I want to introduce my best friend whose name is Wang Han.（whose引导的非限制性定语从句）
②His wish is to join the English club so that he can improve his English.（so that引导的目的状语从句）2025 -2026学年七年级上学期期中考试（绍兴卷）
英语·答题卡
姓名：______________________________________
准考证号 条 码 粘 贴 处
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的签字笔填涂。 6．填涂样例 正确 [■] 错误 [--][√] [×]
选择题(请用 2B铅笔填涂)
第二部分（听力）(第 1-5 每小题 1分，6-15每小题 1.5分，共 20分)
1.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 6.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 11.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
2.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 7.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 12.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
3.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 8.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 13.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
4.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 9.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 14.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
5.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 10.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 15.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
第二部分（阅读理解）(共 20小题，每小题 2分，满分 40分)
16.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 21.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 26.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 31.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
17.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 22.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 27.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 32.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
18.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 23[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 28.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 33.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
19.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 24.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 29.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 34.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
20.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 25.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 30.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
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第三部分 第一节 完形填空(共 15 小题，每小题 1分，满分 15 分)
36.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 41.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 46.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
37.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 42.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 47.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
38.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 43.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 48.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
39.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 44.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 49.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
40.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 45.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 50.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
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非选择题(请在各试题的答题区内作答)
第二节 词汇运用(共 15小题，每小题 1分，满分 15分)
A:51.___________ 52. ____________ 53. ____________ 54 ____________ 55. ____________
B:56.___________ 57. ____________ 58. ____________ 59 ____________ 60. ____________
61.___________ 62. ____________ 63. ____________ 64 ____________ 65. ____________
第三节 语法填空(共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分)
66.___________ 67. ____________ 68. ____________ 69 ____________ 70. ____________
71.___________ 72. ____________ 73. ____________ 74 ____________ 75. ____________
第四部分语言运用 (共一节，满分 20 分)
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