资源简介

2025学年第一学期八年级英语期中检测
英语参考答案和评分标准
（附听力材料）
Ⅰ. 参考答案
一、听力
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. B
12. C 13. C 14. C 15. B
二、完形填空
16. C 17. D 18. C 19. D 20. C 21. D 22. B 23.A 24. C 25. A 26. A
27. B 28. A 29. D 30. B
三、阅读理解
31.A 32. B 33. D 34. B 35. C 36.C 37. D 38. A 39. A 40. A
41. C 42. C 43. B 44. B 45. D
四、词汇运用
46. appearance 47.more comfortable 48. against 49. tools 50. anyone/someone
51.square 52. reminded 53. friendship 54. invite 55. pack
56. arrival 57. expect 58. journey/travel 59. spare/free 60. role
五、语法填空
61．for 62．ate 63．especially 64．ourselves 65．away
66．to bring 67．third 68．the coldest 69．but 70．an
六、任务型阅读
71．D 72．A 73．C 74．E
75. Yes, I do. I feel happy.（每小题回答内容基本合理即可；语法、 拼写错误酌情扣分）
七、书面表达
76. One possible version:
Hello, everyone. My name is John. Let me tell you something about my best friend, Peter.
Peter has long straight hair and always wears glasses. He is taller and heavier than me. Although he is a little shy, he is much more hard-working than most students in our class. He always gets better grades than me.
As for hobbies, he loves reading books and watching documentaries about animals and plants. That’s because he is very interested in nature. He believes animal and plants are important in our life and people can’t live without them. In his free time, he also enjoys traveling with his parents every year. Those trips make his life full of warmth and happiness.
I truly learn a lot from him and I’m really lucky to have a friend like Peter.
Ⅱ. 评分标准
●第1-10小题，每小题1分；选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分。
●第11-15小题，每小题2分；选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分。
●第16-30小题，每小题1分；选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分。
●第31-45小题，每小题2分；选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分。
●第46-60小题，每小题1分；写错答案一律不给分；首字母大小写错误扣0.5分。
●第61-70小题，每小题1分；写错答案一律不给分；首字母大小写错误扣0.5分。
●第71-75小题，每小题2分；写错答案或不写一律不给分。
●第76小题，共计20分。
采分点 满分 可给分值
1. 内容充实，覆盖要点（内容、要点） 7 6~7分 3~5分 1~2分 0分 描述了所有要点，内容合理、丰富 描述了大部分信息，内容比较合理 描述了小部分信息，内容不合理 没有作答或描述内容与主题无关
2. 用词适切，语法正确，句型多样 （词汇、语法、句型） 7 6~7分 3~5分 1~2分 0分 用词适切，句型变化多样且有效，完全或基本没有语言错误 用词基本适切，句型较为单一，有少量语言错误但不影响理 有较多语言错误，一定程度上影响理解 有大量语言错误，影响理解
3. 结构紧凑，意思连贯（语意、连词、指代） 4 3~4分 1~2分 0分 行文连贯，连接词使用恰当，指代清晰 行文不够连贯，连接词使用不够恰当，指代不够清晰 没有连贯的意识
4. 书写规范，词数适宜（标点符号、大小写、词数） 2 2分 1分 0分 大小写、标点正确，词数达标，书写规范整洁 大小写、标点有部分错误，词数达标，书写尚可辨认 大小写、标点错误较多，语言应用不规范，词数严重不足，书写难以辨认
Ⅲ. 听力材料
同学们，你们好！这是2025学年第一学期英语学科期中检测的听力部分。该部分共有三节。
请看听力部分第一节。
第一节:
听下面5段小对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。（停顿00'02''）
现在，你有5秒钟的时间阅读第1小题的有关内容。（停顿00'05''）
1. M: My favourite sport is basketball. What about you, Jenny 　
W: I like badminton best.
（停顿00'10''）
2. W: Which animal is the most popular in your country, Tim
M: I think it’s the sheep. You can see a lot of sheep in the field and on the hill in our country.
（停顿00'10''）
3. M: Did you go anywhere interesting last weekend, Emma
W: Yes. I planned to go to Dinghai. But at last we went to Zhujiajian and played on the beach.
（停顿00'10''）
4. M: Could you help me walk the dog, Lisa
W: Sorry, Dad. I am tired.
（停顿00'10''）
5. M: Excuse me, could you please show me the way to the museum
W: Take Bus No. 2, and get off on the Central Street. It’s across from the street. Look! Here comes the bus.
（停顿00'05''）
第一节到此结束。
第二节:
听下面两段较长对话。每段对话后有2~3个小题，请从各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听对话前，你将有5秒钟的时间阅读每个小题；听完后，每个小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。（停顿00'02''）
听下面一段较长对话，回答6、7两个问题。现在，你将有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。（停顿00'10''）
W: It is windy and cold outside. I don’t want to go out today.
M: OK, Tina. Just sit down and watch TV with me.
W: Oh, I don’t like the show. It’s terrible. How about playing chess with me, Peter
M: Sorry, I can’t play chess.
W: I’ll go and ask Mum to play with me.
M: I’m afraid she can’t. She is making your favourite chicken soup.
（停顿00'02''）
（重复）（停顿00'10''）
听下面一段较长对话，回答第8~10三个问题。现在，你将有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。（停顿00'15''）
W: Yaming, is your grandfather good at telling stories 　
M: Yes, he is very good at telling stories about the animals. He told me three stories last week. 　
W: What animals were the stories about 　
M: He told me a story about lions on Tuesday, a story about rabbits on Thursday and a story about tigers on Saturday. 　
W: Did you enjoy listening to the stories 　
M: Yes, they were very interesting.
（停顿00'02''）
（重复）（停顿00'15''）
第二节到此结束。
第三节:
听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有25秒钟的时间阅读每个小题；听完后，每个小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。（停顿00'02''）
现在，你有25秒钟的时间阅读这5个小题。（停顿00'25''）
Now many people do volunteer work in different ways. Julie, Mike and Billy are three volunteers. Julie is a teacher. She’s good with kids. Every Friday evening she teaches kids to read and write in a study center. Mike is an animal doctor and he loves animals very much. He helps care for animals at Big Zoo every Saturday morning. Billy is a player. He teaches children to play sports every Sunday.“I think volunteering is the happiest thing in my life. ”said Billy.
（停顿00'02''）
（重复）（停顿00'25''）
第三节到此结束。
现在，你有1分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。
（停顿01'00"）
听力测试到此结束。2025学年第一学期八年级英语期中检测
英语参考答案和评分标准
(附听力材料)
I.参考答案
一、听力
1.B
2.A
3.C
4.A
5.A6.A7.B8.C9.B10.A11.B
12.C13.C14.C
15.B
二、完形填空
16.C
17.D
18.C
19.D
20.C21.D22.B23.A24.C25.A26.A
27.B
28.A
29.D30.B
三、阅读理解
31.A
32.B
33.D34.B
35.C36.C
37.D38.A39.A40.A
41.C
42.C
43.B
44.B
45.D
四、词汇运用
46.appearance
47.more comfortable
48.against
49.tools
50.anyone/someone
51.square
52.reminded
53.friendship
54.invite
55.pack
56.arrival
57.expect
58.journey/travel
59.spare/free
60.role
五、语法填空
61.for
62.ate
63.especially
64.ourselves
65.away
66.to bring
67.third
68.the coldest
69.but
70.an
六、任务型阅读
71.D72.A73.C74.E
75.Yes,Ido.I feel happy.(每小题回答内容基本合理即可；语法、拼写错误酌情扣分)
七、书面表达
76.One possible version:
Hello,everyone.My name is John.Let me tell you something about my best friend,Peter.
Peter has long straight hair and always wears glasses.He is taller and heavier than me.Although he is a
little shy,he is much more hard-working than most students in our class.He always gets better grades than me.
As for hobbies,he loves reading books and watching documentaries about animals and plants.That's
because he is very interested in nature.He believes animal and plants are important in our life and people can't
live without them.In his free time,he also enjoys traveling with his parents every year.Those trips make his life
full of warmth and happiness.
I truly learn a lot from him and I'm really lucky to have a friend like Peter.
Ⅱ.评分标准
●第1-10小题，每小题1分；选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分。
●第11-15小题，每小题2分；选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分。
英语参考答案和评分细则(ZS)第1页（共4页）2025学年第一学期期中素养监测试题卷
八年级 英语
考生须知：
1．本试题卷分卷一（选择题）和卷二（非选择题）两部分。请考生使用规定用笔，将所有试题的答案涂、写在答题纸上。做在试题卷上无效。
2．全卷共8页，7大题。满分为120分。考试时间为100分钟。
3．答题前,请在答题卷的密封区内填写校名、班级、姓名、座位号等。
卷 一
说明：本卷共有三大题，45小题，满分70分。
一、听力（本题有15小题，第一、二节每小题1分，第三节每小题2分，共计20分）
第一节：听小对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确选项，回答问题。每段对话仅读一遍。
( )1. What’s Jenny’s favourite sport
A. Basketball. B. Badminton. C. Baseball.
( )2. Which animal is the most popular in Tim’s country
The sheep. B. The kangaroo. C. The bear.
( )3. Where did Emma go last weekend
A. Dinghai. B. Zhuhai. C. Zhujiajian.
( )4. What does Dad want Lisa to do
A. To walk a dog. B. To take a walk. C. To help others.
( )5. Where are the two speakers
At a bus station. B. In a museum. C. On a train.
第二节：听长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的选项，回答问题。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答第6、7两个问题。
( )6. How is the weather now
Windy. B. Rainy. C. Sunny.
( )7. Who wants to play chess
Peter. B. Tina. C. Tina’s mother.
听下面一段较长对话，回答第8~10三个问题。
( )8. What were Yaming’s grandfather’s stories about
Science. B. Humans. C. Animals.
( )9. When did grandfather tell a story about rabbits
A. Last Tuesday. B. Last Thursday. C. Last Saturday.
( )10. What did Yaming think of the stories
A. Interesting. B. Exciting. C. Boring.
第三节：听一段独白，从A、B、C三个选项中选择正确的选项，回答问题。独白读两遍。
( )11. What does Julie do
A. A player. B. A teacher. C. A doctor.
( )12. Where does Julie do volunteer work
A. At school. B. In a hospital. C. In a study center.
( )13. Which is true about Mike
He’s a dentist .
B. He doesn’t like animals.
C. He helps care for animals at Big Zoo.
( )14. When does Mike do volunteer work
Every Sunday morning.
B. Every Sunday afternoon.
C. Every Saturday morning.
( )15. What does Billy volunteer to do every Sunday
A. Teach little children to sing.
B. Teach children to play sports.
C. Teach old people to play chess.
二、完形填空（本题有15小题，每小题1分，共计15分）
阅读下面短文，然后从各题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
Jaime Escalante was a teacher from Bolivia．In 1963, he started to 16 in Los Angeles, USA. He was thirty-three years old and spoke almost no 17 ．
Life was 18 for Escalante in the United States. He could not be a 19 as before. He had to go to college again. It 20 him many years, but he did it. He worked at a restaurant to support his family at the same time. 21 , when he was forty-three he started to work at Garfield High School in Los Angeles. This school had a 22 name. There were many gangs（团伙）and the students were not doing well. Soon Escalante 23 things．
Escalante 24 his students. He taught them math. He used his own ways, and they worked. The students learned and enjoyed their 25 . In 1982, fourteen of his students passed a very important math examination. 26__ believed this．
People said 27 were cheating(作弊). The students wanted to show they were not cheating. They took the exam again． 28 they passed again. This was a miracle（奇迹）in a place 29 Garfield! This was the work of Jaime Escalante．
Every year Escalante produced top class students. People know him as one of 30 teachers in America. Here is even a movie and a book about him．
( )16. A. hike B. camp C. live D. explore
( )17. A. Chinese B. French C. Japanese D. English
( )18. A. easy B. boring C. difficult D. comfortable
( )19. A. cook B. waiter C. guide D. teacher
( )20. A. used B. cost C. took D. wasted
( )21. A. Firstly B. Suddenly C. Actually D. Finally
( )22. A. good B. bad C. strange D. popular
( )23. A. changed B. protected C. connected D. compared
( )24. A. looked for B. reached for C. worked with D. did with
( )25. A. math B. music C. vacation D. friendship
( )26. A. Nobody B. Anybody C. Somebody D. Everybody
( )27. A. the writers B. the students C. the teachers D. the schools
( )28. A. And B. But C. So D. For
( )29. A. as B. except C. with D. like
( )30. A. the oldest B. the best C. the poorest D. the liveliest
三、阅读理解（本题有15小题，每小题2分，共计30分）
阅读下面四篇材料，然后从各题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
A
Knowing yourself is very important. Some students are talking about their personal qualities . Do you have similar qualities
Be self-disciplined (自律的） I take my health seriously, even though no one asks me to do that. For example, I do exercises every day and never eat junk food. I think being self-disciplined is important in my life. —Bill
Be outgoing I am an outgoing person, so I like to make lots of friends. And I don’t care if my friends are the same as me or different from me. —Jason
Be helpful Sam missed many classes because he was in hospital for weeks. After he returned to school, I helped him with schoolwork. As a result, he got good grades in the final exams. —Lisa
Be hard-working I’m a student in Grade 8 now. I become more hard-working than before, so I often get good grades in English tests. I always believe that the harder I work, the luckier I am. —David
( )31. What does Bill do to show he is self-disciplined
He exercises every day.
B. He studies hard every day.
C. He becomes hard-working.
D. He helps his classmates with schoolwork.
( )32. How did Lisa help Sam
She made friends with Sam.
B. She taught Sam school subjects.
C. She visited Sam in the hospital.
D. She took Sam to do exercises.
( )33. Where is this passage most probably from
An art magazine. B. A sports newspaper.
C. A health report. D. A school magazine.
B
You may not realize it, but some tiny animals are really amazing. Ants are one of the best examples.
Ants are known for their hard work and strong connection with each other. They live in large groups called colonies(蚁巢), where they work together like humans. Each ant has its own job. Some of them store food for the colony, while others take care of the young. Though ants are small, they can carry things much heavier than themselves.
Ants make a difference to our planet. Believe it or not, the earth would be a very different place without ants. For one thing, ants help to take pollen from one flower to another as they move. For another, they break down the leaves and flowers, which helps to enrich the earth. What's more, they dig tunnels (坑道) to build houses underground. Their actions help plants grow.
Ants show us that even the tiniest living thing can play a part in keeping our world healthy and balanced. For this reason, we should be thankful for their hard work. It is also our duty to protect them.
( )34. What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 1 refer to
A tiny and amazing ant.
B. Some tiny animals are really amazing.
C. The fact that humans like ants.
D. Ants are the best amazing animals.
( )35. How many aspects (方面) can ants make a difference to our planet
A. One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four.
( )36. What can we learn about ants
A. They usually live in small groups.
B. They don't look for food together.
C. They help each other to look after babies.
D. There will be more flowers on earth without ants.
( )37. Which can be the best title of the passage
A.Life Stories of Ants
B. Different Kinds of Ants
C. Ants: The Smartest Animal
D. The Ant: Tiny but Amazing
C
Do you live with a good neighbor What kind of neighbor is good The answers are different from person to person. Here are my answers.
First, it is very important to respect each other. If our neighbors try to know more about our life, how will we feel He or she may also talk with others about our life. Do you want to live with him or her any more The answer is “No”. We will feel very annoyed to have this kind of neighbor and move away quickly.
Next, a good neighbor is always ready to give us a hand when we need him or her. For example, if we are not at home, our good neighbors will watch our house for us.
Finally, a good neighbor should love the environment. He or she never puts rubbish here and there, because a good environment can make us comfortable and happy.
I think we all should learn to be good neighbors, and I also hope everyone will have good neighbors and live a happy life.
( )38. How does the writer start this passage
A．By asking questions. B．By giving examples.
C．By telling stories. D．By making comparison.
( )39. What does the underlined word “annoyed” in Paragraph 2 mean
A．Angry. B．Lucky. C．Excited. D．Glad.
( )40. Which of the following is TRUE
A．People should learn to be good neighbors.
B. Good neighbors put rubbish everywhere.
C．Good neighbors talk with others about our life.
D．Good neighbors never watch your house when you are out.
( )41. What’s the structure of the passage (Paragraph 1=①,…)
A．B． C． D．
D
Prince Mathew is a ten-year-old boy who loves to invent(发明) things. He made a robot that can help people do farm work from far away.
When Prince was little, he liked different things from what other kids like. He didn't have many toys at home and didn't often play computer games. But he really enjoyed playing with building blocks. He loved making all kinds of things with them.
One day, Prince's mom said they didn't have enough room in their home for all the plants she wanted to grow. This made Prince think about how to solve the problem. Then he had an idea: "What if we could grow plants in a place away from our home "
Prince spent about two to three months building his robot. Before he started drawing plans, he looked up a lot of information online. To make the robot work well, he went to the store to buy all the parts he needed. The robot could move around by itself. The last thing Prince did was to write computer programs to make the robot useful, not just a toy.
He named his robot GrRobot. It has a small video camera(视频摄像机 ) and a basket for growing plants. It can check if the ground is dry or wet and decide when to turn on the water. This will help farmers with their work, even with some hard jobs.
Besides this robot, Prince has also made a computer game and some phone apps. When people ask him how he can make all these things, he says, "I feel really happy when I see my inventions help people live better. I will keep trying to solve problems for more people. Maybe with my help, the world can become a better place."
( )42. Why did Prince invent the robot
A．To play computer games at home.
B．To solve all the problems in their home.
C．To meet his mom’s need to grow all her plants.
D．To show the possibility of building things with blocks.
( )43. Which of the following is the correct order for Prince to make GrRobot
a. He write computer programs to make the robot useful.
b. He started drawing plans.
c. He looked up a lot of information online.
d. He went to the store to buy all the parts he needed.
A．a-b-c–d B．c-b-d–a C．c-d-a–b D．b-c-d–a
( )44. What might Prince’s robot look like
A． B．
C． D．
( )45. What can we learn from the last paragraph
A．Kindness can solve problems.
B．Hard work is the way to success.
C．Working together makes a difference.
D．Helping others helps to get happiness.
卷 二
说明：本卷共有四大题，31小题，满分50分。
四、词汇运用（本题有15小题，每小题1分，共计15分）
(
tool
against
c
omfortable
anyone
appear
)A. 用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，每词仅用一次。
John, my best friend, is a lovely boy from Class One. He has a friendly 46 with bright glasses. His warm personality makes me feel even 47 . I’m a little shy, and he always encourages me to fight 48 my shyness to make more friends with others. To help me learn English well, he showed me some useful 49 —some apps. The Word App is the most helpful to me. Besides helping me, he also helps 50 in need.
What an excellent boy!
B. 阅读下面短文，然后根据括号内所给汉语意思写出单词的正确形式（每空一词）。
Last weekend, our community held a small party at the central 51 (广场). The colorful and creative posters on the walls 52 （提醒） everyone to come. We hoped to create a sense of peace and 53 （ 友谊）in our neighborhood.
My little brother is very forgetful, so I had to 54 （邀请） him personally. I also helped him 55 （打包） his favorite snacks. We waited for the 56 （到达）of our neighbors under a big tree.
Soon, Mr. Davis, a strong man, came to lift the heavy table for us. We didn't 57 （预料、期待）such kindness! He shared stories about his 58 （旅行）across the country.
In my 59 （空闲）time, I'm usually a bit lazy，but that day I played an important 60 （作用、职能） in preparing for the party. It was a really wonderful day that brought everyone closer.
五、语法填空（本题有10小题, 每小题1分, 共计10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
Last week I went to Nanjing with my parents. It’s the capital of Jiangsu Province, and one of China’s Four Great Ancient Capitals. We stayed there 61 three days.
The weather was sunny on the first day. We went to the Sun Yat-sen Mausoleum (中山陵) and the Xuanwu Lake. They were fantastic. At noon, we had lunch in a famous restaurant. We were so hungry that we 62 (eat) up all the food. Everything was very delicious, 63 (especial) Nanjing salted duck. We really enjoyed 64 (we) that day.
The next day, it was rainy. We felt bored to stay in the hotel. So we went to visit the Nanjing Yangtze River Bridge. It just took our breath 65 . There were too many people there. We forgot 66 (bring) our umbrellas, but luckily, a kind young man helped us. He gave us three raincoats, so we didn’t get wet.
On the 67 (three) day, the rain stopped, but it was 68 (cold) of the three days. We went to a big supermarket with warm clothes. I bought some gifts for my grandparents and my friends, 69 nothing for myself. In the afternoon, we flew home.
I had a good time in Nanjing. I think it was 70 enjoyable trip.
六、任务型阅读（本题有5小题, 每小题2分, 共计10分）
阅读短文，从方框内所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯。选项中有一项为多余选项。
There is a saying, “Home sweet home!” Have you ever heard it This is just another way of saying that it’s nice to be home! 71
What do you like best about being at home Maybe you like to play with your brothers and sisters. Maybe you enjoy staying with your mum and dad. 72 Spending time with them is one thing that makes being at home special.
Your bedroom is another thing that makes home special. Your toys, your books, and your favourite things are in your bedroom. Think about what you like best about it. Maybe you like to have a quiet place to read a book or to think about your day. 73 Families sit around the table to eat the food Mum or Dad has prepared. It’s a time to share interesting stories about your day.
There are a lot of things to do to make home a special place. Who does the chores like cleaning, cooking and doing yard work When families work together to do the chores, it makes them easier and more fun for everyone. 74 Or maybe you can pull weeds (草) out of the flower garden. Maybe you can water the houseplants. Think about what you can do so that when you come home every day, you can say, “Home sweet home!”
A．They are your loved ones.
B．Leaving home is a part of growing up.
C．Mealtime can be a special time at home.
D．A lot of people and things we love are at home.
E．Maybe you can help lay the table or clean the rooms.
75. Do you like your home How do you feel at home most of the time
________________________________________________（不少于5个单词）
七、书面表达（本题有1小题, 共计20分）
76. 友谊是人生中最珍贵的礼物之一。以“My Best Friend”为题，写一篇英语短文，向我们详细介绍你最好的朋友—Peter。
Appearance long straight hair, wear glasses, taller, heavier
Personality shy, more hard-working
Hobby read books and watch documentaries about animals and plants; Reasons: be interested in… can’t live without them
Other aspects travel with parents every year Feelings: full of warmth…
参考词汇：documentary:纪录片；aspect：方面
注意：（1）短文必须包括表格中的所有内容，并作适当发挥。
（2）文中不得出现与你身份相关的信息。
（3）词数：80词左右。短文首句仅供参考，不计入总词数。
短文首句： Hello, everyone. My name is John. Let me tell you something about my best friend, Peter.
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________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________2025学年第一学期期中素养监测试题卷
八年级英语
考生须知：
1.本试题卷分卷一（选择题）和卷二（非选择题）两部分。请考生使用规定用笔，将所
有试题的答案涂、写在答题纸上。做在试题卷上无效。
2.全卷共8页，7大题。满分为120分。考试时间为100分钟。
3.答题前，请在答题卷的密封区内填写校名、班级、姓名、座位号等。
卷一
说明：本卷共有三大题，45小题，满分70分。
一、听力（本题有15小题，第一、二节每小题1分，第三节每小题2分，共计20分）
第一节：听小对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确选项，回答问题。每段对话仅读一遍。
()1.What's Jenny's favourite sport
A.Basketball.
B.Badminton.
C.Baseball.
()2.Which animal is the most popular in Tim's country
A.The sheep.
B.The kangaroo
C.The bear.
()3.Where did Emma go last weekend
A.Dinghai.
B.Zhuhai.
C.Zhujiajian
()4.What does Dad want Lisa to do
A.To walk a dog.B.To take a walk
C.To help others
()5.Where are the two speakers
A.At a bus station.B.In a museum.
C.On a train.
第二节：听长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的选项，回答问题。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答第6、7两个问题。
()6.How is the weather now
A.Windy.
B.Rainy.
C.Sunny.
()7.Who wants to play chess
A.Peter.
B.Tina.
C.Tina's mother.
听下面一段较长对话，回答第8~10三个问题。
()8.What were Yaming's grandfather's stories about
A.Science.
B.Humans.
C.Animals
()9.When did grandfather tell a story about rabbits
A.Last Tuesday.
B.Last Thursday.
C.Last Saturday.
()10.What did Yaming think of the stories
A.Interesting.B.Exciting.
C.Boring.
第三节：听一段独白，从A、B、C三个选项中选择正确的选项，回答问题。独白读两遍。
()11.What does Julie do
A.A player.
B.A teacher
C.A doctor
()12.Where does Julie do volunteer work
A.At school.
B.In a hospital.
C.In a study center.
)13.Which is true about Mike
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