黑龙江省哈尔滨师范大学青冈实验中学校2025-2026学年高三11月份考试英语试题(含答案,含听力原文无音频)

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黑龙江省哈尔滨师范大学青冈实验中学校2025-2026学年高三11月份考试英语试题(含答案,含听力原文无音频)

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哈师大青冈实验中学2025-2026学年度11月份考试
高三英语试题
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 (共5小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.What did the man do
A.He did the dishes. B.He took out the trash. C.He washed the clothes.
2.What will the woman bring to the barbecue
A.Hamburgers. B.Hot dogs. C.Potato salad.
3.What can we learn from the conversation
A.The woman cannot see well.
B.The man’s dog looks like a cat.
C.The speakers are from different countries.
4.Why is the woman excited
A.She got an interview opportunity.
B.She was hired for a new job.
C.She just left her old job.
5.What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A.Salesman and customer. B.Neighbors. C.Husband and wife.
第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给出的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6-7题。
6.When will the grass be cut
A.Today. B.Tomorrow. C.In three weeks.
7.Why is Mrs.Johnson’s grass long
A.She is too busy. B.Jim hasn’t cut it. C.Her husband hasn’t cut it.
听第7段材料,回答8-10题。
8.What did the man use to clean the tea pot
A.Oil. B.Dish soap. C.Water.
9.What does the man say about electric tea pots
A.They are safer. B.They save energy. C.They are easy to clean.
10.What can we learn about the man
A.He asked the woman to clean the kitchen.
B.He’s always been a master at cleaning.
C.He didn’t know how to clean before.
听第8段材料,回答11-13题。
11.What do the speakers need money for
A.A car. B.The soccer team. C.The summer camp.
12.Where will the man sell lemonade
A.In front of his house. B.Near his school. C.At the beach.
13.How will the woman make money
A.By selling cups. B.By washing cars. C.By working at a snack bar.
听第9段材料,回答14-16题。
14.Where are the speakers
A.In New Orleans. B.In Memphis. C.In Boston.
15.Why doesn’t the boy want to go skiing in the front yard
A.He thinks skiing there dangerous.
B.He wants to build a snowman instead.
C.He doesn’t want to be covered in snow.
16.How does the girl know so much about the snow
A.She grew up in a cold area.
B.She learned about it from her mother.
C.She spent every winter in the mountains.
听第10段材料,回答17-20题。
17.How many visitors choose to attend Louisiana state university (LSU)
A.A small percentage of its visitors.
B.About half of its visitors.
C.Most of its visitors.
18.Why are many students attracted to the school
A.Because of its history.
B.Because of the beautiful environment.
C.Because of the good athletes in school.
19.Which are the strong programs at the school
A.Education and sports
B.Agriculture and Spanish
C.Sports and environmental studies.
20.What is a unique fact about the school
A.They have cows on campus.
B.80% of their buildings are brand new.
C.Most of the world’s best athletes go there.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
The 2024 “Chinese Bridge” Chinese Proficiency Competition for Foreigners across the Globe—Calligraphy and Painting Challenge has been officially announced.
This competition invites painting, calligraphy, and Chinese language enthusiasts from all around the world to take part in this exciting event.
Participants are encouraged to submit their creative themes for the contest, with the theme selection process being determined through public nominations.
If you’re interested, feel free to submit the theme that you believe fits best with the requirements of the competition.
Here are the requirements:
Who Can Apply
The call for creative themes for the Calligraphy and Painting Challenge is open to any Chinese language enthusiasts worldwide, with no limit to age or nationality.
Submission Dates
Submissions will be accepted from June 15, 2024, to 12:00 PM on June 30, 2024(Beijing Time.)
Announcement Date
The selected theme for the Calligraphy and Painting Challenge will be announced on July 1, 2024, which also marks the official start date of the submission period for works under the selected theme.
Submission Methods
Participants can send their theme and related information to chinesebridge@.“Chinese Bridge” also accepts direct messages on its official account on Facebook, Instagram, WeChat, and Weibo.
21.Who can be invited to the competition
A.Tom who is crazy about Spanish B.Sandy who is creative in writing.
C.Lucy whose nationality is Chinese. D.Bill who loves Chinese and calligraphy.
22.On which of the following dates can the participants submit their works
A.June 12, 2024. B.July 1, 2024. C.June 20, 2024. D.July 15, 2024.
23.What is the purpose of the text
A.To build a competition organization.
B.To provide information about a competition.
C.To announce the opening of a competition
D.To collect creative themes for a competition.
B
When I first moved into a traditional hutong in Beijing, the narrow alleyways felt like a maze(迷宫).My tiny room was part of a siheyuan shared with three Chinese families.Back home in London, I lived in a quiet suburban house with a private garden.Here, I could hear neighbors chatting through paper-thin walls,and the smell of stir-fried vegetables often drifted into my room.It was overwhelming yet strangely alive.
The biggest shock came the next morning.I stepped outside to find a communal(公共的) tap where residents brushed teeth and washed vegetables side by side.An elderly man in pajamas(睡衣) nodded at me while spitting into the drain—a common practice here but shocking to Western eyes.Later, when I tried to throw trash into a bin, Mrs.Li from next door rushed over, sorting my waste into four colorful categories with a patient smile.“Recycling matters,” she said, though I understood little Chinese.
Gradually, the hutong revealed its magic.Children played hopscotch(跳房子游戏)on stone paths, and shopkeepers knew everyone’s name.One rainy day, my roof leaked.Before I could call for help, one of my neighbors climbed up with a ladder and fixed it himself.That evening, he invited me for jiaozi.As we dipped them in vinegar, I realized privacy in the West meant isolation; here, “noisy closeness” meant belonging.
Now, when I bike past the morning crowds buying baozi or see neighbors playing chess under tree shades, I feel at home.The hutong taught me that culture shock is just the first step to discovering a new way of living—one where community wraps around you like a warm quilt.
24.What surprised the author most on the first morning
A.The complex layout of the hutong. B.The queuing up habit of neighbors.
C.The smell of cooking in the air. D.The shared use of a water tap.
25.Why did Mrs.Li help the author with the trash
A.To help him adapt to local customs. B.To market colorful trash bins.
C.To promote garbage classification. D.To keep the public area clean.
26.What does “noisy closeness” in Paragraph 3 refer to
A.Terrible living environment. B.Active community interactions.
C.Respect for foreign culture. D.Loud arguments between neighbors.
27.What does the writer think of the present life in Beijing
A.Satisfying. B.Overwhelming. C.Disappointing. D.Astonishing.
C
While you might not realize it, the environment where you sleep can make a great difference in the actual quality of sleep that you get every night.With a few simple lifestyle changes, you can create a healthy sleep environment that helps improve your sleep quality.
Go to bed and get up at the same time every day, even on weekends, holidays and days off.Studies show that people who do so are more rested than those who sleep irregularly .
Go to sleep only when you start to feel sleepy.If you don’t fall asleep within about 15 minutes, get up and do something relaxing.Go back to bed when you are tired.
Pay attention to what you eat and drink.Don’t go to bed either hungry or stuffed .Your discomfort might keep you up.Avoid caffeine (咖啡因) 6 hours before you sleep.Having a cup of coffee within a few hours of bed time can keep you awake for hours when you are trying to sleep.Coffee isn’t the only product containing caffeine.Avoid chocolate and tea, too.Also limit how much you drink before bed to prevent trips to the toilet at night.
Many people turn on the TV before they go to bed.TV influences your natural sleep habits by making you stay up longer than you usually would, especially if you are watching something exciting.Instead of turning on the TV, read a book.Light reading before bed can help you fall into a deep sleep quickly.
If you suffer from serious sleep problems, go to your doctor.Your doctor will help treat the problems or may advise you to see a sleep specialist.
28.What should you do to make sure you have a good sleep at weekends according to the text
A.Get up a bit later than usual. B.Go to bed at a regular time.
C.Watch some relaxing TV programs. D.Avoid drinking coffee or tea in the day.
29.What does the author advise you to do if you can’t fall asleep after lying in bed for 15 minutes
A.To drink some water. B.To do some light reading.
C.To listen to light music. D.To get up and relax.
30.What does the underlined word “stuffed” in Paragraph 4 mean
A.Having slept too much. B.Having eaten too much.
C.Feeling too sad. D.Feeling too tired.
31.What does the text mainly talk about
A.What to do before going to bed. B.The importance of sleeping well.
C.How to improve your sleep quality. D.The relationship between sleep and lifestyle.
D
Recent developments in robotics, artificial intelligence, and machine learning have brought us in the eye of the storm of a new automation age.About half of the work carried out by people was likely to be automated by 2055 with adaption to technology, a McKinsey Global Institute report predicted.
Automation can enable businesses to improve performance by reducing errors and improving quality and speed, and in some cases achieving outcomes that go beyond human capabilities.At a time of weak productivity growth worldwide, automation technologies can provide the much-needed promotion of economic growth, according to the report.Automation could raise productivity growth globally by 0.8 percent to 1.4 percent.At a global level, technically automated activities involved 1.1 billion employees and 11.9 trillion U.S.dollars in wages, the report said.
The report also showed that activities most influenced by automation were physical ones in highly structured and predictable environments, as well as data collection and processing.In the United States, these activities make up 51 percent of activities in the economy, accounting for almost 2.7 trillion dollars in wages.They are most common in production, accommodation and food service, and the retail (零售) trade.And it’s not just low-skill, low-wage work that is likely to be influenced by automation; middle-skill and high-paying, high-skill occupations, too, have a degree of automation potential.
The robots and computers not only can perform a range of routine physical work activities better and more cheaply than humans, but are also increasingly capable of accomplishing activities that require cognitive (认知的) capabilities, such as feeling emotions or driving.
While much of the current debate about automation has focused on the potential that many people may be replaced and therefore lose their financial resources, the analysis shows that humans will still be needed: The total productivity gains will only come about if people work alongside machines.
32.What is the report mainly about
A.Comparisons of robots from different countries.
B.Analysis of automation’s potential in economy.
C.Prediction of the unemployment problem.
D.Explanations of the concept of artificial intelligence.
33.What might happen in 2055 according to the text
A.Automation will cause weak productivity growth.
B.Automation will reduce employees’ wages.
C.Activities like data collection and processing will disappear.
D.Activities involving feeling emotions can be performed by robots.
34.How does the author feel about human workers
A.Worried. B.Mixed. C.Optimistic. D.Doubtful.
35.Which can be a suitable title for the text
A.Automation: A future replacement for humans
B.Robots: A challenge to all humans
C.Retail trade: Where to go from here
D.Automation: Who is the eventual winner
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读短文,从短文后选项中选出可填入空白的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
To figure out how to choose a career, start by taking a good look at yourself.Your talents, your passions and your mission are like the small wires.____36____ From there, you’ll narrow the field further by looking at the specifics of different career options you’re most suited for.
List your skills and talents.No matter who you are, there are plenty of things you’re good at.You might know what those talents are already, but go ahead and make a list of every one that comes to mind.____37____ Don’t leave out any of them, even if you don’t think it qualifies as a career skill.
Identify your passions and mission.If you’re going to find a meaningful career, passion isn’t just a pipe dream(白日梦) but a must.It means the work will fulfill you.____38____ To sustain commitment over the long stretch, you also need a deeper purpose.This purpose defines your mission: the contribution you want to make and the results you try to see.
____39____ Matters like how much money you want to make and where you want to live are important too.Think about these questions to narrow down your options: How much money do you need to make Do you want flexibility in your job What kind of benefits are important to you What kind of environment do you excel in
If you’ve managed to get through everything above and have a clear answer for what you’re wired to do, congratulations! If you’re still unsure, that’s okay.____40____ There’s only so much career shopping you can do before you have to just go for it.
A.Consider your financial goals first.
B.Think about practical parts of a job.
C.However, passion alone isn’t enough.
D.You don’t have to have this figured out by dinnertime.
E.These are all clues that tell you what your strengths are.
F.They combine to form a picture of what you’re wired to do.
G.Your mission will follow if you’re passionate about your work.
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
My mom has been and will always be my biggest inspiration.She is a single parent of eight, and I have no idea how she survived.Throughout the years, my mom has ____41____ many hardships which could easily ____42____ someone with little determination.
Even when doctors ____43____ if my little sister Mary would live to see the age of 2, my mom never lost hope.After ____44____ visits to countless doctors, my mom decided to bring her home and make the best of my sister’s life ____45____ giving in to the bad results from different hospitals.
Mary’s frequent hospital visits definitely upset her, but my mom never showed ____46____ of weakness.Her ____47____ helped Mary through every tough time.No matter how confused Mary was, my mom always made her feel as if there was nothing to worry about, which ____48____ Mary to live the life of a normal child.
____49____, things began to become worse.Around her 6th birthday, Mary lost sight at the age of 5.The doctor said that it could _____50_____ cure.The whole family were heartbroken and helpless.Once again, my mom found a way to _____51_____ us all, making us know that she had a strong support system.She _____52_____ her job and stayed with Mary day and night, which helped contribute to her recovery _____53_____.
My mom gets us to realize that no matter how _____54_____ our life may appear, we are equipped with a very strong _____55_____ system.We are a family that will always be there for one another.
41.A.scared B.overcome C.warned D.cheered
42.A.delight B.embarrass C.discourage D.facilitate
43.A.questioned B.instructed C.wondered D.recommended
44.A.occasional B.limited C.numerous D.rare
45.A.in spite of B.rather than C.apart from D.due to
46.A.signals B.predictions C.symbols D.signs
47.A.creation B.judgement C.gesture D.strength
48.A.enabled B.persuaded C.prevented D.suggested
49.A.Nevertheless B.Therefore C.Besides D.Hence
50.A.frequently B.hardly C.possibly D.actually
51.A.blame B.favor C.inspire D.respect
52.A.put up B.took up C.broke up D.gave up
53.A.gradually B.properly C.terribly D.instantly
54.A.cruel B.tough C.official D.smooth
55.A.performance B.acceptance C.entertainment D.support
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Labubu dolls are hard to come by.Around the giant flagship store of their maker, Pop Mart, in Shanghai, a large number of customers ____56____ (tell) they need to wait a week or longer.It is not just Chinese children trying to get their hands on them; celebrities ____57____ (include) Rihanna, a pop star, and David Beckham, ____58____ ex-footballer, have posted photos of Labubu on social media.
The popular enthusiasm for Labubu ____59____ (send) Pop Mart’s shares up by 180% since the start of the year.It is one of Chinese consumer brands ____60____ popularity is shooting up.In the past, Chinese shoppers looked overseas ____61____ the latest trends in cosmetics, fashion and more.Now they are streaming to local luxury firms, high-end make-up brands and milk-tea shops.
It is an odd time for a boom among Chinese consumer products.Slow economic growth has caused household spending to ____62____ (weak).It is claimed that consumer downgrading is part of the ____63____ (explain) for the attention around Chinese brands.Since consumers have become more price-sensitive, cheap-but-decent-quality homegrown brands have boomed.Many Chinese coffee drinkers have found local chains such as Cotti or Luckin just as good as Starbucks, but often much ____64____ (expensive).Part of Pop Mart’s success with Labubu dolls comes from ____65____ (target) spenders with high-quality, “emotive” products, says Lina Yan of HSBC.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 应用文(满分15分)
假定你是李华,你校来自爱尔兰的外教Peter因病回国休假。请给他写一封电子邮件,内容包括:
1.询问近况;
2.分享班级最新消息;
3.表达祝愿。
注意:
1.词数80左右;
2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
Dear Peter,
Best wishes,
Li Hua
第二节 读后续写(满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
He was the prettiest homeless dog we had ever seen at the shelter, we immediately fell in love with him and decided to give him a permanent home.Our ten-year-old daughter,Margie,named him Onyx because of his thick, shiny black coat.When we adopted him,Onyx was only ten weeks old and we had no idea that this amazing little baby dog would end up being our hero.
As he grew older, Onyx became more and more involved in our family activities.He particularly loved swimming with us on hot summer days.He would float in the river in his own rubber tube(橡皮圈).Sometimes, he would stand on the top of the tube with a big smile and show off his perfect balance.Otherwise, he would rest his front legs over the edge of the rubber tube and keep his eyes shut as he floated until he had enough of the warm sun on his thick, black coat.
One day, Margie announced she was going to swim in the pond in front of our house.But it happened that no one in the family was free to go swimming with her that day.The unwritten rule in my family,regardless of swimming ability, was to have a companion in the water, I was not a good swimmer, so I said to Margie,“Take Onyx with you.”
Having heard his name,Onyx jumped to his feet and was ready for action.Margie signaled him to follow and they rushed to the water together.However, I still felt uneasy at the moment.I went to the doorway and watched them reach the pond.They rested on the shore for a few minutes before diving into the water and started swimming side by side.Suddenly I heard Margie calling out,“Help! My leg hurts!”
(1)续写词数应为150个左右;
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答
Para.1:Seeing my daughter struggling in the water, I dashed to the pond.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Para.2:After they were safe on the shore, I hugged Onyx and my daughter tightly.
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
哈师大青冈实验中学2025-2026学年度11月份考试
高三学年英语试题答案
第一部分:听力(共两节,满分30分)
1-5 BCCAB 6-10 BCBAC 11-15CABBA 16-20 ACBAA
阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节 (共15 小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
21-23. DCB 24-27 DCBA 28-31. BDBC 32-35. BDCA
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
36. F 37. E 38. C 39. B 40. D
语言运用(共两节,满分 30 分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
41—45 BCACB 46—50 DDAAB 51—55 CDABD
第二节 语篇填空(共10小题;每小题1. 5分,满分15分)
56. are told 57 including 58. an 59. has sent 60. whose
61. for 62. weaken 63. explanation 64. less expensive 65. targeting
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 应用文写作(满分15分)
One possible version:
Dear Peter,
I hope you are well. I am writing to share with you some events that have happened since you returned to Ireland.
We recently had a fun cultural exchange day, during which students shared and learned about different traditions and customs from around the world, which reminded us of your classes. Your teaching has had a lasting impact on all of us, and we can’t wait for you to come back and continue the great work you have been doing.
Your health is the most important thing right now. Please make sure to take your medicine on time and stick to a balanced diet. We all miss you and look forward to your return.
Best wishes,
Li Hua
第二节 读后续写(满分25分)
One possible version:
Paragraph 1:
Seeing my daughter struggling in the water,I dashed to the pond.
The horror rushed into my mind. Not being good at swimming, I was totally in anxiety, having no choice but to shout for help and tell her stay calm. On the contrary to how I behaved, our pretty and clever Onyx had her own decision. He swam closer to Margie, invited Margie to catch her back and dragged her towards the bank. With such a good support, enduring the pain in the leg, Margie could have a short rest and spared no effort to swim to the bank. Sensing nothing was wrong with Margie, Onyx began to swim happily ahead of Margie.
Paragraph 2:
After they were safe on the shore,I hugged Onyx and my daughter tightly.
I wrapped them in the thick blankets and took them to the car for the warmth. After putting them in, I praised Margie for her immediate and effective action and then patted Onyx on his head, feeling honored to have such a hero. Onyx seemed to enjoy so wonderful a moment that he wagged his tail merrily. Everyone in the family was grateful for their safe return and Onyx was given an extra treat later in the afternoon for his quick and brave reaction.Since this incident, we had a special feeling to Onyx, not just a puppy, but a closer friend and hero in our life.
听力原文
1.【原文】W: I’m so proud. I got almost all my chores done today. I washed all the clothes and dishes. The only thing I didn’t do was take out the trash.
M: Guess what I did that when I got home.
2.【原文】M: My family is having a barbecue tomorrow. Would you like to come All you have to bring is a side dish. We’re going to have hamburgers and hot dogs and will play music and games.
W: That sounds great. I love barbecues. I’ll bring some potato salad.
3.【原文】W: Is that your dog
M: Dog That’s my cat. Did you forget your glasses today
W: No, in my country, we don’t dress up cats in hats and shirts like that.
4.【原文】W: I found out I’m on the short list for the job I wanted.
M: What does that mean, the short list
W: It means that I’ve been chosen to get an interview with the company. If I do well, I’m hired.
5.【原文】W: What were you doing last night I heard some loud noise from your house.
M: I’m terribly sorry, Mrs. Johnson, I was just repairing a pipe and my wife broke a vase by accident.
6.【原文】M: Excuse me, Mrs. Johnson, I noticed today that your grass has been getting very long. Would you like me to cut it for you I’m going to do mine tomorrow anyway.
W: Wonderful! You are a very kind neighbor, Jim. My husband has been out of town for three weeks and he usually does it.
M: What time would be convenient for you
W: What about after breakfast Before it gets too hot outside.
M: Okay. I’ll come over with my tools around nine tomorrow morning.
W: That sounds perfect. Thank you so much.
7.【原文】W: This room is really clean. Look at that teapot. It’s so shiny.
M: Yeah, I didn’t use water. I just used dish soap and a cloth to clean it and then oil to make it shine.
W: Wow! Oil You’re certainly the cleaning master.
M: I searched the Internet. I thought if I was going to do all this cleaning, I should do it right.
W: It looks great. I’m glad I asked you to do this room.
M: But I think we should get an electric teapot.
W: It probably uses less energy, but what’s wrong with our old teat
M: Electric teapots are harder to clean, but they are just safer. They go off as soon as the water boils.
8.【原文】W: How are you going to raise money for the summer camp We’ve only got a few months to go. We’re not old enough yet to get a job at the snack bar at the beach.
M: I’m going to make lemonade and sell it to people driving by in front of my house.
W: Good idea.
M: I did it last summer and made some good money. All I need is a table, lemonade and some cups. Everyone stops when it’s hot outside. What are you going to do for extra money
W: Well, I think I’ll set up a car wash near school with my friends. We did it to raise money for our soccer team and we made a lot of money in a short time. I’m sure I can get them to do it again, so we can all go to camp.
9.【原文】 M: The weatherman said it is going to snow tomorrow! I’ve never seen snow before. It never snowed when I lived in New Orleans.I didn’t think it would here in Memphis, either.
W: Really Yes, we get some snow every winter. It’s great. There are so many fun things we can do. We could make a snowman or have a snowball fight. Maybe our moms will even let us go skiing in our front yards!
M: I’ll make a snowman with you, but I don’t know if I want to ski in the front yard — that sounds dangerous! What about cars in the street
W: There won’t be any cars driving down the road if it’s covered in snow! They would slide everywhere.
M: Oh, I didn’t think of that. You sure know a lot about the snow... more than most people here.
W: Well, I spent my childhood in Boston, so I’ve been around a whole lot of it in my life!
【原文】 M: If you are visiting colleges and happen to stop by Louisiana state university, then you will probably not look at other universities after that. LSU is a very attractive place. Having one of the most beautiful college campuses in the US. In fact eighty percent of people who visit LSU end up going there. People can’t get enough of the lovely old buildings and the big Spanish oak trees. It also has many exciting opportunities to offer its students. As the top school in the state, LSU has a strong focus on education and the famous sports program brings some of the world’s best athletes to the school. LSU also has a unique agricultural program. They even have their own cows on campus that students can take care of. If you’re looking for a high level interesting school with a lot to offer Louisiana state university is the place for you.
应用文评分标准
1. 本题总分为15分,按五个档次进行评分。
2. 评分时,应主要从内容要点、词汇语法和篇章结构等方面考虑。
(1)内容要点的完整性;
(2)应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性;
(3)上下文的连贯性。
3. 评分时,应先根据作答的整体情况确定其所属的档次,然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
4. 评分时还应注意:
(1)词数少于80或多于120的,从总分中减去2分;
(2)书写较差以至影响交际的,将分数降低一个档次;
(3)单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面,评分时应视其对交际的影
响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
第五档(13-15分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务,整体而言,完全达到了预期的写作目的。
覆盖所有内容要点,表达清楚、合理;
应用了较多复杂、高级的语法结构和词汇;
语法结构或词汇方面使用准确,即使有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致,不影响意思表达,显现出较强的语言运用能力;
自然流畅地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
第四档(10-12分)
较好地完成了试题规定的任务,整体而言,达到了预期的写作目的。
基本覆盖所有内容要点,表达比较清楚、合理;
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求;
语法结构或词汇应用方面基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致,基本不影响意思表达;
应用了语句间连接成分,使全文结构比较紧凑。
第三档(7-9分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务,整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
虽漏掉一些要点内容,但覆盖所有主要内容,尚能表达出作文要求;
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,句子结构有一定的变化;
有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响部分意思表达;
能应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
第二档(4-6分)
未适当完成试题规定的任务,信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
漏掉或未描述清楚一些内容要点,存在一些内容与主题无关;
应用的语法结构单调,词汇有限;
有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解;
较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺乏连贯性。
第一档(1-3分)
未完成试题规定的任务,信息未能传达给读者。
明显漏掉主要内容,出现一些无关内容,偏离主题;
语法结构非常单调,词汇非常有限;
较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解;
缺乏语句间的连接成分,语意不连贯。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息。
未作答;所写内容与题目要求完全不相关;所写内容太少或所写内容无法看清,导致无法评判。
读后续写评分标准:
1. 本题总分为25分,按五个档次进行评分。
2. 评分时,应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构等方面考虑。
(1)续写内容的质量、完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度;
(2)所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性;
(3)上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3. 评分时,应先根据作答的整体情况确定其所属的档次,然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
4. 评分时还应注意:
(1)词数少于120的,酌情扣分;
(2)书写较差以至影响交际的,酌情扣分;
(3)单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面,评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
第五档(21-25分)
创造了丰富、合理的内容,富有逻辑性,续写完整,与原文情境融洽度高。
使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构,可能有个别小错,但完全不影响理解。
有效地使用了语句间衔接手段,全文结构清晰,前后呼应,意义连贯。
第四档(16-20分)
创造了比较丰富、合理的内容,比较有逻辑性,续写比较完整,与原文情境融洽度较高。
使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构,可能有些许错误,但不影响理解。
比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段,全文结构比较清晰,意义比较连贯。
第三档(11-15分)
创造了基本合理的内容,有一定的逻辑性,续写基本完整,与原文情境相关。
使用了简单的词汇和语法结构,有一些错误或不恰当之处,但基本不影响理解。
基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段,全文结构基本清晰,意义基本连贯。
第二档(6-10分)
内容或逻辑上有一些重大问题,续写不够完整,与原文情境有一定程度脱节。
所使用的词汇有限,语法结构单调,错误较多,影响理解。
未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段,全文结构不够清晰,意义不够连贯。
第一档(1-5分)
内容或逻辑上有较多重大问题,或有部分内容抄自原文,续写不完整,与原文情境基本脱节。
所使用的词汇非常有限,语法结构单调,错误很多,严重影响理解。
几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段,全文结构不清晰,意义不连贯。
0分
未作答;续写内容太少或书写无法看清以致无法评判;续写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。
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