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莆田锦江中学2025-2026学年英语期中考试
高三英语(高职班）
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1．What time is it now
A．3:30. B．3:45. C．4:00.
2．How does the man usually travel
A．By car. B．By bus. C．By train.
3．Which sport does the man like best
A．Swimming. B．Football. C．Basketball.
4．Where are the two speakers most probably
A．At home. B．In a garden. C．At a flower shop.
5．What will the man probably do
A．Watch TV B．Read a magazine. C．Listen to the radio.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6．What does the man keep doing
A．Lifting weights. B．Blaming the woman. C．Adding more exercise to the woman.
7．What does the woman probably think of the exercise
A．It’s very difficult. B．It’s too exciting. C．It’s useless.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8．Where did the woman stay during her holiday
A．In a hotel. B．In the mountains. C．At a farmer’s house.
9．What was the weather like in the country
A．Fine. B．Rainy. C．Windy.
10．What time did the woman get home this morning
A．At 4:30. B．At 5:00. C．At 9:00.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11．Why does the man recommend Muse Magazine to the woman
A．It’s helpful for schoolwork.
B．It’s about science and nature.
C．It has lots of inspiring stories.
12．How old is the woman’s son now
A．8. B．9. C．14.
13．What will the woman probably do next
A．Get back to her office. B．Buy the magazine. C．Ask for her son’s opinion.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14．Why is Joe’s bike upside down
A．He is checking it. B．He keeps it that way. C．He had an accident.
15．How often does Joe oil his bike
A．Once a year. B．Once a month. C．Once a week.
16．Which part of the bike does the man say needs changing most often
A．The seat. B．The wheels. C．The chain.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17．What sports does the speaker like
A．Skiing and snowboarding.
B．Swimming and playing football.
C．Skiing and swimming.
18．When did the speaker begin snowboarding
A．At the age of five. B．At the age of eight. C．At the age of seventeen.
19．What do many people think about snowboarding
A．Dangerous. B．Exciting. C．Safe.
20．What will happen if you fall while on skis
A．We may have a cold.
B．We may have a stomachache.
C．We may break our bones.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共10小题;每小题2分，满分20分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Musical films are becoming a must-watch for everyone. Here are four top musical films.
The Greatest Showman Directed by Hugh Jackman In this film, we can see a young boy called P. T. Barnum, who sets out with a dream to make an influence on the world with his creative ideas. The director surprises us with an excellent show of acting and singing.
In The Heights Directed by Lin-Manuel Miranda This film tells the story of Usnavi, a store owner who wishes to return to his homeland, the Dominican Republic. The pool scene where the characters sing the song “96,000” is sure to keep you rewatching the film for days, if not weeks.
Hamilton Directed by Lin-Manuel Miranda Are you looking for a musical with plenty of raps (说唱音乐) Then, Hamilton is a good choice for you. This two-hour film focuses on how Alexander Hamilton arrives in New York and becomes an important figure in history.
The West Side Story Directed by Steven Spielberg The film tells the story of Tony and Maria, who fall in love with each other despite their cultural differences and backgrounD. This 2021 musical film is widely recognised all over the world.
21. What is the boy called in The Greatest Showman
A. P. T. Barnum. B. Usnavi. C. Alexander Hamilton. D. Tony.
22. How long does the film Hamilton last
A. 1 hour. B. 1.5 hours. C. 2 hours. D. 2.5 hours.
23. Which film is about a love story
A. The Greatest Showman. B. In The Heights.
C. Hamilton. D. The West Side Story.
24. How many films are directed by Lin-Manuel Miranda
A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4.
25. What’s the text mainly about
A. Musical films. B. Love poems. C. TV programs. D. Pop concerts.
B
Spud Webb was born in Texas, the USA, in 1963. He was much smaller than the other kids at school. However, he had a big dream— to play in the NBA.
While attending junior high, Spud tried out for the school team, but he was refused at first because he was too small. He did not lose heart. When he finally got the chance, he scored 20 points in his first game. From then on, he was the star of the team.
In senior high, Spud often had to sit in the stands because of his height. He practised even harder and got the coach to change his mind. Spud went on to become leader of the team. In his last year of senior high, he was named Player of the Year in Texas.
However, no university would invite him to play basketball just because he was only 170 cm tall. He decided to play at a junior college. There he led his team to the national championship. This brought him to the attention of North Carolina State University. As a result, he was admitted to the university and got a scholarship (奖学金).
After he graduated, he played in a basketball league(联队) for about a year before the NBA noticed him. In 1985, he joined the Atlanta Hawks and became the shortest player in the NBA at that time. He had many great achievements, but his proudest moment came in 1986— he won the Slam Dunk Contest.
Through hard work, Spud Webb proved that size and body type do not matter— you can do almost anything if you never give up.
26. What was Spud’s big dream
A. To play with other kids. B. To become a team leader.
C. To be a player in the NBA. D. To change his coach’s mind.
27. Spud was refused by the school team because ______.
A. he was too short B. he was unhealthy
C. he didn’t practise hard D. he didn’t do well in sports
28. When was Spud named Player of the Year in Texas
A. In junior high. B. In senior high. C. At college. D. At university.
29. What does the underlined word “This” refer to in Paragraph 4
A. Getting a scholarship.
B. Playing at a junior college.
C. Attending North Carolina State University.
D. Leading his team to the national championship.
30. Which best describes Spud
A. Helpful. B. Creative. C. Hard-working. D. Warm-hearted.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
International Literacy (读写能力) Day, also called World Literacy Day, was set in 1966 by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). The purpose was to help improve the world’s ability to read and give people better opportunities in life. 31
·Collect Books to Donate
Kids in some poor communities might have difficulty getting chances to read the books they need to improve their skills and become better readers. 32 . Keep an eye out for books that can be donated.
·Tutor (辅导) a Student How to Read and Write
33 . They can use extra help from a tutor to get skills as well as confidence. Go to the local library or school to find out ways that literacy programs can use extra help with tutoring
· 34 .
In addition to helping someone read locally, it’s also possible to get connected with a literacy organization through the World Literacy Foundation. This organization mainly focuses on helping children from low-income backgrounds. 35
A. Connect with a Literacy Organization
B. Some children struggle to read and write
C. Collect books for them from used bookstores
D. And it also helps the children to become lifelong readers
E. Here are tips about how to celebrate International Literacy Day
第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节，满分25分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When I was thirteen years old , a girl gave me an important gift. It was a 36 . It was the early autumn of my first year at a new school. No one 37 me. I was very lonely. Every time I heard the other students talking and laughing, I felt even more 38 . I could not talk to anyone about my 39 , and I did not want my parents to worry about me.
One day, my classmates were talking with their friends, but I sat 40 . At that moment, a girl entered the classroom, 41 me without a word and gave me a bright smile. 42 , I felt the touch of something bright and friendly. It made me feel 43 . It was like a hidden treasure. That smile 44 my life. I started to talk with the other 45 . Day by Day, I learnt to 46 people, and they included me in their circle of friends. The girl with the 47 smile has become my best friend now. One day, asked her 48 she smiled at me that day. She said she could not remember!
Now I believe that the world is what you think it is. If you 49 that you are lonely, you might always be alone. My 50 is: smile at the world and it will smile back.
36. A. toy B. smile C. postcard
37. A. reminded B. cheated C. knew
38. A. lonely B. comfortable C. excited
39. A. problem B. suggestion C. danger
40. A. in turn B. in silence C. in surprise
41. A. shouted to B. looked at C. sent for
42. A. Briefly B. Terribly C. Suddenly
43. A. warm B. angry C. shy
44. A. destroyed B. controlled C. changed
45. A. workers B. neighbors C. students
46. A. trust B. ignore C. refuse
47. A. bright B. forced C. sad
48. A. how B. why C. where
49. A. doubt B. answer C. think
50. A. difficulty B. advice C. chance

第Ⅱ卷(非选择题共 25 分)
第二节语法填空(共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
Tim always looked for the easy way to do something. When his mother told him 51 (take) out the rubbish, he told his little sister to do it. When his father 52 (ask) him for help, Tim said he was 53 (tire).
For English class, Tim 54 (recent) had to write a short article about an animal. He went online, chose an article about 55 (tiger), and copied it. With a big smile 56 his face, he gave it to his teacher.
But Tim wasn’t so 57 (luck). His teacher read 58 same article online! Tim received zero points for 59 (he) homework. As punishment, he had to write not one, 60 two new articles.
Tim learned his lesson. Cheating is wrong, and it always leads to trouble.
第四部分 书面表达(满分15分)
包粽子是中国端午节的一个传统习俗。假定你是李华，你班级准备在端午节当天开展包粽子体验活动，请你写一封电子邮件，邀请你校外教Bob参加，要点包括:
活动地点 in our school dining room
活动时间 from 9:00 a.m. to 1l:30 a.m. on 22nd June
参与人员 all the students and teachers in our class
活动内容 1. wrap(包)rice ... with bamboo leaves to make zongzi 2. cook zongzi by ourselves 3. taste zongzi together
活动意义 experience and learn more about Chinese traditional culture
注意:
1. 词数 80 左右;
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯:3.开头与结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Bob,
I’m writing to invite you to take part in an activity on the Dragon Boat Festival.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Looking forward to your reply.
Yours,
Li Hua

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