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2025-2026学年上学期八年级期中考试
英语试卷
说明：1. 答题前，务必将自己的姓名、学号等填写在答题卷规定的位置上。
2. 考生必须在答题卷上按规定作答：凡在试卷、草稿纸上作答的，其答案一律无效。
3. 全卷共6页，考试时间70分钟，满分75分。
第一部分 选择题（50分）
Ⅰ. 完形填空（10分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出能填入相应空白处的最佳选项。（共10小题，每小题1分）
Last summer, I decided to try something new. My school advertised a fun outdoor summer camp for students, and I 1 it. When I first got there, I was a bit 2 because I didn’t know anyone. But soon, I met some friendly campmates. The rooms there were not very nice, but the beds were 3 soft. The air was fresh with a nice 4 of grass and flowers.
During the days at the camp, we had all kinds of interesting 5 . On the first day, we played games and shared our hobbies to get to know each other. The next day, we went on a long walk through the forest. The guide warned us to be careful and 6 strange animals. He also shared many stories with us about the plants and animals there. We tried to 7 different birds by their calls. At the end of the camp, there was a talent show. The camp leaders encouraged everyone to join in. I was too 8 at first, but my friends cheered me on. Finally, I decided to sing a song. I didn’t think I sang well at all so I didn’t expect any prize. But to my 9 , I won a small prize!
The summer camp was an amazing experience 10 I made new friends, learned new skills, and had a lot of fun. I’ll always remember those wonderful days.
1. A. set up B. took up C. got ready for D. took part in
2. A. proud B. nervous C. patient D. thirsty
3. A. extremely B. hardly C. suddenly D. clearly
4. A. taste B. sound C. smell D. look
5. A. prizes B. activities C. interviews D. lessons
6. A. find B. feed C. count D. avoid
7. A. identify B. catch C. draw D. watch
8. A. interested B. excited C. shy D. positive
9. A. surprise B. pride C. sadness D. happiness
10. A. if B. because C. but D. so
Ⅱ. 阅读理解（40分）
第一节 阅读下面下列短文，从下面每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。（共15小题，每小题1.5分）
A
Can you explain “zero” Can you do addition and subtraction (加减法) Most people can, but did you know bees can too A study finds bees have better math abilities—after training, they can tell even numbers (ending with 0, 2, 4, 6, 8) from odd ones (ending with 1, 3, 5, 7, 9).
Some Australian scientists put up different cards with an odd or even number of triangles (三角形). Then they trained the first group of bees to choose odd numbers, and the second group to choose even numbers. Bees got sugar water for right choices and got bitter water for wrong ones.
Soon, all bees learned to tell odd/even numbers, choosing correctly 80% of the time. Later, scientists added new cards with 11 and 12 (never seen in training), but bees still chose right 70% of the time. Surprisingly, bees even learned numbers more quickly than people.
Scientists don’t know how bees learn so quickly, but they think finding the answer could help build better, faster computers—especially since a bee’s brain is smaller than ours!
11. How does the passage start
A. By listing facts. B. By giving examples.
C. By asking questions. D. By using pictures.
12. Which of the following card should the second group of bees fly to
① ② ③ ④
A. ①③ B. ②③ C. ①② D. ③④
13. What can we learn about the bees’ performance after adding new cards
A. The bees could choose the right numbers 80% of the time.
B. The bees failed to tell odd and even numbers of the new cards.
C. The bees still made correct choices about 70% of the time.
D. The bees learned the new numbers more slowly than people.
14. What can we learn from the last paragraph
A. Scientists know how bees learn numbers.
B. Bees like odd numbers better than even numbers.
C. Scientists know why bees can tell different numbers.
D. Bees may be able to contribute to science and technology.
15. Where can you probably read this passage
A. A storybook for young kids
B. A science magazine about animals
C. A history textbook about inventions
D. An advertisement for beekeeping products
B
The power of words became clear to me several years ago when I ran into great trouble in my first job. There were some unclear words from a certain customer, and I completely misunderstood them, which brought some troubles for my company. As a result, I had a “serious” talk with my boss and I felt like the biggest loser on Earth.
And just when I needed it, came the strength in these words “You need to lean back a little to leap further”. These words came from Jessie, an old friend of mine. It turned out she was telling me not to rush—taking a short break first would help me achieve more in the end. They made me feel better rapidly and I realized what power encouraging words had.
Soft, sincere and encouraging words from friends can give you strength in hard times. They can act as the light of hope in your time of darkness. They can make you smile and help you forget your worries. Using encouraging words is an art and it is a symbol of one’s “emotional intelligence”.
You must have read the famous poem “Don’t Quit (放弃)”. It says that sometimes, things go wrong but you should not quit. A few words of encouragement can really raise one’s spirits and make a difference.
16. Why did the writer get into trouble in her first job
A. Because it was her first job. B. Because she misunderstood a customer.
C. Because her boss was serious. D. Because she did not like her customer.
17. How did the writer feel after finishing the talk with her boss
A. Sad. B. Serious. C. Strange. D. Surprised.
18. What can we infer from the underlined sentence in Paragraph 2
A. Jessie asked the writer to be braver. B. Jessie asked the writer to jump further.
C. Jessie wanted the writer to go home. D. Jessie wanted the writer to take it easy.
19. Which is NOT the power of encouraging words
A. To improve intelligence. B. To give people strength.
C. To leave worries behind. D. To remain hopeful.
20. What is the main idea of the passage
A. A good friend can always cheer you on.
B. Words are more important than actions.
C. Friends can raise our spirits in hard times.
D. Words can be the light of hope in darkness.
C
Look! Up in the sky! Not a bird or a plane, it’s an eVTOL! It’s also known as an air taxi. It started the first journey from Shenzhen to Zhuhai, completing the 55-kilometer trip in about 20 minutes. This marks an important development of this exciting new form of transport.
Air taxis use high technology to take off and land like a helicopter (直升机). So they don’t need long runways. Instead of using traditional engines, air taxis use electric motors (电动机).
Air taxis can fly without a pilot. These air taxis have several propellers to help them stay safe in the sky. They also use large batteries to let them fly far and fast.
Air taxis can make people’s travelling faster and safer. They can help improve traffic jams, with their direct point-to-point travel. They can save time for people. The cost of taking an air taxi may be more expensive than ground transport, but the travel can be up to five times faster. With the help of the computers, the air taxis can fly safely in the sky. That is to say, the computers can plan the flight of every air taxi in advance (提前), so that they won’t have any accidents in the sky.
The air taxi is also a better choice for cities. As an eco-friendly choice, it produces fewer emissions (排放) than traditional cars, improving air quality.
The air taxi has already been used in the Paris Olympics. Some people think this is a transport that will become widely used. Many companies and researchers are developing this transport and they believe air taxis will have a huge market in the coming years.
21. Where did the air taxi start its first journey
A. In Shenzhen. B. In Zhuhai. C. In Guangzhou. D. In Beijing.
22. Which of the following helps air taxis fly far and fast
A. Long runways. B. Traditional engines.
C. Large batteries. D. Computers.
23. What can we infer about air taxis from the passage
A. They need pilots to control flights.
B. They are cheaper than ground transport.
C. They have been widely used around the world.
D. They are less harmful to the environment.
24. What is the purpose of the passage
A. To compare different ways to travel.
B. To discuss the future users of air taxis.
C. To introduce air taxis as a new transport.
D. To show the possible risks of taking air taxis.
25. What will the writer probably discuss after the last paragraph
A. The history of air taxis. B. The problems of air taxis.
C. The benefits of air taxis. D. The future of air taxis.
第二节 阅读下面的短文，从方框里的六个句子中选择五个还原到原文中，使原文的意思完整、连贯。（共5小题，每小题2分）
A. For one, it helped families who lost homes in disasters. B. She thought her country needed this group. C. She looked after him carefully every day. D. Clara couldn’t stand seeing people in pain. E. She also invented a new medical tool for soldiers. F. People still remember her kind acts today.
In a small American town, Clara Barton became a hero for helping people in need. She spent nearly her whole life caring for those hurt in wars or disasters.
Clara was born in the 1820s. When she was young, her brother got very sick. 26 . From this experience, she learned to take care of the sick and wanted to help more people.
During the American Civil War, thousands of soldiers were hurt. There were too few nurses, so many suffered in pain with no help. 27 . She brought food, medicine and clean bandages (绷带) to the soldiers, and stayed with them.
After the war, Clara went to Europe. There, she learned about the Red Cross, an international group that helps people in wars and disasters worldwide. 28 . So she went back to the US and worked hard to start the American Red Cross.
With Clara’s effort, the American Red Cross grew fast. It focused on helping people in two key ways. 29 . For example, after a big hurricane (飓风) destroyed houses, it gave these families tents and food. For another, it helped soldiers find their families after wars.
Clara’s work touched millions of lives. Even over 70, she still went to disaster areas to provide help. 30 . Her kindness has made her a true hero to many Americans. Today, the American Red Cross still follows her spirit to help people.
第三节 信息匹配
下面材料A-F是六条信息。请根据5个人的情况，选出他们最感兴趣的一个地点，并将标号填入题前括号内。（共5小题，每小题1.5分）
A. Natural Science Hall: It has fun displays about planets, volcanoes, and ice. The 3D ice experience is for students 13 years old and above (Grade 8+). It is open every day from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
B. World History Show: It has old things from the past and shows movies about history. There are tours with a guide who will explain everything to you. These tours are available Monday to Friday and on weekends, two times a day: 10:00-11:30 in the morning and 2:00-3:30 in the afternoon.
C. Marine Life Center: It has real sea animals in bottles and a “touch pool” where you can touch starfish and turtles. The touch pool is closed every Thursday afternoon (12:00-6:00 p.m.) for cleaning. It is open at all other times.
D. Technology Lab: You can do fun activities here, like building a simple robot with digital devices. But for all activities, you must book at least 2 days before you go. For example, book on Thursday for Saturday. You cannot visit without booking.
E. Traditional Culture House: It teaches traditional Chinese art and has a place where you can try ink wash painting. They provide all the tools for you, like brushes and paper, so you don’t need to bring anything.
F. Geography Pavilion: It has 3D models of mountains, rivers, and deserts. The desert model was closed in October for fixing, but it opened again on November 1st. It is now fully open to visitors during the weekdays.
31. Chen Ling wants to try traditional art. She wants to find a place providing all the tools.
32. Wang Tao is curious about deserts. He wants to see the 3D desert model during his winter holiday next January.
33. Xiao Yu is 15 years old. She loves geography. She wants to try the 3D experience during weekends.
34. Han Mei wants to touch real sea animals. She plans to go to the center this Wednesday afternoon.
35. Li Ming likes ancient history. He can only visit on Saturday afternoons and wants to join a tour with a guide.
第二部分 非选择题（25分）
Ⅲ. 语法填空（10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。（共10小题，每小题1分）
Last weekend, our neighborhood held a “Recycled Art” activity for its anniversary. We turned old items like plastic bottles into useful things.
It was the 36 (nine)time our community had organized such an event. More people joined than last year, showing its popularity. Two professional designers were invited as 37 (art) guides. They helped us and explained that using old materials is much more eco-friendly than buying new ones. This idea deeply touched us.
When we started making things, we were allowed 38 (use) different tools. Of course, some of us faced 39 (challenge). The most common one was gluing broken parts together firmly. But we wanted to make our works special and useful, so we used our intelligence to find solutions. I turned an old cardboard box 40 a storage box. It was messy at first, but after a little practice, the process went 41 (smooth).
The activity was 42 huge success. We saw all the creative works together and realized that recycling is one of 43 (good) ways to protect our environment. It is also very practical. 44 the activity is very challenging and tiring, we still felt happy and proud. I had created something useful and done something meaningful by 45 (I). It was a wonderful way to celebrate our community.
Ⅳ. 书面表达（15分）
上周，你所在的英语俱乐部对同学们最喜欢的APP进行了调查。请你以My Favorite App为题为英语校刊写一篇文章，介绍调查结果并向同学们推荐你喜欢的App。内容包括：
1. 简要描述调查结果；
2. 推荐你最喜欢的App并说明理由。
词数：90词左右。标题与开头已给出，不计入总词数。
参考词汇：recommend v. 推荐。
Survey: What Is Your Favorite App
App Percentage of students
Wechat 39%
Doubao 26%
Tik Tok 23%
Others 12%
My Favorite App
Last week, the students in the English Club did a survey about our “favourite app”. _____________________
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