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临沂市高三教学质量检测考试
英语
本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分。考试用时120分钟。
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the woman advise the man to do
A. Try another doctor. B. Take some medicine. C. Get more sleep at night.
2. What will the man probably do
A. Look for a cheaper model. B. Buy the new phone now. C. Keep his current phone.
3. Why are the speakers feeling annoyed
A. They may fail to change trains.
B. They lost their booked seats.
C. They got on the wrong train.
4. What advice does the woman give
A. Setting a faster pace from the start.
B. Having energy drinks before running.
C. Avoiding going all in at the beginning.
5. What does the man think of the modern paintings
A. They all overuse colors.
B. They are hard to understand.
C. They focus too much on realism.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Neighbors. B. Husband and wife. C. Deliveryman and customer.
7. What happened to the woman's package
A. It was picked up by her husband.
B. It was left in the wrong box.
C. It was stolen.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 (
、
) (
14
)
8. What was the original price for the full-year payment of the magazine
A.$100. B $120. C.$140.
9. What is the special offer for armual paymept
A. Free extra items. B. Free delivery. C. Free watch repair.
10. What does the(woman want to do in the future
A. Start her own magazine. B. Set up a business. C. Collect watches.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What does the woman think of a one-page CV（简历） for the man？
A It's suitable for his age group.
B It fails to meet general job requirements.
C. It's too short to fit all his work experiences.
12. What is the woman's attitude towards the man's CV
A. Doubtful about his experiences.
B. Hesitant about his chances.
C. Supportive and guiding.
13. Why should the man write more CVs
A. To match different job requirements.
B. To include all his volunteer work.
C. To select the best one.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14. What time is it now
A.6:00 p.m. B 4:00 p.m. C. 7:30 p.m.
15. What will the woman do in the shoe room
A. Repair her old shoes. B. Design new shoe styles. C Make new shoes fit better.
16. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a theater. B. In a restaurant. C. In a radio studio.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Who are the listeners probably
A. School staff. B University students. C. Network maintainers.
18. Why did a student lose years of research
A. She clicked strange links.
B She used the same password.
C She connected to public Wi-Fi.
19. What does the speaker compare digital safety to
A. Checking windows before leaving home.
B. Keeping valuables in a safe.
C. Locking the house door.
20. What is the speaker's main purpose
A. To warn the students about online risks.
B. To teach the students how to write essays.
C. To introduce the week's schedule in detail.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Walk around most large metropolitan cities and you'd be forgiven for thinking that we're living in a brave new world of affordable and effortless mobility for all, with the smartphone in your pocket giving access to shared mobility services. But it seems more difficult for the disabled or elderly, and those living in a low-income area or those without a smartphone or credit card.
A 2023 U. S. study showed that white Americans have access to almost three times as many carshare locations and two times as many bikeshare locations within a half-mile area as African Americans. When getting rides from their home, African Americans also wait up to 22 percent longer for the ride to arrive.
But even when efforts are made to expand services to underserved areas of a city, other hurdles persist. A fifth of low-income Americans still don't have a smartphone and almost a quarter don't have a bank account. A 2022 survey in Philadelphia, Chicago and Brooklyn showed that low-income people of color are just as interested in bikesharing as other groups, but less likely to use such a system.
Thankfully,to tackle these ongoing, various initiatives and projects are finding creative solutions to reach underserved communities. Here are some examples.
·U.S. Low-Income Subsidy Programs: Launched by a handful of U.S. cities to boost shared mobility use and cut personal vehicle reliance among low-income groups.
·U.S. Bike & E-Scooter Share Adjustments: 70% of nearly 250 programs (2024 survey)adopted measures for underserved groups, including cash payment and non-smartphone options.
·Austria's Graz Tim Carsharing: City-run service with app, email, and phone booking;added wheelchair-friendly vehicles and free on-request child seats for women and families
·Women-Centric Tweaks: Proposed by Mosshammer, including e-scooter handle designs for smaller hands, family accounts, cheaper fares for travel breaks, free helmets, and SOS buttons on bikes or e-scooters to address safety concerns.
21. What does the 2023 U.S. study indicate
A. Low-income areas possess more carshare locations.
B. Inequalities exist in accessing shared mobility services.
C. White American riders experience longer waiting times.
D. Shared mobility services are now equal for all Americans.
22. What can we know about low-income Americans in the passage
A. They show no interest in bikesharing.
B. They all use cash for shared services.
C They face barriers in using shared mobility.
D. They mostly lack smartphones and bank accounts.
23. Which program is beneficial for people with children
A. Austria's Graz Tim Carsharing.
B. U. S. Low-Income Subsidy Programs.
C. Mosshammer's Women-Centric Tweaks.
D. U. S. Bike & E-Scooter Share Adjustments.
B
Snakes are fascinating yet deadly creatures, with snakebites causing 80,000-100,000 deaths and 300,000 disabilities worldwide annually. About one-third of adults suffer from ophidiophobia-a fear of snakes.
However, this widespread fear isn't an issue for Tim Friede, who has spent two decades voluntarily letting hundIreds of deadly poisonous snakes bite him. And like secret spies who build immunity to poisons through long-term exposure, Friede is now effectively immune to a variety of snakes. Recently, a new study published in Cell details an antivenom（抗蛇毒血清）developed from Friede's unique antibodies:
"What was exciting about the donor was his once-in-a-lifetime unique immune history,”Jacob Glanville, the lead author and the CEO of the biotech company Centivax, said in a news release. "Not only did he potentially create these broad antibodies, but this could give rise to a universal antivenom.”
Friede's process was systematic but risky: First, he extracts snake venom and injects it into his body, gradually increasing the dosage to allow his body to develop antitoxin antibodies. Once sufficiently immune, he lets snakes bite him directly to test his immunity. This didn't always go according to plan, like the time when twin bites from an Egyptian cobra and a monocled cobra sent him to the hospital and left him unconscious for four days.
"It's always painful," Friede told Science News. "Was it a mistake Yes. Stupid Yes.”
But his “mistakes" may help millions. Scientists developed an antivenom cocktail that can decrease the deadly effects of some of the world's most dangerous snakes from his antibodies mixed with a toxin-blocking drug. Tests on mice showed it fully protected against 13 snake species and partially against 6 more, offering hope for snakebite victims.
The team plans to first test the treatment on dogs in Australia and expand to viper bites.“We're now advancing reagents（试剂）through an repeated process to determine the minimum effective cocktail for broad protection against viper venom." Peter Kwong, a lead author from Columbia University, said in a press statement.
Snakes still broadly inspire fear in most of us, but with the help of brave ophiophilists like Friede,maybe the world can one day begin to also love the amazing creatures attached to those deadly bites.
24. How did Eriede get unique antibodies
A. By receiving regular antivenom injections.
B. By being bitten by deadly snakes intentionally.
C. By taking poison-blocking medicine regularly.
D. By extracting antibodies from other ophiophilists.
25. Which statement about the antivenom cocktail is supported by the passage
A. It offers full protection against 19 snake species.
B. It depends only on natural antibodies to resist venom.
C. It has been tested successfully on humans in Australia.
D. It makes use of antibodies from a snake-immune volunteer.
.26. What does the last paragraph suggest about human-snake relations
A. Attitude towards snakes may soften. B. Fear of snakes will never fade.
C. Ophiophiliss help fight snakebites. D. Coexistence with snakes is impossible.
27. What is the main purpose of the text
A. To compare various types of venomous snakes.
B. To criticize Friede's risky self-experimentation practices.
C. To warn readers of the life-threatening risks of snakebites.
D. To present a promising breakthrough in antivenom research.
C
You may have seen this: As an event begins, somebody takes the microphone and lists off the Native American tribes who once inhabited the place where the event is held. Such“land acknowledgments" have become common practice over the past decade, at university ceremonies,rock concerts, and even the Academy Awards. The idea is that recognizing these former inhabitants by name reminds us that they were here and helps to improve historical injustice. But are they a useful practice for society, or just empty signals
You can't right a wrong until you admit it. Behind each land acknowwledgment is a recognition that cities and towns across the United States occupy land that was once inhabited by other peoples. The troubled history of how this came to be so, and the often terrible implications for those who were here before, is implicit. Land acknowledgments encourage us to look back with empathy and reflection, sharing a societalnarrative that is honest and bends toward justice.
This simple practice,which costs nothing and requires no special training,can challenge us to think more critically about our own histories. It's only fair that we practice seeing those events through the perspectives of all participants and understanding their experiences as well. And naming them makes that history more visible.
However, land acknowledgments are as vain as they often feel. The lives we live today are built on the results of decisions made, actions taken, successes achieved and losses suffered by those who came before us. Even for those who don't like the outcome, there is little we can do to change it. Furthermore, the practice offers no solutions. "A land acknowledgment is what you give when you have no intention of giving land," Graeme Wood writes in The Atlantic. “It's like a receipt provided by a highway robber, noting all the jeweIs and gold coins he has stolen."
In reality, land acknowledgements are a performative act more for the benefit of the speaker than for the peoples being spoken for. Specifically, land acknowledgments "become an excuse for folks to feelgood and move on with their lives," notes the Native Governance Center,"without actually contributing anything to the community."
28. Why does the author describe the scene at the beginning of Paragraph 1
A. To illustrate the wide application of a practice.
B. To show the high popularity of a social activity.
C. To introduce the discussion about a social phenomenon.
D. To stress the necessity of correcting historical mistakes.
29. What does the underlined word "implicit” in Paragraph 2 mean
A. Stated. B. Forgotten. C. Unspoken. D. Complicated.
30. What is Graeme Wood's attitude towards land acknowledgments
A. Ironic（讽刺的）and critical. B. Supportive and approving.
C. Cautious and objective. D. Doubtful and dismissive.
31. Which of the following can be the best title for the text
A. A New Perspective on Native American Tribes
B. Land Acknowledgments: Meaningful or Meaningless
C. The Historical Injustice behind Land Acknowledgments
D. The Rise of Land Acknowledgments: From Oscars to Campuses
D
The tiny worm Caenorhabditis elegans has a brain just about the width of a human hair,yet it can coordinate and calculate complex movements as it hunts for food. Daniela Rus, a computer scientist at MIT,was so deeply impressed by the elegance and efficiency of this worm's brain that she co-founded a company, Liquid AI, to build a new type of artificial intelligence.
Many researchers including Rus think making traditional AI more brainlike could create more flexible and perhaps smarter technology. “To improve AI truly, we need to absorb insights from neuroscience（神经科学），”says Kanaka Rajan, a computational neuroscientist at Harvard University.
Mike Davies. who directs the Neuromorphic Computing Lab, notes such technology won't fully replace ordinary computers or traditional AI models-instead, many systems will coexist in the future. Imitating brains is not a new idea. In the 1950s, Frank Rosenblatt created the perceptron, a highly simplified model of brain nerve cell communication with a single layer of connected artificial neurons. This basic design later helped inspire deep learning. Yet consuming vast amounts of data and energy, most today's AI models are unable to adapt easily to new situations or learn from single experiences like a brain, and are criticized as “brute force and inefficient.” Currently, AI development has two paths-“scale-up" vs.“efficiency-focused”-with an uncertain future while brain-inspired neuromorphic computing progress hasn't joined mainstream AI.
Inspired hy the worm, Rus worked with Ramin Hasani's team to create liquid neural networks. Unlike traditional deep learning with fixed post-training settings, these networks are more flexible and can learn like living things. By copying worm neurons with mathematical formulas and solving computing problems, they can work in real time. Tests showed with just 34artificial neurons a small liquid network worked better than a traditional AI with 250,000 settings in drone tasks. Liquid AI has worked with DARPA to test aircraft models and launched. the
7-billion-setting LFM-7B, which performs better than similar traditional language models.
Though needing much computing power and not necessarily more energy-saving, liquid11neural networks are an important step toward realistic, brain-like AI. As Rus says,"Γmexpxci about Liquid AI because I believe it could change the future of AI and computing."
32. What mainly inspired Daniela Rus to establish Liquid AI
A. The limitations of traditional AI models.
B The efficiency of the tiny worm's brain.
C. The worm's cooperative food-hunting skills.
D. The pursuit of more flexible and smarter technology.
33. What does Mike Davies suggest about future AI development
A. Brain-like technology has little practical value.
B. Neuromorphic computing will dominate the AI field.
C. Different AI systems may work together in the future.
D. Traditional AI models will be completely abandoned.
34. What makes liquid neural networks special
A. They have fixed settings after training.
B. They depend on few mathematical formulas.
C. They work worse than traditional AI in tasks.
D. They can learn flexibly like living creatures.
35. What is the muain idea of the last paragraph
A. Liquid AI has both limits and value.
B. Brain-like AI has been fully achieved.
C. Traditional AI is more reliable than liquid AI.
D. Liquid AI will definitely control the AI market.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
According to a landmnark study published today in the journal Science, total butterfly abundance in the U.S. has declined by 22 percent across all species between 2000 and 2020.
36 People should be seeing this number and being very concerned, not just about butterflies,but about the state of insects in general.
Across 35 monitoring programs, scientists and volunteers have identified 12.6 million butterflies from 554 species at 2,478 unique locations. Initially, researchers expected to see declines for many species, but that once all the data was scaled up to cover the entire nation,they also expected to see enough increases to wash out the bad news. 37
"It's kind of an overwhelming amount of loss and deéline," one of the researchers said.This is a wake-up call.< 38 It is found that more than 100 species saw drops greaterthan 50percent over the twenty-year timespan and that 22 species have declined more than 90 percent.
39 Butterflies are not the only insects in danger, and their declines connect to bigger concerns. It could be broadly indicative of the overall biodiversity crisis. It is estimated that three billion birds have been lost in North America since 1970.
While scientists say the butterfly losses can be attributed to many factors, including habitat loss, climate change, and pesticide use, there are some things individuals can do to help butterflies. 40 Because insects have short generation spans, even modest changes to the environment-such as planting native flowers or creating habital-can have a huge impact on the increase in population. That's one of the most optimistic things. Butterflies do have the ability to bounce back, if people put the effort into conservation actions.
A. Unfortunately, that was not the case.
B. Even common species are in trouble.
C. Such findings are just the tip of the iceberg.
D. The situation reflects a wider ecological disaster.
E. The reality may be worse than the numbers suggest.
F. That means about one in five butterflies have vanished.
G. Creating insect-friendly environments can yield rapid benefits.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When Dr. Nick Mondek learned his cancer had returned this spring, he didn't know that his 10-year-old son Stephen would eventually become his lifesaving hero.
Mondek,a Los Angeles father of two, had previously 41 chemotherapy and a stem cell transplant for acute blood cancer. His older brother Dave had 42 his stem cells to him in 2022. This time, instead Mondek turned to 43 family members and the National Bone Marrow Registry, but he didn't find any suitable 44. "It was so serious that I needed a donor immediately, but there was no one 45 ,”Mondek said.
People with acute blood cancer typically need treatment sooner than later, as the cancer may 46 quickly. Doctors may treat the cancer in various ways, but for Mondek, another stem cell transplant 47 being his last hope after chemotherapy and radiation.
"I wasn't sure if my son would be the one, but I did bring it up to my 48," Mondek recalled.“Could a 9-year-old who's only 70 pounds potentially get us 49 stem cells to make this a successful transplant " As a doctor and parent, Mondek didn't want Stephen to feel obligated or 50. He didn't even tell Stephen they were down to him as their last 51. Starting the conversation with his young son was “nerve-wracking" but ultimately led to the best 52.
"Would you consider potentially getting 53 to see if maybe you could be a donor "Mondek asked. Without 54 ,Stephen,described as a "shy" and "quiet” boy, said,“When do we go ”
Doctors at Cedars-Sinai successfully 55 stem cells from Stephen,and Mondek received his second stem cell transplant on July 30. Both father and son are now out of the hospital.Mondek said, “Stephen is doing great. He is my hero."
41 A developed B. undergone C. tolerated D. prescribed
42. a. donated B. submitted C. assigned D. sacrificed
43. A. concerned B. extended C close D. anxious
44. A. cure B. measure C. match D. method
45. A. dependable B. qualified C. willing D. available
46. A. recover B.occur C. transform D worsen
47. A. ended up B. accounted for C. cared about D. held on
48. A. phiysician B. advisor C.colleague D. nurse
49. A. healthy B. effective C. enough D. suitable
50. A. troubled B separated C. forced D.occupied
51. A. destination B. option C. schedule D. stage
52. A. experience B. outcome C. discovery D. treatment
53. A. started B. volunteered C. inspired D.tested
54. A. hesitation B. preparation C. patience D. negotiation
55. A. borrowed B. delivered C. pumped D. extracted
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Bund lies along the Huangpu River, which is located in the Huangpu District, the center of Shanghai. The Bund was an Anglo-Indian term that Jo (literal) means "a muddy embankment". the opposite side of the Huangpu River, stand a few Shanghai landmarks like Shanghai Tower,Shanghai World Financial Centre, Oriental Pearl TV Tower and Jinmao Tower, which are among those most famous buildings in China. It is 58 must-see place during your visit to Shanghai.
The Bund, with a total 59 (long) of 1.5 kilometers, starts from Yan'an East Road in the south, and reaches ,the Waibaidu Bridge on the Suzhou River in the north, the Huangpu River in the east oU the financial and foreign trade institutions in the west.
There are 52 buildings with different styles 61 (stand) on the Bund, which 62 (call) the exotic building complex in the Bund of Shanghai. At the Bund,you can see the architectures of the Gothic, Romanesque, Baroque, Chinese and western styles, 03-make up the financial center of old Shanghai and a concentration zone of foreign trade agencies.
Due to its unique 64 geography) location and its influence in the areas of economic activity in Shanghai and China over the past century, the Bund has a very rich cultural connotation. The street view is the most characteristic landscape. Whenever night falls, the floodlit buildings along the Bund, like a crystal palace, never fail to make both local and overseas visitors 65 (amaze).
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是李华，你校英文报“Youth Voice”专栏正在就“社交媒体与真实连接”开展讨论，面向全体同学征稿。请你写一篇短文投稿，内容包括：
1．描述一次有意义的线下交流经历；
2．你对社交媒体时代友谊的新认识。
注意：
1．写作词数应为80个左右；
2．可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Soon after we moved to a remote parcel of land in the Sierra foothills that hadn't been built on for miles around, we brought in two stray cats, Nosey and Quincy, to keep down the pest population. We had never been cat owners before, and I feared it would be a challenge for our aging Lacy, but she became their best friend right from the start. She let them drink from her water bowl, sleep on her dog bed, and I even watched her licking cat food from their fur a time or two. The three companions formed quite a bond.
As Lacy continued to age, her cat friends stayed close. When we drove up our long driveway coming home from work, Lacy would limp to greet us, trailed by the cats, even when her joint pain made it hard for her to get off the porch. As her condition worsened, we spent much time at the vet's office seeking the right medication to ease her pain. On one visit, I questioned the doctor: "There are times now when our dog seems confused. I know she has suffered some hearing loss, but there seems to be more to her behavior than just that. Am I imagining things ”
"No, you're not." Her reply was unexpected. "Dogs can suffer from a kind of mental confusion in their old age," she continued. "It's hard to know if that's happening, but I suggest keeping her in mostly. She could wander off and forget how to come home, especially with all that land around your house."
I asked my three teenagers to keep an eye on Lacy. With a house full of teenagers, things tended to get chaotic, but I encouraged them:"We can't let Lacy go outside unless somebody goes with her.”
They agreed and kept watch until one bustling Thursday night. The house was full of their friends,who stayed until Youth Group started at church later. Kids came and went from every door. As the last kid left, I realized Lacy was nowhere in the house. It was dark, so my husband and I grabbed flashlights and searched the hillside, calling for her for hours-though I doubted she could hear us. We didn't see the cats either,but figured they were on their nightly wander around the property. At midnight we gave up, deciding we'd have better chances in daylight.注意：
1．续写词数应为150个左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
The next morning the entire family joined in the search. As I went out to start the car, I couldn't believe my eyes.
高三上学期期中检测
英语参考答案 2025.11
第一部分 听力（每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1～5 BCACB 6～10 CBCAB 11～15 ACABC 16～20 ABBCA
第二部分 阅读（共两节，每小题2.5分，满分50分）
21～23 BCA 24～27 BDAD 28～31 CCAB 32～35 BCDA 36～40 FACDG
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41～45 BABCD 46～50 DAACC 51～55 BBDAD
第二节 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
56. literally 57. On 58. a 59. length 60. and
61. standing 62. are called 63. which 64. geographic/geographical
65. amazed
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节 (满分15分)
One possible version：
I participated in a community book sharing event last month, which allowed me to engage in face-to-face discussions about a novel.
We exchanged diverse views, filling the room with genuine laughter and pausing thoughtfully to absorb others’ ideas. This warmth and real-time interaction felt far more meaningful than any online chat. It made me rethink modern friendship. While social media helps us stay connected, true bonds demand offline moments—sincere conversations and shared experiences.
We should use technology to enhance, not replace, the real-world connections that nurture our hearts.
应用文写作评分标准
1．本题总分为15分，按以下5个档次给分。
2．评分时，应主要从内容组织、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性。
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4．评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于60或多于100的，从总分中减去2分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写和词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以至影响交际的，将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档：（13-15分）能写明全部要点；语言基本无误；行文连贯，表达清楚；
第四档：（10-12分）能写明全部或绝大部分要点；语言有少量错误；行文不够连贯，表达基本清楚；
第三档：（7-9分）能写明基本要点；语言虽有较多错误，但基本达意；
第二档：（4-6分）能写出部分要点；语言错误多，影响意思表达；
第一档：（1-3分）只能写出一两个要点；语言错误很多，只有个别句子正确。
第二节（满分25分）
One possible version:
The next morning the entire family joined in the search. We split into groups, walking along the overgrown trails with Lacy’s favorite treats, calling her name softly. The teens checked the old barn and the creek, while my husband and I combed the hillside where we’d searched the night before. By noon, sweat soaked our clothes, and disappointment weighed heavy on our hearts—we still had not found the dog we loved so much.Worn down by despair and exhaustion, we resolved to drive downtown in a last-ditch attempt to track her down.
As I went out to start the car, I couldn’t believe my eyes. Walking up the long driveway was Lacy, alive and well, with Nosey on one side and Quincy guarding the other! Never had I seen such a gentle sight, with the morning dew glistening on their fur and a soft breeze rustling the pine needles above.I rushed over, kneeling to hug her—she smelled like pine, but her coat was warm. Later, the vet said Lacy’s confusion must have faded just enough to guide her home, but I knew it was her two cat friends who’d led her back to us.
读后续写评分标准
一、评分原则
1．本题总分为25分，按七个档次给分。
2．评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）续写内容的质量、完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
（2）所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4．评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于120的，酌情扣分；
（2）书写较差，以至影响交际的，酌情扣分。
（3）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写和词汇用法均可接受。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（21-25分）
（1）创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高；
（2）使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，有个别小错，但完全不影响理解；
（3）有效地使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯；
第四档（16-20分）
（1）创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高；
（2）使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，错误较少，但不影响理解；
（3）比较有效地使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯；
第三档（11-15分）
（1）创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境有关联；
（2）使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误和不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解；
（3）基本有效的使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档（6-10分）
（1）内容和逻辑有一些重大问题，续写不完整，与原文情境有一定程度的脱节；
（2）所用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解；
（3）未能有效的使用语句间的衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯；
第一档（1-5分）
（1）内容或逻辑有较多重大问题，或部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节；
（2）所使用的词汇有限，语法结构简单，错误较多，严重影响理解；
（3）几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯；
零分：
未做答，所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求
完全不相关。
附：听力原文材料
Text 1
M: I’ve caught a cold and my head is killing me.
W: You should have some medicine. (1) That will make you feel better.
M: I can’t stand medicine. It’s awful. I’ve been resting and drinking water all day.
Text 2
M: I’m thinking about upgrading my phone. The new model looks cool.
W: It does, but apart from the bigger screen, it’s almost the same as yours.
M: Hmm, you’re right. Wow, I didn’t realize it was so expensive! Mine is not so bad after all! (2)
Text 3
M: The train has been delayed another five minutes!
W: Oh, no! If we don’t arrive in Lancaster by 3:35 p.m., we won’t catch our connection. (3)
M: Yeah. We can get on the next Glasgow train with these tickets, but we’ll lose our booked seats.
Text 4
M: I signed up for the London marathon. Honestly, I have no idea how I’m going to finish it!
W: Well, pushing too hard at the start never ends well. (4)
M: Right. That’s true. I guess pacing myself and keeping my energy up is key.
Text 5
M: None of these paintings is really speaking to me. They just look like shapes of different colors.
W: Yeah, modern art can be hard to connect with. But there’s a Turner exhibition upstairs.
M: That sounds more like my thing. I prefer something with a real story behind the picture. (5)
Text 6 (第7题为推断题)
W: Hello, I’m calling about a delivery to 98 Buckley Road earlier today. The tracking information says my package was delivered, but I can’t find it. (6)
M: I placed it in the box by the door. (6)
W: But there’s nothing inside. Oh, I hope it hasn’t been stolen.
M: Was it a red box
W: Red box Oh! I see what’s happened. We have both a black delivery box and a red storage box. It’s rubbish collection day, and my husband must have left the red box outside before you came. Let me check the red one!
M: Is it still there
W: Yes. Sorry for the mix-up!
Text 7
M: I was thinking of getting you a Time Collector magazine subscription for your birthday. (8) (9) What do you think
W: That sounds great! I’ve always wanted it, but it’s pricey. Isn’t it $10 each month
M: Yes, but there’s a deal now — it’s $100 if you pay for the whole year. (8) (9)
W: That is a good offer. I remember it was $140 when it first came out. (8)
M: Exactly, and you will get a free issue and a special box to keep your watches. (9)
W: That’s hard to refuse! I’ve always loved watches. Does the delivery take long
M: Not too long — four days.
W: Perfect. Please go ahead! I can learn more about repairing watches and start planning for my future business dreams. (10)
Text 8
M: What do you think of this I’ve decided to get a summer job to save up for college.
W: Well, it’s clear and easy to read, but remember, a CV (简历) shouldn’t be longer than two pages. One page is ideal for someone your age. (11)
M: But how can I fit all my volunteer work on one page There’s so much!
W: You should only include things that are related to the specific job you’re applying for. So, what kind of positions are you aiming for
M: A bit of everything, but I’m really interested in this library position. (12)
W: Got it. For this one, you’d want to mention the time you spent teaching kids to read. But for a restaurant, your experience working in the soup kitchen is more appropriate. (13)
M: So that means I need to write different ones (13)
W: Exactly. (13) Trust me, it’s worth the effort. Interviewers want to see why you’re a perfect fit for their job, not just any job out there. (13)
Text 9
(第16题为推断题)
M: Today, I’m going to meet a professional dancer, Ella. Hello, Ella. May I come in
W: Sure! I’m preparing for tonight’s performance.
M: It doesn’t start until 7:30 p.m., right Why are you here three and a half hours early (14)
W: There’s lots to do! I usually get my hair done before anything else. And then, I’ll have an early dinner, so I’m not sleepy during the performance.
M: What do you eat
W: Tonight, I’ll have white fish with vegetables.
M: So, ballet dancers don’t survive on salad alone
W: Ha-ha! Not at all. We need plenty of energy!
M: So, what else do you do before a show
W: At 6:00 p.m., the whole company will warm up together in the practice room before make-up and costumes. But right now, I need to head to our famous shoe room… (15) Want to see it
M: Shoe room
W: Most professional dancers go through a pair every performance! And then we’ll all spend about 20 minutes “breaking them in”, making them fit the way we like. (15)
M: Wow, no wonder you’re here early!
Text 10 (第20题为总结题)
Welcome to the university! You’ll hear plenty of advice this week — how to handle your studies, avoid copying, and meet deadlines. (17) But today’s topic is more important. It’s about protecting yourself from online crime, which can harm your money, ruin your schoolwork, and even put you in danger.
Let me give you a real example. Last year, two second-year students connected to free public Wi-Fi at a café. Within hours, someone stole their bank details, locked them out of their emails, and took over their social media. Another student used the same password for everything. When a weak shopping site was attacked, criminals got into her university email. Years of research were lost. (18)
This isn’t just about protecting your essays. Hackers (黑客) go after anyone who isn’t careful, not just big companies. If you wouldn’t leave your front door unlocked, don’t do the same with your digital life. (19) You can’t rely on your parents to keep you safe now. The risks are real. Don’t be casual. Before clicking on any strange link, ask yourself — is your data really secure

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