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1-5 CCBBC 6-10 BACBC 11-15 AABAB 16-20 BBACC
21-25 CCBDC 26-30 BACBD 31-35 CABAB 36-40 BEDAF
41-45 ACDBC 46-50 BAABD 51-55 ACDBB
56. (f)orgetful 57. (i)nvited 58. (a)rrival 59. (S)quare 60. (l)azy
61. (j)ourney 62. (t)ruth 63. (n)othing 64. (c)ompares 65. (s)olve
66. towns 67. to have 68. to climb 69. by 70. an 71. tired
72. stopped 73. to keep 74. But 75. us2025-2026学年度八年级上学期期中测试英语试卷
（考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：130分）
第Ⅰ卷（共85分）
第一部分 听力部分（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
(　 　)1. What is the boy’s father doing
Swimming. B. Reading. C. Sleeping.
(　 　)2. What does the girl want
A CD. B. A T-shirt. C. A poster.
(　 　)3. What time did Peter arrive at the station
At 9 a.m. B. At 10 a.m. C. At 11 a.m.
(　 　)4. What is Helen using
The scissors. B. The glue. C. The brush.
(　 　)5. When did Tom see some theatre groups
On Friday. B. On Saturday. C. On Sunday.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
(　 　)6. Where is Alex
At the restaurant. B. At the museum. C. At the theatre.
(　 　)7. What time does Claire have to go home
At 2 p.m. B. At 3 p.m. C. At 4 p.m.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
(　 　)8. Who has a farm in the countryside
Ella’s father. B. Ella’s grandpa. C. Ella’s uncle.
(　 　)9. What animals are there on the farm
Ducks. B. Hens. C. Geese.
(　 　)10. What does Ella’s cousin help do on the farm
Feed the animals. B. Collect eggs. C. Sell eggs.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
(　 　)11. What is Sophie doing online
Playing a game. B. Watching a film. C. Listening to music.
(　 　)12. What does Sophie’s dad want her to pick
Cucumbers. B.Tomatoes. C. Strawberries.
(　 　)13. Where is the basket
In the living room. B. On the balcony. C. In the garden.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
(　 　)14. How did Jason travel to Aunt Emily’s home
By car. B. By bus. C. By train.
(　 　)15. Who did Jason go to Kunming with
His cousin. B. His friend. C. His father.
(　 　)16. Where was the hotel in Kunming
In the north. B. In the centre. C. In the south.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
(　 　)17. Where does Mia’s family live
In Los Angeles. B. In San Francisco. C. In Chicago.
(　 　)18. When did Mia visit Hollywood
On Monday. B. On Tuesday. C. On Wednesday.
(　 　)19. What was Mia’s favourite. Chinese food in Chinatown
Dumplings. B. Noodles. C. Hot pot.
(　 　)20. What kind of museum did Mia visit in Chicago
A history museum. B. A science museum. C. An art museum.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共20小题；每小题2分；满分40分)
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
A Trip to Shandong When: April 15th ~ April 21st What: Weihai ★ go to Liugong Island (岛), Weihai International Beach, and Naxianghai Forest Park ★ visit a history museum, go swimming, ride near the sea, and watch a beach music show Tai’an ★ go to Mount Tai and Tianyi Lake ★ go climbing and go fishing Weifang ★ go to the World Kite Park and the World Kite Museum of Weifang ★ fly a kite, learn the history of the kite, and learn to make a kite Our Service (服务) ※ Five-star hotels ※ Free breakfast ※ A Chinese speaking guide (for free) Price ※ 3,000 yuan each person ※ Children under 5: 50% off (减价50%) ※ People over 60: 70% off (减价70%)
( ) 21. How long is the trip to Shandong
A．Three days. B．Five days. C．A week. D．Two weeks.
( ) 22. Which one can people get for free
①Staying in a hotel ②Having breakfast ③Flying a kite ④Getting a guide
A．①② B．②③ C．②④ D．③④
( ) 23. If Mrs Sue wants to take the trip with her 4-year-old son and 62-year-old mother, she should pay ________.
A．5,000 yuan B．5,400 yuan C．6,000 yuan D．9,000 yuan
( ) 24. Where can we find the reading
In a diary. B．On a map. C．In a storybook. D．In a travel newspaper.
B
One day Tortoise (陆龟) was walking through the veld (无树草原). He was searching. “Are you looking for anything ” Snail asked. “Yes, I’m looking for my house. Did you see it ” “No, I didn’t, but I’ll help you look!” Tortoise walked on with Snail on his back. They looked and looked, but there was no sign of a house.
“Are you looking for anything ” asked Sparrow. “I’ll help you look!” Tortoise walked on with Snail and Sparrow sitting on his shell. They looked and looked, but there was no sign of a house.
“Are you looking for anything ” asked Ladybird. “I’ll help you look!” Tortoise walked on with Snail, Sparrow and Ladybird sitting on his back. They looked and looked, but there was no sign of a house.
The sky turned dark. Thunder roared (咆哮) in the hills. The rain began to drip. Tortoise was frightened, and he shrank (收缩) back into his shell. It was warm and comfortable inside. “Oh, here is my house!”
( ) 25. How many animals helped Tortoise look for his house
A．One. B．Two. C．Three. D．Four.
( ) 26. What do we know about the animals
A．They are careful. B．They are helpful C．They are brave. D．They are clever.
( ) 27. Why did Tortoise shrink back into his shell
A．Because he was afraid. B．Because he was sad. C．Because he was shy. D．Because he was tired.
( ) 28. What’s the best title for the text
A．Tortoise Loves the Veld B．Tortoise Helps His Friends
C．Tortoise Finds His Home D．Tortoise Loses His Way
C
What do you think of getting your kids to help with housework Experts think it’s necessary. It not only keeps your home cleaner, but also teaches your kids right values (价值观) and skills that will be helpful to them in the future. How can you make your kids do housework Here are some ideas.
Start the chore with them. One of the most common mistakes that parents make is expecting their kids to know how to do housework themselves. Picking their toys up may seem like a job without difficulty at first. However, your kids may not understand how to put them away properly. What should you do Instead of scolding them, try asking if they need help. Help them start the work, and then let them finish it.
Everyone needs to have a sense of responsibility (责任感). One of the most important things of teaching kids to do chores is to tell them that it’s everyone’s job to do housework. It’s pretty important to give kids proper housework. A difficult job may make your kids easily give up, while a very easy job may cause your kids to feel bored soon.
Make doing housework become a good habit. From an early age, you need to teach your kids the importance of doing housework at home. Little by little, kids will understand their responsibilities of keeping homes clean. Finally, doing housework will become a habit.
( ) 29. How does the writer start the text
A．By giving an example. B．By asking a question.
C．By showing a fact. D．By telling a story.
( ) 30. What does the underlined word “scolding” mean in Chinese
A．怜悯 B．凝视 C．利用 D．训斥
( ) 31. What is pretty important according to Paragraph 3
A．Telling kids not to give up. B．Giving kids easy jobs.
C．Giving kids proper housework. D．Letting kids finish quickly.
( ) 32. Why do people need to teach their kids the importance of doing housework from an early age
A．Because their kids will keep the habit later.
B．Because their kids will listen to them carefully.
C．Because their kids will be more independent.
D．Because their kids will be more interested in housework.
D
Friends are important in our lives. We need to share happiness and sadness with our friends. Friends can learn from each other and help each other become better people. However, some people find it hard to make friends.
Why A new study shows that some people feel nervous when they meet people they aren’t familiar with. They are afraid to talk to strange people.
But don’t worry. There are some ways to solve these problems. First, we should be brave enough to step outside our comfort zone (舒适圈). Second, we should accept some social invitations. Making friends online is not enough for most people to develop true friendships. Finally, we need to take action. As the old saying goes, “Actions speak louder than words.” We need to actively talk to others and try to meet people with similar interests. If you are shy, start by saying “hello” to others with a smile. You can also join some clubs you are interested in to make new friends.
We should keep trying to make friends. It may be hard at first. But if we follow these steps and try to be brave, we can make good friends.
( ) 33. What can we do with the help of our friends according to the passage
①Be better people. ②Become more and more popular.
③Go through happy and sad moments. ④Learn from their strengths.
A．①②③ B．①③④ C．②③④ D．①②④
( ) 34. What is the third paragraph mainly about
A．How to make new friends. B．How to help our friends.
C．How to talk to our friends. D．How to get along with others.
( ) 35. What is the writer’s purpose in writing the passage
A．To ask people to share everything with their friends.
B．To encourage people to make new friends bravely in their lives.
C．To let people take part in more activities with friends.
D．To ask people to spend more time making friends online.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
The word family has special meanings to everyone and everyone is thirsty for a happy “family”. However, because of different personalities, living habits, interests and hobbies, some unhappy things may happen among family members at times. 36.
Learn to say thanks and sorry.
We always say thanks and sorry to others, but often we don’t do that to our family members. 37. And saying sorry makes them feel understood.
Talk with each other often.
munication can happen in any place at any time. We can talk about our experiences and feelings with our family members in the car, at the dinner table or on the way back home.
39.
Helping to do housework brings family members much closer. Since we live in one house, we should try our best to keep the house clean. It’s easy to help do housework like making the bed or doing the dishes.
Spend more time together.
We are busy around all day, 40. We can eat meals or travel together.
A．Share housework.
B．So how can we achieve (实现) family happiness
C．we can understand each other.
D．By talking, we can know we are caring about each other.
E．By saying thanks, we can make our family members feel they’re important.
F．but nothing is more important than spending time with family members.
语言知识运用 (10小题，每小题1分，共10分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
Mike did not like to clean his room. Every day, his mum asked him to 41.________, but Mike did not listen. Mike’s dad did not go to Mike’s room very often. And he always said to his wife, “When I was his age, my room was untidy too. But now I am tidy and I have learned to keep 42. ________ in their places. I think there is no 43. ________ to worry about it.”
One day, Mike’s mum said to him, “Son, I’ll be away 44. ________ about half a month. I have only one worry.”
“What’s that, Mum ” asked Mike. “I worry that your room is too dirty. Please keep your room 45. ________. I hope you can learn to do your duty,” Mum said. “Great!” Mike thought. “She won’t be at home to 46. ________ me. I can keep playing computer games!” He kissed his mum and said OK.
But could Mike keep his 47. ________ Of course not! He ate food in his room and played computer games every day. Several days later, his room was really dirty and he couldn’t 48. ________ find a place to sleep.
One day when Mike got home from school, he saw his mum standing at the front door. He knew why she was 49. ________. He walked to his room quickly and started to clean. Two hours later, Mike’s room became tidy. Tired but happy, he said to his mum, “Thank you, Mum. I can have a good 50. ________ tonight.”
41. A. clean up B. hang up C. pack up D. put up
42. A. anything B. something C. everything D. nothing
43. A. joy B. danger C. time D. need
44. A. in B. for C. on D. at
45. A. new B. open C. clean D. warm
46. A. help B. remind C. remember D. join
47. A. promise B. treasure C. habit D. advice
48. A. even B. also C. still D. already
49. A. relaxed B. angry C. tired D. excited
50. A. talk B. walk C. shower D. sleep
第四部分 句子成分（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
从各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出划线部分的句子成分。
51．Reading in the sun is bad for your eyes.
A. 主语 B. 谓语 C. 宾语 D．表语
52．Grandpa bought me a new dictionary.
A. 间接宾语 B. 谓语 C. 直接宾语 D．表语
53．Tom can finish the work easily.
A. 主语 B. 谓语 C. 宾语 D．状语
54．I can’t see my friends on school days.
A. 主语 B．谓语 C. 宾语 D．状语
55．It’s important to have a healthy lifestyle.
A. 宾语 B．真正主语 C. 形式主语 D．谓语
第Ⅱ卷（共45分）
单词填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
根据下列句子及所给单词的首字母写出所缺单词。
My father is 90 years old. It’s hard for him to remember things. But he doesn’t think he is f
57. Jenny i________ me to go to her birthday party yesterday.
58. We are looking forward to the a of the New Year.
59. We visited Tian’ anmen S and then walked to the Palace Museum. Both places were really cool!
60. My son is very l . He never does any housework.
61. This j through the forest was both charming and mysterious (神秘迷人).
62. People like to make friends with those who tell the t .
63. My aunt had n to do, so she felt very bored.
64. She never c________ herself with others. She wants to be herself.
65. Sometimes it’s hard to s the problem by myself.
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
I had a trip to Shanxi with my parents last week. On the first day of our trip, we went to some ancient 66.________(town). We also tasted some delicious food, like biangbiang noodles. We walked through these towns, enjoying their beauty. My father told me that people there lived a hard life in the past, and it was not easy for them 67.________(have) a good life.
The second day was a sunny day. My parents and I were ready 68._______(climb) Mount Huashan, so we set off early. We got to Mount Huashan 69.________ bus and started to climb at 7 a.m. After climbing for 70.________ hour, my mum felt 71.________(tire) and my dad was hungry. So we 72.________(stop) climbing and enjoyed the food in our bags. After resting, we decided 73.________ (keep) climbing. As time went by, we were tired. 74.________we didn’t want to give up. At last, we got to the top of Mount Huashan. The scenery there was wonderful and it took our breath away. Then we took the cable car (缆车) down. We arrived at the foot of the mountain at 8 p.m. We were tired but happy.
For 75.________(we), this was a great trip. We will never forget it.
第三节 书面表达（满分15分）
学校英文网站正在开展以 “一次印象深刻的旅行”为主题的征文活动。请你以“My Trip to ______”为题，根据以下内容提示用英文写一篇短文投稿。
要点：
1. Where did you go
2. What did you do
3. What did you think of your trip
要求：
1. 参考提示内容，可适当发挥；
2. 语句通顺，意思连贯，书写工整；
3. 文中不得出现你的任何真实信息；
4. 词数：不少于 80 词。
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