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杭州市萧山区2025学年第一学期期末学业水平测试
八年级英语试题卷
姓名:__________ 准考证号:____________________ 座位号:________
考生注意:
1. 本试题卷包括四部分,共8页,满分为120分,考试时间为100分钟。
2. 答题前,请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3. 答题时,请按照答题纸上"注意事项"的要求,在答题纸相应位置上规范作答,在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
第一部分 听力理解(共三节,满分20分)
第一节 (共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面5段小对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What color do bees like to visit most
A. Red.
B. Yellow.
C. Blue.
2. What housework will Helen do
A. Clean the bathroom.
B. Sweep the floor.
C. Pack up things.
3. What does Tom want to be
A. A doctor.
B. An engineer.
C. A scientist.
4. How is West Mountain
A. Quiet.
B. Amazing.
C. Boring.
5. What does the girl advise the boy to do
A. Have a face-to-face talk.
B. Try to guess the reason.
C. Wait for Emma to explain.
第二节 (共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话,回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. Who is playing the violin now
A. Lucy.
B. Lily.
C. Linda.
7. What is Lucy better at
A. Chess.
B. Sports.
C. Music.
听下面一段较长对话,回答第8至第10三个小题。
8. What did Mike do last weekend
A. Went to a museum.
B. Played a computer game.
C. Visited his cousin's city.
9. What does Mike want to see in the museum
A. A robot show.
B. A film about robots.
C. Some pictures.
10. Why does Mike want to go to the museum
A. His cousin asks him to go.
B. He wants to try a different activity.
C. The museum is very close to his home.
第三节 (共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面一段独白,独白后有5个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
听下面一段独白,回答第11至第15五个小题。
11. Where is the small vegetable garden
A. Behind the classroom building.
B. In front of the classroom building.
C. On the right of the classroom building.
12. How often do they have classes about planting
A. Every day.
B. Once a week.
C. Twice a week.
13. Which plant needs more water
A. Carrots.
B. Beans.
C. Tomatoes.
14. What do they do with the vegetables they pick
A. Sell them at school.
B. Give them to teachers.
C. Cook them into dishes.
15. What does Li Ping think of planting
A. Hard but happy.
B. Easy and happy.
C. Boring but important.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
How do people greet in English-speaking countries They can just say "hello", or ask about their day, even to someone new. Let's take a look at some greetings from English-speaking countries.
The United Kingdom ● Formal(正式的) greetings: Good morning./ Good afternoon./Good evening. Hi, how are you / Hello, how do you do / Nice to meet you. ● Informal greetings: Hi./ Hello./ Morning./ Afternoon./ Evening. How is everything Ireland Ireland (爱尔兰) is a special country, even when it comes to greetings. How is the form What's the story (=How are you doing ) Alright there, bud (=Is everything okay there, friend ) What's the craic (=How are things going )
The United States of America Hi, how are you doing Hey, what's up Canada The greetings are about the same as those of other English-speaking countries. What does often change is the pronunciation. Hi, how ya doin' (= Hi, how are you doing ) Howzit goin' (= How is it going )
So, you know greetings from the UK, Ireland, the USA and Canada. They can be different, but they all mean "hello". Next time, you can try using one of these. Remember, being friendly is always the best way to start a talk.
16. If you meet someone in the UK for the first time, which greeting is formal
A. Morning!
B. How is everything
C. Hello, how do you do
D. Hey, what's up
17. What do the people of Ireland mean when they say "Alright there, bud "
A. How is life
B. How do you do
C. How are you doing
D. Is everything okay there, friend
18. In which part of the website(网页) can we read this text
A. Culture.
B. Sports.
C. Food.
D. Health.
B
"China's nature always surprises me. In many stories and old traditions, people, plants and animals live together. This is the most beautiful thing to me." Zhang said.
Zhang grew up in the countryside of Hunan. She was interested in nature since she was young. She went on a school trip to Sichuan in 2012. This trip made her start to love studying plants and animals. There, she walked through the Bamboo Sea and learned how bamboo was used in daily life and art.
Every time she traveled, Zhang would take photos and write notes in her diary. She learned more about China's plants and animals. In 2017, she wrote her first book, Nature's Colors. The book shows common plants and animals in China. It became popular among young readers. Later, she wrote two more books, Forest Heaven and Nature's Wonders. Last year, she finished her new book Land of Rivers and Life about the nature in Jiangnan.
Now the book is published (出版) in both Chinese and English. Zhang has spent over ten years studying and writing about nature. In this book, she shows how nature is part of Chinese culture. She writes, "Jiangnan is like a green poem (诗歌). People there respect nature and write about it. Many old stories and paintings come from there."
In her book, Zhang describes animals and plants, and writes about the stories and culture behind them. She hopes more young people will learn to love and protect nature.
19. What does Zhang love most about China's nature
A. It is home to many animals.
B. She can learn more about plants.
C. It has a very beautiful scenery.
D. People, plants and animals live together.
20. When did Zhang really start to love studying plants and animals
A. When she grew up in Hunan.
B. When she became famous.
C. When she traveled to Sichuan.
D. When she wrote her first book.
21. Which book of Zhang's do young readers like
A. Forest Heaven.
B. Nature's Colors.
C. Nature's Wonders.
D. Land of Rivers and Life.
22. What is Zhang's hope
A. Her books sell well.
B. She can write more books.
C. More people visit Jiangnan.
D. Young people respect and help nature.
C
Do you ever watch movies in your car In countries like the United States and Australia, you can do this at a drive-in cinema. It is a special kind of outdoor movie theater. Instead of sitting in chairs inside a building, people watch the film from the comfort of their own cars.
Here's how it works. First, you drive to a large open field. There is a very big white screen at one end. For example, Bengies Drive-In in America is famous for having one of the largest screens in the world. You pay for one ticket for your car. Then, you find a parking spot(停车位) and park facing the screen. To hear the movie, you don't need to open your windows. At most drive-ins, you can hear the movie through your car radio(收音机). You simply turn your car radio to the right station and listen.
The movie begins when the sky gets dark. Families and friends sit in their cars and look at the screen through the front window. They often buy classic snacks like popcorn, hot dogs, and soft drinks from a snack bar to enjoy during the film. This activity is especially popular with families who have young children. The kids are free to talk, move around in their own cars without disturbing other movie watchers.
Drive-in cinemas first became popular in the 1950s. Many drive-ins closed, but some are still there. Now, people like them again. They think it is a fun and safe way to watch a movie with friends or family.
23. What is a drive-in cinema
A. A cinema with a small screen outside.
B. A cinema in an old building for movies.
C. A cinema with a common screen outside.
D. A cinema for watching movies from your car.
24. Why does the writer mention Bengies Drive-In
A. Because it is in Australia.
B. Because it is the oldest one.
C. Because it has the best food.
D. Because it has a very large screen.
25. What is the main idea of Paragraph 2 about a drive-in cinema
A. The steps to watch a movie.
B. The reasons to watch movies.
C. The way to listen to the movie.
D. The way to choose a good parking spot.
26. Why are drive-in cinemas still popular
A. They have the cheapest tickets.
B. They offer free delicious snacks.
C. Few of them have very large screens.
D. They let people enjoy relaxing movie time.
D
①I still remember my best friend from primary school. We sat together every day, shared our food, and played after class. We promised we would always be friends. Now, we are in different middle schools and hardly ever see each other. Sometimes I feel sad about this, but I have learned an important lesson: friendships can change, and that is a normal part of life.
②People change as they grow older. My friend once loved reading storybooks with me. Now, she enjoys playing basketball. I still like quiet activities like drawing. We have become different people. Sometimes friends move to another town. Sometimes they join different clubs and make new friends. Sometimes you just slowly become less close. It is not good or bad—it is just what happens.
③Can we keep old friends even when things change Yes, if we try. You can send a short message to ask how they are doing. You can share interesting things from your life. If the friendship is true, small changes shouldn't break it. True friends care about each other even when they are different.
④What if a friendship really ends It is okay to feel a little sad. But remember, life always brings new people to you. After that old friendship died down, I joined an art class. There I met a girl with a love for painting. We became good friends. She shows me new ideas I never knew before.
⑤Friends are like flowers in a garden. Some bloom(开花) for a short time, some last longer. Each friend makes your life more colorful. When one friend goes away, there will be new ones coming. Do not be afraid of change. Remember the good times, and keep your heart open for new friendships.
27. What did the writer and his primary school friend often do together
A. They studied math together.
B. They traveled to different cities.
C. They played basketball every day.
D. They shared food and played after class.
28. What does "it" refer to(指代) in Paragraph 3
A. The short message.
B. The true friendship.
C. Your life at school.
D. The new friend you make.
29. What does "Friends are like flowers in a garden." mean
A. Friends need gifts and attention to stay close.
B. Friends should always stay in the same place.
C. Friends are beautiful when they are exactly like you.
D. Friendships are short or long, and each brings color to life.
30. What does the writer try to tell us in this text
A. Friendship change is normal and okay.
B. We should keep our old friends forever.
C. Friendships never last, so don't make friends.
D. We should always try to be exactly like our friends.
第二节 任务型阅读(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面材料,从方框中所给的A-E五个选项中选出正确选项(其中一项是多余选项),将序号填入第31-34小题,并回答第35小题。注意:请将第35小题的答案写在答题纸上非选择题部分的相应位置。
Dr. Owen Bell is a scientist who writes about the future. In his new book, he talks about the future in 2050—from smart cities to useful robots—and shows how students can start preparing today. A host is interviewing Dr. Bell about his book and his predictions.
Host: Welcome to our program, Dr. Bell. Your book talks about the future. 31
Dr. Bell: I believe AI will become a daily tool for learning and creating, but we must learn to use it wisely and kindly.
Host: How can young students prepare for such changes
Dr. Bell: They can start learning how to think, not just what to remember.
Host: 32
Dr. Bell: I studied computer science, but I also took classes in art and writing. Mixing different subjects helps you think in new ways.
Host: 33
Dr. Bell: Yes. The Wonderful Flight to the Mushroom Planet gave me big dreams. It showed me that imagination can open amazing doors.
Host: 34
Dr. Bell: Read about many topics—not only technology. Learn to ask good questions and work with others. The future needs creative minds.
A. What did you study in college
B. What is one of your predictions
C. What is your advice for students
D. Did a book influence you when you were young
E. If robots do most things for us, shall we still need to work
35. What will you do for the future (不超过15词)
___________________________________________________________
第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分40分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
Each Sunday, Leo visits his grandpa. His hearing isn't good, so Leo often has to repeat(重复) himself loudly. Sometimes, Grandpa 36 can't understand him. Leo would just stop and feel a little sad.
One Sunday, Leo's mother gave him a small notebook. "Why don't you try 37 with Grandpa " she said. Leo wasn't sure, but he put the notebook in his pocket.
At Grandpa's house, Leo asked about the old 38 on the wall. Grandpa shook his head, "What Speak louder, Leo." Remembering the notebook, Leo 39 it out. He wrote down his question: " 40 is this photo from "
Grandpa took the notebook, put on his glasses, and his face lit up (喜形于色). "Ah! This was 41 my first fishing trip!" he said, and then he began to write back. He told Leo a wonderful story about that day, filling almost a whole page.
Leo read it and felt so 42 . For the first time, he heard a story from Grandpa without any "What " or "Pardon ". They spent the whole afternoon 43 stories and questions in the notebook. When Leo drew a funny fish next to his words, Grandpa laughed out loud.
That evening, when it was time to leave, Grandpa hugged Leo a little 44 . "Come again next Sunday," he wrote in the notebook, "and bring your 45 . We have more stories to tell."
On the way home, Leo didn't feel sad anymore. He understood something important. Sometimes, communication isn't just about 46 . When words are hard to hear, we can use a pen. When a voice is difficult to understand, we can share a 47 that can warm others. True communication is about finding a way to 48 each other's hearts.
Now, the little notebook is almost 49 . But Leo isn't worried. He and Grandpa have already bought a new one together. Their conversation, in their own special way, will never 50 .
36. A. even B. never C. still D. yet
37. A. drawing B. reading C. writing D. playing
38. A. photo B. painting C. map D. clock
39. A. gave B. took C. put D. handed
40. A. When B. Where C. Why D. How
41. A. from B. in C. for D. with
42. A. bored B. tired C. happy D. nervous
43. A. sharing B. hearing C. making D. creating
44. A. shorter B. longer C. slower D. colder
45. A. pen B. photo C. computer D. dictionary
46. A. hands B. eyes C. noses D. voices
47. A. meal B. break C. silence D. smile
48. A. touch B. break C. lose D. search
49. A. new B. clean C. lively D. full
50. A. start B. change C. end D. return
第二节 词汇运用(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
A. 将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中,每词仅用一次。
Zongzi is a traditional Chinese food. People make this popular food 51______ . First, they wash the bamboo leaves (叶子). Then, they put rice and other fillings, 52 ______ red beans or meat, inside the leaves. Next, they tie the leaves with string. At last, they 53______ zongzi in hot water for a few hours. The wonderful 54______ makes you hungry. You just can't wait to see, taste, and enjoy this delicious food.
Many people also buy zongzi from markets or small restaurants 55______ the Dragon Boat Festival. It is not just food—it carries 56______ and good wishes from our families.
B. 阅读下面短文,根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。
My younger brother is quite shy. He usually stays 57______ (独自) and feels nervous around strangers. Last Friday, his class held a story-sharing activity. At first, he was afraid, but he finally 58______ (接受) the challenge.
"What should I do if I just stand there and say 59______ (没有事) " he asked me. I told him, "At 60______ (最少) give it a try. It could be good for you." So we practiced his short story together every afternoon.
When his turn came, he walked up and looked a little 61 ______(镇静). He slowly told everyone how he once helped a lost cat. Everyone listened quietly. When he finished, his teacher said, "That was amazing!" My brother was so happy that he didn't even know how to 62______ (回复).
That night, Mom made an apple 63______ (果馅饼) to celebrate. "I'm glad I tried 64 ______(我的) best," he said with a smile. He realized that even a shy person can be a good 65______ (发言者). Now he expects to give more speeches in the future.
第三节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的词,或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
James wanted a new bicycle very much. He looked 66______ his old one and thought, "I need a better one." But when he checked his money box, he had only a little money. It was 67______ (possible) to get enough for a new bicycle.
His father said, " 68______ you want something, you will have to work for it." James decided to find a way to make money. He asked his 69 ______(neighbor) for small jobs. First, Mrs. Green let him walk her dog. "Can you do something for me this afternoon " she asked. James worked hard and did 70______ very good job. Soon, he became more confident in doing different jobs than before.
Then, Mr. Smith let him water flowers. It was 71______ (hot) day of the summer, but James didn't stop. For several weeks, he worked after school every day. 72______ (final), he counted his money—he had enough! He went to the store 73______ (buy) the shiny blue bicycle. 74______ a wonderful feeling it was!
James loved his new bicycle. He 75______ (learn) an important lesson from this experience: you can make anything possible when you try.
第四部分 书面表达(共1小题,满分20分)
76. 你校校报正以"Winter Vacation Plan"为主题开展征文活动。假如你是张华,请结合自身实际情况,从以下四个计划中选择两项,写一篇短文参与投稿。
Which are your plans Why are you going to ... How are you going to ...
□ learn something new □ form good habits □work hard at something □ improve relationships with others
注意:
1. 方框中的问题能帮助你阐述；
2. 文中不得出现真实的人名和校名；
3. 词数80词左右。
Winter Vacation Plan
Winter holiday is coming, and I ...
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杭州市萧山区2025学年第一学期八年级学业水平测试
英语试听力材料
该部分分为三节。注意,听力部分答题时请先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。请看听力部分第一节。
第一节,听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
(停顿5秒;停顿时间打点)
(Text 1)
M: Lisa, our science report is about bees. I find they see colors we can't see.
W: Really I find something else. Their favorite color to visit is actually blue, not yellow or red.
(停顿10秒;停顿时间打点)
(Text 2)
W: Dad, can I invite my friends to our new house
M: Sure, Helen. But we need to clean up first. Could you please sweep the floor I'll pack up things.
W: OK, Dad.
(停顿10秒;停顿时间打点)
(Text 3)
W: Hey Tom, what do you want to be when you grow up
M: I'm really interested in becoming a scientist. But my parents want me to be a doctor.
(停顿10秒;停顿时间打点)
(Text 4)
W: I went to West Mountain with my family.
M: Oh, really What's it like
W: It just took my breath away. We took a lot of pictures there. No one wanted to leave.
(停顿10秒;停顿时间打点)
(Text 5)
M: I think Emma is angry with me. She didn't sit with me at lunch.
W: Don't just guess why. Go and ask her yourself. A direct talk is the best way.
M: You're right.
(停顿5秒;停顿时间打点)
第二节。听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话,回答第6至第7两个小题。现在,你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。(停10秒)
W: Is that Lucy playing the violin
M: No, that's actually Linda.
W: I know they both play the violin. Who's better at it
M: Linda plays better, for sure. She's really talented when it comes to music.
W: Then what is Lucy better at
M: Oh, Lucy is much better at sports. She runs really fast and is on the school basketball team.
W: That's interesting! So they're good at different things.
M: Yes, and they both work very hard. Linda plays the violin almost every day, and Lucy practices for sports after school.
(停2秒,然后重复,后再停10秒)
听下面一段较长对话,回答第8至第10三个小题。现在,你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。(停15秒)
W: Hi, Mike. What did you do last weekend
M: I played a new computer game with my cousin.
W: Was it fun
M: Yes, it was exciting. But next weekend, I want to do something different.
W: What is it
M: Maybe go to a new science museum in the city. I want to see the robot show there.
W: A robot show That sounds cool! I like robots too.
M: Yes, I think robots will be very important in the future.
W: Me too. Maybe one day we will all have robot helpers at home!
M: That would be great! Do you want to go to the museum with me next Saturday
W: Sure, I'd love to!
(停2秒,然后重复,后再停15秒)
第三节。听下面一段独白,独白后有5个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案,并标注在试卷的相应位置。听独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出五秒种种的作答时间。独白读两遍。
现在,你有25秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。(停25秒)
Hello, everyone. I'm Li Ping, a middle school student. In our school, we have a special place for growing plants — a small vegetable garden on the right side of our classroom building.
Every week, we have a class where we learn how to plant vegetables. We grow carrots, beans, tomatoes, and so on. It's not always easy, because each plant has its own needs. For example, beans need more water, and we have to clear the grass around the tomato plants. We don't sell or give away the vegetables we pick — instead, we cook them ourselves into simple dishes like tomato soup or fried beans at school. And when we finally eat the food made with our own vegetables, it tastes really delicious!
This class doesn't just teach me how to grow plants. It also brings me joy during busy school days.
(停2秒,然后重复,停25秒)
现在你有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答案纸上。
听力部分到此结束。
2025学年第一学期八年级学业水平测试
英语参考答案及评分标准
一、听力（共三节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
1-5 CBCBA
第二节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
6-10 CBBAB
第三节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
11-15 CBBCA
二、阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
16-20 CDADC 21-25 BDDDA 26-30 DDBDA
第一节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
31-34 BADC
35. I will/am going to learn to ask good questions and work with friends.
三、语言运用（共三节，满分40分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
36-40 CCABB 41-45 ACABA 46-50 DDADC
第二节 词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
A. 选词填空（共6小题，每小题1分，满分6分）
51. carefully 52. such as 53. boil
54. smell 55. during 56. love
B. 单词拼写（共9小题，每小题1分，满分9分）
57. alone 58. accepted 59. nothing
60. least 61. calm 62. reply
63. pie 64. my 65. speaker
第三节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
66. at 67. impossible 68. If
69. neighbors 70. a 71. the hottest
72. Finally 73. to buy 74. What
75. learned/learnt
四、书面表达（共1小题，满分20分）
Possible version
Winter holiday is coming, and I make some good plans for it.
To form good habits, I will go to bed and get up early every day. I will also read for at least half an hour each morning. These habits will help me stay healthy and keep learning. I also want to improve my relationship with my parents. I plan to help them with housework and talk with them every day. This will bring us closer and make our time together happier.
I believe my winter holiday will be meaningful and warm. (87 words)
评分标准
一、第1小题至第5小题，每题1分，不选、多选和错选均不给分。
二、第6小题至第15小题，每题1.5分，不选、多选和错选均不给分
二、第16小题至第30小题，每题2分，不选、多选和错选均不给分。
三、第31小题至第34小题，每题2分，不选、多选和错选均不给分。
35小题：陈述合理且语句通顺给2分；有和主题相关信息但有明显错误给1分；无意义的信息不得分。
四、第36小题至第50小题，每题1分，凡拼写错误均不给分。
五、第51小题至第65小题，每题1分，凡拼写错误均不给分。
五、第66小题至第75小题，每题1分，凡拼写错误均不给分。
六、书面表达(共1小题，满分20分)
【评分原则】
1按5个档次给分。中档属第三档（13分-10分）。
2.评分时，要以作文的整体谋篇、内容要点、语言水平来评判。先确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，微调得分。
3.总词数不足40个或者超过120个的，可在本题总得分中扣去2分。
4.书写较差或者卷面很不清洁以致影响达意的，可在本题总得分中扣1-2分。
【整体评分标准】
第五档（很好）:(20分-18分) 完全完成试题规定的任务。
信息全；语言可读性强；语言结构基本正确；有少量错误。
第四档（好）:(17分-14分) 完全完成试题规定的任务。
有主要信息；语言基本正确；有一些错误。
第三档（还好）:(13分-10分) 基本完成试题规定的任务
有主要信息；语言尚可读；有一些错误；但尚能达意。
第二档（较差）:(9分-6分) 未能恰当完成试题规定的任务。
信息不全；只有个别句子可读；语言错误较多；且不能达意。
第一档（差）:(5分-1分) 未能完成试题规定的任务。
不能表达有关信息；只有几个相关单词；语言错误很多，不能达意。
注意：凡不写任何内容、抄袭其它内容、所写内容无法看清者一律给0分。

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