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2025-2026学年云南普洱市镇沅县高二上学期期末考试英语试卷
本试卷满分150分,考试用时120分钟。
注意事项:
1.答题前,考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分 30分）
第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5 分，满分7.5分)
1.
What will the man do first
A. Repair the jeep. B. Answer an email. C. Fetch some tools.
2.
What does the man think of Frank’s new songs
A. Amazing. B. Acceptable. C. Unappealing.
3.
Whose birthday is it today probably
A. Sue’s. B. Jim’s. C. Tracy’s.
4.
What did the man forget to do
A. Contact the organizer. B. Make an advertisement. C. Choose some performers.
5.
When will the man meet the woman
A. At 9:00. B. At 10:00. C. At 11:00.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
6. How does the man feel
A. Relaxed. B. Worried. C. Angry.
7. Where does the woman think the book might be
A. In their room. B. In the school. C. In the yard.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
8. How does the woman sound at the beginning of the conversation
A. Bored. B. Excited. C. Tired.
9. What does the woman suggest doing
A. Playing with snow.
B. Watching the snow indoors.
C. Checking the weather forecast.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
10. What will the man do on Sunday
A. Have dinner with his friend.
B. Attend a music festival.
C. Go to the cinema.
11. What is the woman’s problem
A. Her car broke down.
B. She’s asked to work overtime.
C. Her sister can’t give her a ride.
12. How will the woman go to the National Park
A. By bus. B. By subway. C. By taxi.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
13. What did Norris do in the summer of 2021
A. She started a full-time job.
B. She traveled around the world.
C. She sold group tickets for a team.
14. Why did Norris go to the Savannah Bananas in 2022
A. To say goodbye. B. To look for work. C. To express her thanks.
15. What does Norris say about her work at the restaurant
A. It took up too much time.
B. It taught her many things.
C It was the best job for her.
16. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Neighbors. B. Colleagues. C. Interviewer and Interviewee.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
17. What does the man want the woman to do
A. Reserve a table. B. Watch a play. C. Call a client.
18. When will they meet
A. At 5:30 p.m. B. At 7:45 p.m. C. At 8:00 p.m.
19. Who is Richard Coyle
A. A leader. B. An actor. C. A writer.
20. Where will they meet first
A. At the woman’s home. B. At the theater. C. In a restaurant.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分 50 分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 37.5分）
A
In the heart of Australia’s Northern Territory lies a destination that attracts adventurers, nature enthusiasts, and curious minds alike. Welcome to Darwin, a city known for its natural beauty, cultural diversity, and unique wildlife. If you’re looking for an unforgettable vacation experience that immerses (使……沉浸) you in the wonders of nature, Darwin Tours and Darwin Vacation Packages are your keys to this remarkable destination.
Darwin: A Gateway to the Outback
Darwin Tours allow you to embark on journeys deep into the Outback, where you’ll witness breathtaking landscapes that seem untouched by time. The tours offer a wide range of options, from exploring the iconic Kakadu National Park to discovering the sacred lands of Arnhem Land, all while enjoying the expertise of experienced guides.
Kakadu National Park: A Natural Wonder
One of the jewels of Darwin tourism is the magnificent Kakadu National Park. This UNESCO World Heritage-listed site is a sprawling expanse of wetlands, floodplains, and escarpments that provide a habitat for diverse wildlife, including crocodiles, wallabies, and countless bird species.
Darwin Tours to Kakadu National Park are an excellent way to explore this unique ecosystem. You’ll embark on guided hikes, take scenic cruises, and even witness ancient rock art that tells the story of indigenous cultures dating back thousands of years.
Litchfield National Park: Natural Pools and Waterfalls
If you’re in search of relaxation amidst nature, then Litchfield National Park should be on your list. This picturesque park is home to a collection of stunning waterfalls and natural pools that provide the perfect backdrop for a day of swimming and picnicking.
As you plan your next vacation, consider making Darwin your destination of choice. Darwin Tours will guide you through the enchanting landscapes and stories of this remarkable place, leaving you with memories that will last a lifetime.
21. What do we know about Darwin
A. Rich in natural wonders. B. Famous for tour forms.
C. Unique in mineral resources. D. Diverse in cultural exchanges.
22. What can we do in Kakadu National Park
A. Hunt for jewels. B. Camp in the wetlands.
C. Enjoy ancient rock art. D. Take boats free of charge.
23. What is one key highlight of Litchfield National Park
A Its adventurous sites. B. Its beautiful waterfalls.
C. Its rare wildlife collection. D. Its picnicking facilities.
B
Since 2015, China’s college entrance examination (Gaokao) has undergone profound reforms driven by modern technology, shifting from “ability-oriented” to “competency-oriented” evaluation. This transformation, guided by the China Gaokao Evaluation Framework, has been strongly supported by technological innovations such as artificial intelligence (AI) and big data, reshaping both question design and comprehensive assessment systems.
In the field of proposition development, large language models (LLMs) (大语言模型) have emerged as a key tool since 2020. A 2025 study published in educational technology journals showed that LLMs can generate basic subject questions with an accuracy rate of over 87% for subjects like mathematics and Chinese, and have been piloted in regional mock exams. For example, a provincial educational research center used AI to generate 30% of the test questions for a 2025 spring mock exam, shortening the proposition cycle by 42% while maintaining high quality after expert revision. Beyond efficiency, technology has facilitated the design of innovative question types. Researchers like Ren Zichao and Chen Ang developed five new question types (including multiple-select questions and ill-structured problems) through large-scale trials involving 4,205 students between 2015 and 2019, which effectively assess critical thinking and practical application abilities. These questions, such as ill-structured math problems that require students to select their own solution conditions, have been officially included in Gaokao papers since 2020.
In terms of exam evaluation, technology has promoted the shift from “result-only” assessment to process-oriented evaluation (过程性评价). Zhejiang Province, a national education evaluation reform pilot, has built a “three-dimensional evaluation system” integrating structural, process, and result quality since 2013. Supported by big data analytics, process-oriented evaluation tracks indicators like homework burden, class participation, and sleep quality through regular surveys, providing schools with targeted improvement suggestions. For instance, Hangzhou’s Jianggan District conducts semesterly monitoring of students’ learning processes, and data analysis has helped reduce excessive homework and improve teaching effectiveness. Meanwhile, AI has been embedded in Gaokao’s competency assessment — 2025 Gaokao Chinese papers, though not explicitly mentioning AI, tested logical thinking and information integration abilities essential for AI-era learning by simulating AI training scenarios.
Experts emphasize that technology’s role in Gaokao reform is not to replace human judgment but to enhance scientificity and equity. The China Gaokao Evaluation Framework highlights that technological applications should align with curriculum standards and talent selection goals, ensuring that evaluations truly reflect students’ comprehensive competencies. From AI-assisted proposition to data-driven process evaluation, technology has become a cornerstone of Gaokao’s transformation toward more inclusive and quality-oriented education.
24. What is the main goal of applying modern technology to Gaokao reform
A. To replace human experts in question design entirely
B. To make Gaokao more scientific and inclusive
C. To reduce the difficulty of Gaokao questions
D. To focus only on students’ final test scores
25. What was the initial purpose of large language models (LLMs) in education before being used for Gaokao proposition
A. To develop AI tutoring systems for students
B. To generate basic subject questions efficiently
C. To analyze students’ daily learning data
D. To design online course frameworks
26. How does process-oriented evaluation help schools improve teaching quality
A. By ranking schools based on Gaokao admission rates
B. By tracking students’ learning processes and providing targeted suggestions
C. By reducing the number of exams students take each semester
D. By focusing only on students’ homework completion rates
27. What can be inferred from experts’ opinions on technology in Gaokao reform
A. Technology should take priority over educational principles.
B Technology will completely replace human judgment in Gaokao.
C. Traditional question types will be eliminated in future Gaokao papers.
D. Tech and human expertise improve Gaokao proposition’s scientificity.
C
On December 6, 2025, the Metropolitan Museum of Art in New York launched its AR Ancient Egyptian Art Immersive Exhibition, a project designed to let visitors “interact” with 3D-rendered relics like the Rosetta Stone replica via mobile devices. A December 2025 research brief from Museum Management and Curatorship pointed out that while global museums have rushed to adopt AR technology since 2025, few have studied how different age groups respond to such digital experiences.
To fill this gap, the Met teamed up with researchers to conduct a 10-day trial from January 8 to 17. They divided 300 visitors into two groups: Group A (18–25 years old, digital natives) and Group B (60+ years old, traditional museum-goers). Each visitor was given a pre-installed AR device and asked to complete three tasks: “touch” a virtual papyrus scroll, “assemble” a broken statue, and “listen” to a simulated ancient priest’s narration. Researchers recorded their operation time, error rates, and post-visit satisfaction scores.
The results showed stark differences between the two groups. Group A finished all tasks in an average of 8 minutes with a 5% error rate, and 92% of them rated the experience “highly satisfying”, saying the AR feature made “dry historical facts come alive”. In contrast, Group B took an average of 22 minutes with a 41% error rate; 67% of them complained that the device’s operation steps were too complicated, and some even abandoned the tasks halfway. The biggest pain point for older visitors was the lack of voice guidance—they had to rely on text instructions that were hard to read on small screens.
On January 10, 2026, the museum revised the AR system based on the feedback: it added one-click activation, voice prompts in multiple languages, and enlarged text options. A follow-up survey of 50 Group B visitors who re-experienced the exhibition found that their average task time dropped to 12 minutes, error rate fell to 12%, and satisfaction jumped to 89%. Dr. Lisa Carter, the lead researcher, noted, “Digitalization in museums shouldn’t just cater to young people. The key to success is to design inclusive experiences that bridge the tech gap between generations.”
28. What is the main content of Paragraph 2
A. The purpose of the AR exhibition
B. The process of the research trial
C. The problems of the AR device
D. The results of the satisfaction survey
29. What does the underlined word “stark” in Paragraph 3 probably mean
A. Slight B. Subtle C. Gradual D. Obvious
30. What was the main difficulty for Group B visitors in the initial trial
A. They had no interest in ancient Egyptian art
B. They did not get voice guidance for the device
C. They did not know how to download the AR app
D. They were not familiar with the museum’s layout
31. What can we infer from Dr. Lisa Carter’s words
A. Young people are not the target audience of museum AR exhibitions
B. Inclusive digital design can help all visitors enjoy museum experiences
C. The Met’s AR exhibition will not be open to young visitors anymore
D. Traditional museum experiences are more popular than digital ones
D
Chinese researchers have identified a new microbial (微生物的) species on the country’s space station, a finding that experts say shows the unique environment of space stations can serve as a special “microbial evolution factory,” offering valuable research on life in space, which will be beneficial for future human space exploration activities.
Researchers from the Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS) recently published a paper in the journal Microbiology Spectrum describing the discovery of a new bacterial species, which they have named Niallia tiangongensis.
The researchers said the bacterium was found during the microbial monitoring of the environmental surfaces of the China Space Station (CSS) in 2021, and the monitoring program was part of the manned spacecraft’s environmental health management.
Microbes are known to be present everywhere on Earth, but they have rarely been researched in a space station environment, so understanding how they can survive and even evolve (进化) in the extreme environment of microgravity, radiation and elevated carbon dioxide will be of great scientific importance. According to the paper, the new bacterium was found on the surfaces of various locations inside the CSS, suggesting it can survive and grow in that environment for a long time.
The genome analysis shows the new species contains a number of genes related to stress response and antibiotic (抗生素) resistance. The researchers also identified genes that help the bacterium utilize certain organic compounds as carbon sources for growth.
The researchers said this finding highlights the unique environment of space stations as a “microbial evolution factory” and that microbial monitoring and research on space stations will be an important part of the future development of manned spaceflight, as it will help protect the health of astronauts and ensure the long-term safety of space station equipment.
The identification of the new species also provides a new perspective on the origin and evolution of life in the universe, they said.
The research team said they will continue to monitor microbial changes on the CSS and conduct further studies on the effects of the space environment on microbial evolution and function.
32. What is the main achievement of Chinese researchers
A. They built a special “microbial evolution factory” on Earth.
B. They discovered a new bacterial species on the China Space Station.
C. They developed a new way to protect astronauts’ health in space.
D. They found a method to control microbial growth in space stations.
33. Why is researching microbes in the space station environment scientifically significant
A. It helps explore how microbes live and evolve in extreme space conditions.
B. It enables the development of new antibiotics for medical treatment on Earth.
C. It can improve the environmental management of manned spacecraft quickly.
D. It provides a way to reduce carbon dioxide levels in space stations.
34. According to the genome analysis, which of the following is true about the new species
A. It has genes that are related to stress response.
B. It has no ability to resist antibiotic.
C. It uses inorganic compounds as carbon sources for growth.
D. It lacks genes that are responsible for controlling growing process.
35. What role does microbial research play in future manned spacecraft
A. It can replace the environmental health management of spacecraft.
B. It will solve all problems of long-term space exploration.
C. It is the core task of the China Space Station’s research program.
D. It helps ensure astronauts’ health and space equipment safety.
第二节 （共 5小题；每小题 2.5 分， 满分 12.5分）
After an afternoon of collecting leaves or pulling wild grass from your garden, you may wonder how much all that activity counts toward your daily exercise quota (定额). _____36_____
“Many yard and garden tasks require enough effort to count as medium-intensity exercise,” says Dr. I-Min Lee, a professor at Harvard Medical School. And the U.S. physical activity guidelines call for doing at least 150 minutes per week of medium-intensity exercise. _____37_____ You can spread it out over the week or focus on just two days during the weekend.
_____38_____ Several yard and garden tasks — digging holes, shoveling soil, or bagging fallen leaves, for example — strengthen various muscles. Besides, gardening or yard work, like walking, swimming, and dancing, has a low rate of injuries when compared with higher-intensity activities such as running. There’s even evidence that gardening can reduce stress and anxiety. _____39_____ This makes gardening an effective approach to well-being.
“If you enjoy gardening and yard work, it can be a good way to meet your exercise goals,” says Dr. Lee. “_____40_____ In this way, you are more likely to stick to them consistently.”
A. The answer is no.
B. They also increased physical activity levels.
C. Such changes help lower the risk of heart disease.
D. You can meet that goal doing garden or yard work.
E. After all, the best rule is to do activities you enjoy.
F. You may collect a few health benefits from doing so.
G. Surprisingly, it adds up to more than you might think.
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节, 满分 30 分）
第一节 （共 15小题；每小题 1分，满分 15分）
During my childhood, I had survived many incidents, most related to riding my bike. I ____41____ a bike on my 9th birthday from my parents, and I loved it. My older sister also had one, and we would ride almost daily.
One day, our cousin paid us a visit. We took out our bikes, and since we only had two, we took turns riding them. Soon we got bored and decided to seek something more ____42____. My sister suggested playing red and green light, and we all agreed. She played as the light, while my cousin and I as ____43____. After a couple of rounds, my sister instructed us to ____44____ each other for the last round. She said “green light”, and we ____45____ full speed towards each other. Somehow, our bikes ran into each other, and we crashed. I ____46____ and landed face-first, with my knees and arms bleeding and my ___47___ sprained. The pain was ____48____, and I screamed and cried.
My dad heard my cries and ran to me. He ____49____ me inside, and my mom came downstairs to see me in a state of suffering. She ____50____ my severe wounds with the aid kit, especially my ankle, and the mention of my favorite General Tso’s chicken ____51____ me and eased my pain. It was clear that my sister was to blame for the accident — her ____52____ in the game had led to the crash. She approached, casting me a(n) ____53____ look and asking for forgiveness, and I forgave her but let her know that tricks weren’t allowed anymore.
From that day on, we agreed to let the ____54____ of that incident fade into the past, learning from the lessons it had taught us and the strength it had ____55____ the fabric of our relationship.
41. A. purchased B. earned C. received D. hired
42. A. engaging B. entertaining C. ambitious D. ideal
43. A. bikes B. cars C. planes D. policemen
44. A. persuade B. follow C. accompany D. face
45. A. cycled B. marched C. wandered D. proceeded
46 A. flew off B. fell off C. switched off D. got off
47. A. wrist B. ankle C. shoulder D. knee
48. A. uneasy B. untouchable C. unbearable D. unavoidable
49. A. dragged B. carried C. pushed D. walked
50. A. questioned B. worried C. examined D. treated
51. A. comforted B. amused C. inspired D. motivated
52. A. competence B. innovation C. function D. leadership
53. A. encouraging B. indifferent C. regretful D. pessimistic
54. A. shadows B. memories C. conflicts D. settings
55. A. run into B. broken into C. turned into D. integrated into
第二节 （共10小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In the early 19th century, a group of Chinese tea farmers journeyed to Brazil, carrying tea seeds with the aim of cultivating tea and sharing their farming skills. They ____56____ (choose) a spot within the current Rio de Janeiro Botanical Garden as their planting site. Their efforts soon became a symbol of the deep friendship between China and Brazil, ____57____ (deep) rooted in Brazilian soil.
Today, Rio de Janeiro honors these immigrants through ____58____ (vary) monuments. One of the most representative ____59____ (example) is the Vista Chinesa in Tijuca National Park, a Chinese-style tower ____60____ (build) in the early 1900s.
On August 15, 2018, a plaque (匾牌) was displayed in the Rio Botanical Garden in memory of ____61____ 200th anniversary of Chinese immigration. The plaque reads: “In 1812, the first Chinese immigrants to Brazil planted tea trees here, ____62____ (mark) a lasting proof of the friendship between China and Brazil.” This event was part of the celebrations for Brazil’s first Chinese Immigration Day, ____63____ also marked the anniversary of the establishment of diplomatic ties in 1974.
In 2022, the city established September 28, widely known ____64____ Confucius’ birthday, to honor the growing cultural exchanges between the two countries. Additionally, the Spring Festival ____65____ (recognize) as an official holiday in Rio de Janeiro State.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 40 分）
第一节 （满分 15 分）
66. 假定你是李华，现准备参加暑期中学生英语演讲比赛，你在语言运用、发音（pronunciation）和语调（intonation）方面遇到了困难。请给你的外籍教师Mr. Smith写封信，请他帮忙提出建议。
内容包括：1. 求助事由；2. 希望指导；3. 感谢帮助。
注意：1. 词数80左右；2. 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；3.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Mr. Smith,
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节 （满分 25 分）
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的 短文。
The Broken Violin String
The stage lights burned my eyes as I gripped the violin, my fingers trembling like autumn leaves. It was the school’s annual talent show, and I’d practiced the violin piece Lullaby for three months — until my fingertips had calluses and the melody played in my dreams. My mom sat in the front row, holding the bouquet of sunflowers she’d promised to give me if I didn’t freeze up.
I took a deep breath and began. The first notes flowed soft, like raindrops on a window, and I started to relax. For a moment, I forgot about the audience, forgot about the pressure to be perfect. But halfway through the chorus, a sharp snap cut through the music. My E string (琴弦) had broken.
Time stopped. The audience went quiet — so quiet I could hear my own heartbeat thudding in my ears. I stared at the broken string, my mind blank. All those hours of practice, all the times I’d told myself I could do this…it felt like it was all falling apart. I wanted to run off stage, to hide behind the curtains where no one could see me. My mom leaned forward in her seat, her smile gone, her eyes wide with worry.
I sat there, frozen, for what felt like forever. The violin felt heavy in my hands, like a weight I couldn’t hold anymore. Then, from the back of the auditorium, someone clapped — a slow, gentle clap. Then another. Soon, the whole room was clapping, soft at first, then louder, like a wave rolling toward me. I looked up, and saw Mia, the girl who’d helped me fix my violin last week, grinning and nodding. “You got this!” she mouthed.
My hands stopped shaking. I set the violin down, stood up, and walked to the edge of the stage. The clapping died down, and everyone waited, their eyes on me. I took a deep breath, opened my mouth.
注意：
1.续写词数应为150左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
I sang Lullaby’s melody, voice shaky at first but growing stronger.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Mia rushed to the stage, holding an extra violin string for emergency.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

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