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2026中考江西第一次模拟考试英语综合测试卷
（考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：120分）
注意事项：
1．本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。
3．回答非选择题时，必须用黑色字迹的签字笔或者钢笔将答案写在答题卡相应位置上。写在本试卷上无效。
4．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、听力。(本大题共20小题，每小题1分，共20分)
A. 请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
1．What is Tony’s mother
A．A nurse. B．A doctor. C．An engineer.
2．Where does the music come from
A．England. B．USA． C．China.
3．What happened to Tom
A．He lost his cat.
B．He broke his mum’s favourite glass.
C．He had an argument with his mum.
4．Where can the woman get a new student card
A．At the service center. B．In the dining hall. C．In the office building.
5．What does the woman mean
A．Jack can talk with his friend at his friend’s home.
B．Jack can do homework with friends at his friend’s home.
C．Jack can’t do homework with his friend at his friend’s home.
B. 听短对话选答案。
听下面一段对话，回答6-7小题。
6．What’s the girl’s favorite TV show
A．A talk show. B．A game show. C．A talent show.
7．What’s the relationship between the speakers
A．Father and daughter. B．Brother and sister. C．Mother and son.
听下面一段对话，回答8-9小题。
8．What did the woman think about the man’s speech
A．Boring. B．Confusing. C．Wonderful.
9．How did the man feel when he started his first speech
A．Excited. B．Nervous. C．Surprised.
C. 听长对话选答案。
听下面一段对话，回答10-12小题。
10．When did Jenny write the letter to Lucy
A．On November 25th. B．On December 15th. C．On December 25th.
11．Why did Jenny mention snow boots
A．For her Vermont trip. B．For a December ski trip. C．For Christmas hiking.
12．What is the main purpose of the letter
A．Birthday invitation. B．Winter trip planning. C．Christmas greetings.
听下面一段对话，回答13-15小题。
13．What is the weather like in Judy’s hometown now
A．Snowing. B．Raining. C．Very hot.
14．Where does Judy come from
A．Australia. B．Canada. C．China.
15．What can we know about Judy from the dialogue
A．It is the first time for her to see snow at Christmas.
B．She will have a good time playing with snow after breakfast.
C．She thinks her hometown is very cold at this time.
D.听力填空。
16．On the first day, our trip will begin with a(n) tour around the Super Garden.
17．In the garden we’ll see many beautiful flowers and .
18．Then we will go to the Mickey Mouse’s Town .
19．We can with lovely animals at the Animal Country.
20．The guide’s phone number is .
二、单项选择。（本题共8小题，每小题1分，共8分）
21．—I volunteered as a guide at the National Games of China this year.
— Good for you! What a ________ experience it was!
A．valuable B．simple C．awful D．medical
22．The family had a picnic in the park ________ having dinner at home last Sunday, since the weather was fine.
A．as for B．because of C．instead of D．thanks to
23．—I didn’t see you at the party last night.
—Oh, I ________ my grandparents in the countryside. They were ill.
A．am visiting B．visit C．will visit D．was visiting
24．The film Zootopia 2 ________ very popular since it was first shown on Nov. 26th.
A．became B．has become C．was becoming D．become
25．—I don’t know how to use this machine.
—It doesn’t matter. Here is the ________.
A．instruction B．direction C．information D．advertisement
26．________exciting news! Our school team________the national robotics championship (全国机器人锦标赛) yesterday!
A．What; won B．How; has won C．What an; wins D．How a; will win
27．—Did you see the volleyball match yesterday
—Yes! It’s fantastic! I think it is ________ game that I have seen.
A．more boring B．the most boring C．more exciting D．the most exciting
28．—Do you still remember the robots in the Yangge dance ________ at the Spring Festival Gala (春节联欢晚会)
—Yes, they were made by Unitree, a robotics company in Hangzhou.
A．competition B．project C．resolution D．performance
三、完形填空。（本题共26小题，每小题1分，共26分）
A) 请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项。
There is a problem that many teenagers have to deal with. It is lack of (缺少) confidence. Lacking confidence is a 29 thing. It robs (掠夺) you of changes in life. It wastes your time.
It 30 the feeling that hurts you. If you are someone who doesn’t have 31 in yourself, take this chance to 32 the way you look at yourself and the world.
You are a human being. You have strengths and you have 33 . You have talents and you have faults. In this way, you are just like everyone else. You are just as 34 as other people.
Maybe you are looking around, thinking, “That can’t be right. He has so 35 natural talents, and she’s so smart.” It may be true. But what you are thinking means you 36 confidence.
However, there is only one real difference 37 you and them. They have found, accepted and started showing their talents, 38 you have not. You need to learn to accept. Accept that things go 39 . They go wrong for you and they also go wrong for 40 people too. It happens to 41 .
Confident people dig into problems, rebuild their life and move on. 42 people just can’t get out of it. So look at your potential (潜力) for 43 in the future rather than your failures. Then you’ll feel confident!
29．A．fantastic B．terrible C．normal D．national
30．A．finds B．causes C．chooses D．sends
31．A．confidence B．problem C．experience D．reason
32．A．build B．change C．lead D．show
33．A．advantages B．failures C．weaknesses D．mistakes
34．A．weak B．good C．bad D．tall
35．A．many B．much C．little D．few
36．A．had B．have C．didn’t have D．don’t have
37．A．between B．from C．among D．beside
38．A．and B．because C．while D．so
39．A．wrong B．well C．apart D．bad
40．A．other B．another C．the other D．others
41．A．nobody B．everyone C．someone D．none
42．A．Comfortable B．Unlucky C．Natural D．Unconfident
43．A．health B．wealth C．successes D．growth
B) 请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后用方框所给的词的适当形式填空，并将答案填写到答题卷的相应位置，每个词限用一次。
help many world happy they how become say proud make but
The teachers are worried that young children are 44 addicted (沉迷) to smartphones.
They can’t do easy things with hands as they hold mobile phones in both hands. They can’t make toys themselves or 45 cook dinner with mum.
“Many children like to play with smartphones but they don’t like to do other things. 46 children don’t like to talk with other children 47 their parents are 48 of them because they are good at using a phone,” 49 Colin Kinney, a teacher.
Many children spend too much time staying at home and quietly playing with a smartphone. If children do not know 50 to stay with others, it can become difficult for them to learn how to 51 friends when they get together.
It is important to know how to use smartphones in today’s 52 , but it is more important for children to learn how to make friends with others. If they do, they can live 53 when they grow up.
Teachers should help 54 students know how to live happily.
阅读理解。（本题共23小题，每小题2分，共46分）
A)请阅读下面短文，短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Activity Notice: The Show Tian fu Inn is ComingShow Time: 19:30, May 31, 2024 Show Place: The Butterfly Theater in Yueyang, Hunan Ticket Booking Rules: * Enter the “Hunan Ticket” applet (小程序) in WeChat. * Click the “Booking”. * Book the ticket of Tianfu Inn according to the page requirements. * If you don’t want to book tickets online, you can buy them in the theater center. Price of the ticket: The 1st Floor: 399 yuan The 2nd Floor: 299 yuan Student tickets are 169 yuan, with random (随机) seats.
55．Where can you enjoy the show
A．At the Human Theater. B．At the Yueyang Theater.
C．At the Butterfly Theater. D．At the Center Theater.
56．What’s the total of a student ticket and a ticket on the second floor
A．468 yuan. B．568 yuan. C．598 yuan. D．698 yuan.
57．Which of the following is TRUE according to the poster
A．There are 5 ticket booking rules for the show.
B．People can buy the tickets for the show online and offline.
C．The second floor is the best place to enjoy the show.
D．The performance will be shown during the winter vacation.
B
From “eating dazi” to “working out dazi” to “traveling dazi”, a new trend (趋势) is taking off in China among young people. “Dazi” often refers to “side-by-side” or just “activity partner” in Chinese. It means people find new ways to connect with others and share their hobbies.
“Dazi” makes social life easier and more comfortable. Unlike traditional friends who often need to hang out with each other and keep in close contact, a “dazi” is a more relaxed social partner. Getting along with a “dazi” means one doesn’t have to accommodate (迁就) the other because of different interests and hobbies, which will greatly reduce social costs.
In China, many young people are turning to “dazi” relationships to deal with their busy lives. “Dazi” is a quick and easy way to socialize (社交) without a long-term promise. It provides a way for young people to build social connections and fight against loneliness, without needing to care too much about each other like in close relationships. Moreover, social media make it easy to find people with similar interests for certain activities.
However, finding a “dazi” often comes with some problems. This includes meeting strangers in person, which can put you at risk of harm. So be careful when meeting an online “dazi”. To stay safe, always meet your online “dazi” in public and let someone know where you are going.
A short-term friendship formed through “dazi” can probably turn into a long-term relationship. While a “dazi” relationship is typically started for a certain activity, similar experiences and interests can lead to a deeper connection over time. However it’s important to respect each other’s personal space when building a relationship, without getting too involved or crossing any lines.
58．Compared with a traditional friend, a “dazi” __________.
A．takes more time to get along with
B．is often based on a long-term relationship
C．makes social life easier and more relaxed
D．requires a higher level of emotional support
59．What is Paragraph 3 mainly about
A．Why do young people build a “dazi” relationship
B．How can young people find friends with the same interests
C．Why is it important for young people to develop a close friendship
D．How do young people socialize to fight against loneliness
60．What does the writer think of a “dazi” relationship
A．It can turn into a long-term friendship.
B．It is better for outgoing people.
C．It often starts with respecting each other.
D．It helps make the connections between old friends closer.
61．What does the underlined word “It” in paragraph 3 refer to
A．Relationship. B．A long-term promise. C．Busy life. D．Dazi
62．What’s the writer’s purpose for writing the passage
A．To encourage people to make friends with “dazi”.
B．To introduce a new way to socialize.
C．To tell people the tips for finding a “Dazi” online.
D．To show the art of making friends.
C
Sun Yingsha, born in 2000 in Shijiazhuang, has become one of China’s brightest table tennis players. Known as the “Little Demon King” (魔王) for her powerful attacks, she began training at age 5 and joined the national team at 17.
Sun achieved global fame during the 2020 Tokyo Olympics, winning silver in women’s singles and gold in team events. Her quick footwork and precise backhand techniques often leave opponents struggling: By 2023, she had claimed three World Championship titles and two Asian Games gold medals. Remarkably, she became world No.1 at just 21 years old.
Beyond her skills, Sun’s sportsmanship shines. During the 2022 World Team Championships, she comforted a tearful opponent after a tough match. “Respect is as important as victory,” she told reporters. Her calmness under pressure earned praise from legends like Deng Yaping.
Sun balances strict training with personal hobbies. She enjoys reading history books and playing the piano. Despite her busy schedule, she volunteers to teach table tennis at local schools monthly. “I want to inspire kids to love this sport,” she said in an interview.
This young champion represents China’s new generation of athletes—talented, hardworking, and socially responsible.
63．When did Sun Yingsha firstly become world famous
A．In 2020. B．In 2021. C．In 2022. D．In 2023.
64．Put the events into the correct order according to SunYingsha’s story
a. SunYingsha joined the national team.
b. SunYingsha started to train table tennis.
c. SunYingsha became world No.1.
d. SunYingsha achieved silver in women’s singles and gold in team events.
A．b-c-a-d. B．b-d-a-c. C．b-a-d-c. D．b-a-c-d.
65．What does the word “legends” mean
A．Coaches. B．Masters. C．Reporters. D．Opponents.
66．What is Sun Yingsha like according to Paragraph 4
A．Talented. B．Hardworking. C．Ambitious. D．Socially responsible.
67．In which part of a magazine can we probably read the passage
A．Sports. B．Art. C．Health. D．Education.
D
A lot of people take up dancing as a hobby in their free time. In fact, many people have found that dancing can make them feel better both physically and mentally. Why is dancing so helpful
When we dance, we move our bodies to different kinds of music. This movement helps our bodies produce more endorphins, a chemical that makes us feel relaxed and happy. It’s like our body’s own “feel-good” medicine.
Dancing is a mix of music and sports. While simply listening to music or doing sports can cheer us up, mixing them together gives better results. In a study, a group of German scientists carefully chose a number of patients with different levels of depression (沮丧). They tested these patients under three conditions: a group dancing with music, a group just listening to music, and a group riding bikes without music. The results showed that the first group was the least depressed.
Dancing can bring people together, too. Tango, Latin dance or other social dancing requires us to move with others, which can improve our sense of social connection, according to IBSA, a Swiss scientific foundation.
Studies have found that depression often has to do with sadness about the past or worry about the future. However, dancing helps you focus on the present, connect with your body and free your mind for a while. In this way, it helps us forget bad feelings.
Lauren Helper, a social worker in the US, said that dancing can be any form. You can dance at home when you listen to your favorite song, or you can go out and dance with friends. The most important thing is to have fun no matter who you are. Dancing is a wonderful way to boost your feelings and live a happier life.
68．How does the writer support his opinion in Paragraph 3
A．By introducing the history of dancing.
B．By giving examples of different dance styles.
C．By presenting the results of a scientific study.
D．By comparing different types of music used in dancing.
69．What does the underlined word “boost” in the last paragraph mean
A．Improve. B．Lower. C．Change. D．Show.
70．Which would be the best structure of the passage
A． B． C． D．
71．What is the main purpose of the passage
A．To introduce different types of dances.
B．To encourage people to join dance classes.
C．To explain why dancing makes people feel better.
D．To share the results of a scientific study on dancing.
72．Which of the following is Lauren Helper’s opinion
A．People dancing at home can get the best results.
B．Only professional dancers can enjoy the benefits of dancing.
C．Dancing can’t help people who have serious mental problems.
D．Dancing in any form can be a good way to make people feel better.
B)阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后根据短文内容从下面七个选项中选择五个还原到文中，使短文内容通顺、结构完整。一空一句。
There are many colors in nature. 73 I think you’ll say “no”. But I am afraid you are wrong. If you don’t believe it, you may do a small test.
74 Then, cover one box with a red piece of paper, the other with a white piece of paper. Now hold the boxes with your hands one by one. It is certain that you’ll think the red one is a little heavier.
Why do you think so 75 So he did many tests and at last he got the result. That is to say, every color has its own weight in our mind.
The scientists told us that colors also have smell. Can you smell colors Of course not. Then why did the scientists say so 76 It reaches our brain through sense organs (器官). According to this research, scientists said that people accept the colors they like, and refuse the colors they hate. So your body and mind will be healthy by using the colors you like. Or you’ll be nervous or even get ill. For example, you like blue and hate red. If you stay in a room with red windows, wallpaper, tables and chairs for two hours, you’ll feel you have been there for four hours. But if the room is blue, you’ll feel you have been there for only an hour. And, if a person walks out of a blue room and into a red room, his body temperature will rise. 77
A．But do you believe that a color has weight
B．People are also interested in the sounds of colors.
C．Colors are always the same at any time and any place.
D．First, put two objects with the same weight into two boxes.
E．That means our body temperature will change with different colors.
F．A scientist found that different colors have different weight in a man’s mind.
G．That is because every color stands for a kind of light with a certain wavelength (波长).
五、补全对话。（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
选择恰当的句子补全对话，选项中有两项是多余的。
(Liu Ying is going to return to China, so he comes to say goodbye to his friend Hanson. L-Liu Ying H-Hanson)
L: Hello, Hanson. Today I come to say goodbye to you, for I’m going back to China tomorrow
H: No, not so soon. Couldn’t I got you to stay a couple of days more
L: Much as I wish to, but I really can’t. 78
H: I hope this won’t be our last meeting
L: 79 You can come to China to visit me in future. And I also will come here if I have a chance.
H: I will miss you.
L: I will miss you, too. 80
H: It’s a pity that I’m too busy to see you off tomorrow.
L: 81
H: Take care of yourself and remember to keep in touch.
L: I will.
H: Goodbye and have a good flight.
L: 82 Goodbye!
A．Thank you.
B．Maybe it is.
C．It doesn’t matter.
D．The same to you.
E．Don’t worry about that.
F．You’re really a good friend.
G．I’ve already booked the flight.
六、书面表达。（共15分）
我国义务教育阶段实施“双减”政策以来，中小学开设了各式各样的课后活动。请你根据下面提示，写一篇英语短文，介绍你校的课后活动情况，谈谈你的感受，并提出建议。
写作要点：
1. What kind of after-school activities does your school have
2. What’s your feeling about the after-school activities
3. Your advice on the after-school activities.
要求：
1.短文应包括所有的写作要点，条理清楚，行文连贯，可适当发挥；
2.短文中不能出现真实的人名、校名、地名等信息；
3.词数80-120，短文开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Since the “Double-Reduction” Policy was carried out, our school has offered all kinds of after-school activities.
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
参考答案
听力。（共20分）
B 2．A 3．B 4．A 5．C 6．C 7．B 8．C 9．B 10．A 11．B 12．B 13．C 14．A 15．A
16．amazing 17．special plants 18．by boat 19．take pictures 20．9683507
二、单项选择。（本题共8小题，每小题1分，共8分）
21．A 22．C 23．D 24．B 25．A 26．A 27．D 28．D
三、完形填空。（本题共26小题，每小题1分，共26分）
29．B 30．B 31．A 32．B 33．C 34．B 35．A 36．D 37．A 38．C 39．A 40．A 41．B 42．D 43．C
44．becoming 45．help 46．Many 47．but 48．proud 49．said 50．how 51．make 52．world 53．happily 54．their
四、阅读理解。（本题共23小题，每小题2分，共46分）
55．C 56．A 57．B
58．C 59．A 60．A 61．D 62．B
63．A 64．C 65．B 66．D 67．A
68．C 69．A 70．B 71．C 72．D
73．A 74．D 75．F 76．G 77．E
五、补全对话。（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
78．G 79．E 80．F 81．C 82．A
六、书面表达。（共15分）
Since the “Double-Reduction” Policy was carried out, our school has offered all kinds of after-school activities. There are sports clubs like the basketball club. Besides, English speech and science experiment groups are very popular among students.
These after-school activities help us relax and keep healthy. Among them, my favorite is the basketball club. It makes me stronger and traches me how to work with my teammates.
I also have some suggestions. First, it would be better if we could have some outdoor activities, like hiking or cycling. Second, the school can organize more competitions or shows. I hope these ideas can make our after-school activities more interesting and meaningful.2026中考江西第一次模拟考试英语综合测试卷
答题卡
第Ⅰ卷(请用2B铅笔填涂)
1.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 2.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 3.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 4.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 5.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 6.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 7.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 8.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 9.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 10.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 11.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 12.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 13.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 14.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 15.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 21.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 22.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 23.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 24.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 25.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
26.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 27.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 28.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 29.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 30.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 31.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 32.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 33.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 34.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 35.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 36.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 37.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 38.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 39.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 40.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 41.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 42.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 43.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
55.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 56.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 57.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 58.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 59.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 60.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 61.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 62.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 63.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 64.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 65.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 66.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 67.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 68.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 69.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 70.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 71.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 72.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
73.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ][ F ][ G ] 74.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ][ F ][ G ] 75.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ][ F ][ G ] 76.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ][ F ][ G ] 77.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ][ F ][ G ] 78.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ] 79.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ] 80.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ] 81.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ] 82.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ]
一、听力理解（本大题共20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
D）16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
三、完形填空（本大题共26小题，每小题1分，共26分）
B）44. 45. 46. 47. 48.
49. 50. 51. 52. 53.
54.
六、书面表达（15分）

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