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新疆2026年普通高考三月适应性检测英语试题
(卷面分值：150分 考试时间：120分钟)
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡的相应位置上。
2.作答时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the weather like
A. Cloudy. B. Sunny. C. Windy.
2. Where is the bank
A. Behind the bookstore. B. Next to the bookstore. C. Far from the bookstore.
3. How did the woman find the gift
A. Very satisfying. B. Very disappointing. C. Not mentioned.
4. Where are the speakers
A. In a shop. B. In a cinema. C. In a museum.
5. What will the man do tomorrow morning
A. Have classes. B. Book a ticket. C. Go to the airport.
第二节(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is the man planning to do in China
A. Study as an exchange student.
B. Work for a host family.
C. Travel as a tourist.
7. What is the advantage of staying with a host family
A. Cheaper cost. B. More privacy. C. Better language practice.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What is the starting price for air transportation
A.15 yuan. B.25 yuan. C.35 yuan.
9. What can we learn about the package
A. It is quite light. B. It is extremely urgent. C. It only contains books.
10. Which shipping method does the man finally choose
A. Express delivery. B. Air transportation. C. Land transportation.
听第8段材料，回答第11至 13题。
11. What are the speakers talking about
A. Cooking healthy food.
B. Planning outdoor activities.
C. Changing daily habits for health.
12. What is the first thing the man does for a healthier life
A. He starts eating more vegetables.
B. He keeps a strict sleep schedule.
C. He does outdoor exercises.
13. What benefit does the man get from his new lifestyle
A. He has made a lot of friends.
B. He feels stronger and healthier.
C. He has found an interesting job.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14. What did the robot do when people got to the entrance
A. It sold tickets. B. It told stories. C. It talked to the visitors.
15. Which section was the man interested in
A. The space section. B. The science section. C. The information section.
16. How long did the man's class stay in the museum
A. Two hours. B. Three hours. C. Four hours.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Where did the speaker and her group have their water-skiing training
A. In a swimming pool. B. On the beach. C. In a gym.
18. How did the speaker feel when the instructor asked her to go first
A. Surprised and nervous. B. Excited and confident. C. Proud and prepared.
19. On which attempt did the speaker finally succeed in water-skiing
A. The first attempt. B. The second attempt. C. The third attempt.
20. How did the speaker feel about the water-skiing experience on that day
A. She felt it interesting and truly enjoyed it.
B. She found it tiring and decided not to try again.
C. She thought it disappointing after trying again and again.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
The Best Travelling Places in 2026
National Geographic's annual Best of the World feature enjoys worldwide recognition. Here are some of its selected must-visit destinations for 2026.
Beijing, China
Beijing in 2026 offers travelers fresh ways to explore its rich ancient cultural charm as a capital.The Beijing Central Axis (中轴线) is a recent addition to UNESCO's World Heritage List. At theMing Tombs, all 13 complexes are gradually opening, including Emperor Chongzhen's tomb. TheGreat Wall has emerged as the new star of Beijing's nighttime economy. Visa-free entry is available for travelers from 47 countries for 30 days. Foreign credit cards are accepted on the subway, and apps offer English services for smoother exploration.
The Dolomites, Italy
All eyes will be on Italy for the 2026 Winter Olympics and Paralympics. Most events will be held in the Dolomites, which are known for their sculpture-shaped mountains—— giant rocks, serrated(锯齿状的) mountain ridges, and sharp peaks. The legendary Alpine range sights from the lifts are breathtaking. Medieval villages and Ladin communities have preserved ancient customs for centuries. At award-winning restaurants, each dish combines innovation with local flavors.
Khiva, Uzbekistan
Khiva, an open-air-museum city with various festivals and events, gains popularity in 2026 with new high-speed trains from Tashkent, saving half the travel time. Visitors can explore the UNESCOWorld Heritage Itchan Kala, featuring restored geometric monuments and wooden palaces. The SilkRoad-themed Arda Khiva Resort appeals to families with attractions for all ages, from a lively water park to a theater providing live shows.
Rabat, Morocco
Rabat combines ancient history with modern style. New additions include the neo-futuristicRoyal Theater, inspired by the Bou Regreg River and the Morocco's tallest rocket-shaped Tower.Don't miss the flagship Museum of Modern and Contemporary Art, where works are deeply rooted in modern Moroccan and African art. Book lovers will also find pleasure here, as UNESCO has namedRabat the 2026 World Book Capital.
These spots selected by editors, photographers, and adventurers for the perfect combination of historical depth and contemporary charm will inspire your next journey.
21. What is the Dolomites famous for
A. The characteristic local restaurants. B. The splendid and distinctive landscape.
C. The advanced venues for sports events. D. The beautiful views from the mountain lift.
22. Which scenic spot is the most attractive for family tourists
A. Itchan Kala. B. Royal Theater.
C. Museum of Modern and Contemporary Art. D. Arda Khiva Resort.
23. What do the four destinations have in common
A. They mix tradition and modernity. B. They belong to less visited spots.
C. They own convenient transportation. D. They have unique natural scenery.
B
American musician Mark Levine's journey with China began 21 years ago as an English teacher. Levine didn't realize at the time that he would soon come to fall in love with the country.What started as a career-oriented move turned into a profound personal connection, leading him to call China his long-term home.
Levine found his unique voice by documenting his experiences through music. To date, he has composed over 80 songs inspired by China, with themes ranging from the lives of migrant workers to the country's vast natural landscapes. His musical partnership with Chinese artist Fu Han in their duo (二重唱)“In Side Out” symbolizes the interweaving of Eastern and Western cultures, much like the two sides of a single piece of clothing.
Living through China's rapid development provided Levine with firsthand material. Observing the shared sense of responsibility among Chinese people, he was inspired to write the song“Together we must take a stand”, capturing the spirit of unity he witnessed. He has described feeling safer inChina than anywhere else.
Believing that many international perceptions of China are incomplete or inaccurate, Levine took to writing. His 2014 book, Stories from My Chinese Journey, offers a ground-level view of daily life and culture. He often builds his narratives from real conversations, aiming to let China speak for itself. This effort to bridge the understanding gap, presenting a China defined by the friendliness of its people and the energy of its progress, was recognized with the distinguished Chinese GovernmentFriendship Award in 2014.
Having traveled to 29 provinces, Levine is most struck by the warmth and diversity of the people. When asked about his future, his answer is heartfelt and definitive: China is his home.Through teaching, music, and writing, he continues to build cultural bridges, sharing the stories of the country he has grown to love.
24. How did Mark Levine's relationship with China change over time
A. It evolved into a deep emotional bond. B. It fully met his initial expectations.
C. It ended after he finished teaching. D. It remained strictly professional.
25. Why does the author use the comparison“like the two sides of a single piece of clothing” when describing the duo
A. To argue for the superiority of one culture over the other.
B. To contrast the distinct characteristics of the two cultures.
C. To highlight the challenges of cross-cultural communication.
D. To visualize the inseparable unity formed by the cultural integration.
26. What is the main reason for Levine's receiving the Chinese Government Friendship Award
A. His popular music about China.
B. His long-term English teaching.
C. His work promoting a truer image of China.
D. His reporting on the daily lives of Chinese people.
27. Which of the following best describes Levine's role as described in the text
A. A journalist reporting on China's social issues.
B. A historian documenting China's ancient wonders.
C. An English teacher who occasionally writes songs.
D. A cross-cultural communicator through music and writing.
C
Sea urchins (海胆) are a valued global dish—— served fresh across Asia, crafted into pasta sauces in Italy, and enjoyed in high-end restaurants worldwide. Yet in Australia, an overabundance of long-spined (长刺) sea urchins is destroying marine ecosystems with little public awareness of their food-related potential.
The long-spined sea urchin ——a native species expanding southward due to warming waters—— has overeaten the vast stretches of the Great Southern Reef, reducing once thriving seaweed forests to lifeless wasteland. Now, affected areas extend across 2000 km of coastline with 20million urchins dominating Tasmania's reefs alone.“Without intervention, the wasteland will threaten marine industries, biodiversity, and the resilience (韧性) of the Great Southern Reef. The long-spined urchins are representative for climate change impacts, and we need urgent cooperation across industry, politics, science, and policy.” says Maria Byrne, one of Australia's leading urchin experts.
Fortunately, the long-spined is also an unused delicious food in Australia. Leading chefs are now embracing urchins in their kitchens. Athen a Ko, CEO of The Roe Australia, demonstrates how flavourful urchins can be in fine dining.“With the right preparation, they can stand alongside the world's best seafood.” says Ko. Globally, demand runs high.“Pacific coastal communities have eaten urchins since the eighth century,” notes Makoto Shimizu of Akita Sanriku Factory, callingAustralia's urchins resource incredible but ignored.
Currently, divers can harvest a ton within two hours, but the processing and profitability bottlenecks remain. Financial support and facility development are critical. To restore balance to the reef, the Centro Task Force has developed a $55 million national plan backed by a Federal SenateInquiry, combining commercial harvesting, ecological management and scientific research. The documentary White Rock and activities like the Ocean Lovers Talk all aim to raise public awareness.Experts stress the ecosystem can recover quickly, turning this crisis into a win-win for Australia, if the government acts urgently.
28. What is the second paragraph mainly about
A. The reasons behind the sea urchin population explosion.
B. The specific areas most affected by sea urchins.
C. The potential for sea urchins as a global dish.
D. The ecological threat and the call for action.
29. Which brst describes the current situation of the long- spined sea urchin in- Australia
A. It is a rare species that needs immediate protection.
B. It is a promising but underdeveloped food resource.
C. It is already a top-selling seafood in global markets.
D.. It is a traditional food with limited modern appeal.
30 Why is expanding sea urchin harvesting a challenge in Australia
A. Local communities oppose commercial harvesting.
B. Global demand for sea urchins is declining.
C. Processing difficulties affect profitability.
D. Government policies restrict harvesting.
31. What is the best title for the text
A. Climate Change and Australia's Dying Reefs
B. The Great Southern Reefs Uncertain Future
C. Sea Urchins: The Silent Threat of Sea Ecology
D. Eat an Ecological Problem: Consuming Sea Urchins Helps
D
Personalized recommendation algorithms(算法) analyze data to tailor content for each user.Existing research focuses on their influence regarding familiar topics, such as politics or social issues. However, a study by Giwon Bahg at The Ohio State University found that when algorithms selected information for a learning task, participants with no prior knowledge on the topic tended to focus on only a small portion of the material. They often answered test questions incorrectly but expressed high confidence. Thus, the research shows personalized recommendation algorithms may prevent people's learning.
Co-author Brandon Turner noted that people tended to draw broad, unfounded conclusions from the limited information provided by algorithms. This research reveals that algorithms can build prejudices immediately even when learners know nothing about a topic, leading to a distorted view of reality.“People miss key information when they follow an algorithm, yet they mistakenly believe what they know applies to other features and environments they' ve never encountered,” Turner said.
An example illustrates how recommendation algorithms can be biased (有偏见的). A viewer new to a country's films may choose an action-thriller from the streaming service's top list. The algorithm then promotes more of the same type, making the viewer overlook strong films in other categories and form inaccurate, overly broad assumptions about the country's culture or society.
To avoid the effect of prior knowledge, Bahg's team tested 346 online participants with a fictional task: learning to identify crystal-like aliens, each with six distinct features. For instance, a square component could be dark black or pale gray. Participants either viewed all features or were guided by an algorithm that led them to repeat the same features. The algorithm group viewed fewer features selectively, frequently sorted new aliens incorrectly, and were even more confident when wrong than when correct.
These findings carry real-world significance. Turner questioned,“What will happen to young kids who are genuinely trying to learn about the world through online platforms where algorithms prioritize content consumption over comprehensive learning ” Consuming similar content conflicts with effective learning, posing problems for both users and society.
32. How is the new research different from existing ones on personalized algorithms
A. It highlights the confidence- accuracy gap among users.
B. It examines their effect on learning unfamiliar topics.
C. It studies the technical design of the algorithms.
D. It focuses on information selecting process.
33. What does the underlined word“ distorted” in Paragraph 2 mean
A. Incomplete. B. oversimplified. C. Misleading. D. Impractical.
34. How did the researchers conduct the experiment to prove the algorithm's impact
A. They compared the results of participants with and without prior knowledge.
B. They used a fictional learning task to separate the effect of algorithms.
C. They asked participants to choose their preferred content freely.
D. They analyzed practical data from streaming platforms.
35. What is Professor Turner's main concern expressed in his question
A. The negative impact of algorithms on children's worldview.
B. Online platform's capacity for constant content renewal.
O Children's growing dependence on digital learning.
D. Measures needed to reduce children's screen time.
第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填人空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Are Metrics(指标) the Best Ways to Measure Your Fitness
We count steps, track miles, and close our rings. Fitness metrics are everywhere, from online videos to wearable devices. Our devices constantly remind us if we miss our daily goals. Are these numbers really telling the whole story 36 Merely being able to do 20 pull- ups or run a 10-
minute mile does not definitively indicate good fitness.
Pull- ups can be a great indicator of an overall healthy balance of muscle tissue to body fat. To build muscle tissue, men are expected to do 10 pull- ups in a row and women to aim for 4. While the number of pull- ups one can do is often seen as a gold standard of upper- body power, some argue it favors specific technique. 37
The mile run, a common military fitness test, is a good, basic measure for somebody's aerobic(有氧的) capacity. 38 A 100- meter dash is too short to test aerobic capacity, and a marathon is a measure of endurance. Most people can run a mile in 7 to 10 minutes, which is a good range forVO max. A higher VO max corresponds to greater aerobic athletic potential and a reduced risk of cardiovascular (心血管的) issues such as heart disease or stroke. That said, as a single metric,the mile run cannot capture the full scope of health.
Experts agree that fitness metrics can be motivating. 39 This includes maintaining consistent movement, balancing aerobic and strength training, and staying mobile enough for daily activities.
40 The World Health Organization recommends at least 150 minutes of moderate aerobic activity each week, plus two strength- training sessions to help preserve endurance, muscle mass,and bone density.
A. The mile is also the ideal distance for such a test.
B. So how often should you train to maintain or improve these goals
C. Therefore, many people now set even higher targets to push themselves further.
D. Actually, these measurable targets may not fully capture what true fitness means.
E. This suggests it is actually a skill- based assessment rather than a measure of fitness.
F. To ensure continuous improvement, consistently exceeding minimum standards is key.
G. However, they emphasize that long- term health depends more on progress than on perfection.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A few years ago, my friend and I took a course in New York. After several busy days, we were ready to head home. We tried to get a cab but found none 41 during rush hour. 42 , my friend had the number of the truck company that'd picked us up from the airport, so we 43 them. Over an hour later, the truck finally arrived and took us to the 44 .
We got to the ticket counter with little time left, only to discover the airline couldn't find my
flight reservation. We worked with the attendant and 45 the issue 15 minutes before take-off.We 46 through security toward our gate, relieved to find our flight had been delayed half an hour. Unfortunately, the delay was 47 by another hour due to bad weather.
Tired as we were, we 48 to end our trip negatively. Instead, we made the most of the wait: we sat on the floor chatting about our trip, and a nearby gentleman joined in, 49 his struggles. As women of strong faith, we 50 him and gave him hope.
When 51 stretched into the night, airline staff brought out snacks. We helped serve passengers—— 52 drinks and sharing stories with tired travelers—— and watched frowns turn to 53 . An attendant thanked us for 54 , asked for our boarding passes, and told us we'd been upgraded to First Class！ We boarded the plane with a new perspective on how big an impact our 55 can truly make.
41. A. comfortable B. available C. suitable D. flexible
42. A. Unexpectedly B. Surprisingly C. Eventually D. Luckily
43. A. called B. emailed C. invited D. announced
44. A. company B. hotel C. airport D. station
45. A. raised B. considered C. resolved D. confirmed
46. A. paced B rushed C. jogged D. slipped
47. A. extended B. reduced C. expected D. avoided
48. A. chose B. decided C. refused D. tended
49. A. hiding B. exchanging C. admitting D. sharing
50. A. persuaded B. encouraged C. helped D. challenged
51. A. assignments B. breaks C. discussions D. delays
52. A. pouring B. making C. selling D. promoting
53. A. smiles B. sighs C. whispers D. yawns
54. A. blessing B. greeting C. guiding D. helping
55. A. experience B. fortune C. attitude D. preference
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Many people choose to volunteer in order to search for meaningful activities and make positive contributions, but the benefits gained from volunteering 56 (be) also significant.
Research increasingly regards volunteering as a healthy activity for older adults. Volunteering can offer both physical and 57 (emotion) health benefits. For older adults, engaging 58 volunteer work is not just about helping others, but a potential way 59 (increase) opportunities
for participation in their communities. Innovative programs, such as timebanking initiatives inChina,\ 60 (successful) involve older adults by offering them roles. In the roles they can improve their capacities, enhance care skills, build 61/1 sense of belonging and gain recognition for their contributions.
For young people, volunteering can be a powerful catalyst (催化剂) for personal development.A study of the“Ride for Love” program in China,\ 62 college students cycled to rural villages to teach, found that the experience led to personality changes and also promoted the 63 (improve) of social skills. Young volunteers adapted their perspectives and grew through interactions while helping children with 64 (limit) resources. Research agrees that good volunteer experiences are the key to 65 (encourage) youth to keep serving in the long run.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
假定你是李华，你校英语报社开展“AI in Modern Life”主题留言板活动，要求辩证阐述对人工智能的看法。请给报社编辑写一封邮件，内容包括：
1.你的看法；
2.你的理由。
注意：1.写作词数应为80个左右；
2.可适当增加细节，使行文连贯。
Dear editor, Yours sincerely,Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Brenda first noticed the old camper van (露营车) on Saturday evening outside her house. The next morning, it was still there—— covered in mud, with a broken mirror. For Brenda, who liked everything perfect, this was unacceptable.
Brenda knocked on a van door, and a smiling sixty-year-old woman named Maud answered,inviting her in for tea. Brenda refused firmly. Maud explained she was staying for the folk festival,
and when Maud asked to use her facilities, she said no sharply, warning Maud to leave in ten minutes or she would call the authorities. Maud's smile faded; she said it was a public road,claimed she meant no bother, and shut the door.
Brenda couldn't concentrate. Every time she looked at the van, she felt a strange mix of anger and curiosity. Since her husband John had died, it had all seemed so important to keep things the way he would have liked, the way they had always been. But in the end, it was just a house, just bricks and mortar(灰浆). That Maud was a similar age to herself, yet she seemed perfectly content sleeping in that old van and travelling to folk festivals on her own! Perhaps she had been too unkind. When Brenda awoke later, the van was gone. With it went her chance to apologize, to askMaud what it felt like to be so free.
That evening, Brenda stood in her perfect living room, looking at Jill's wedding photo. Her daughter was in Canada for six years. Three beautiful grandchildren she barely saw, Jamie only four, met just once. There were plenty of photos, of course, and video calls, but it wasn't the same as a hug. She had been waiting for them to visit, always finding reasons not to travel. Her neat house, her perfect garden—— what was it all for
Maud had shown her something important life wasn't meant to be lived behind perfectly arranged curtains. At sixty-something, Maud traveled to festivals, met new people, woke up somewhere different each week. Brenda had spent years polishing a house that no one visited,tending a garden that no one shared.
注意：1.续写词数应为150个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
The next morning, Brenda made a decision that would have shocked her old self. Three weeks later, Brenda stepped off the plane into the Canadian winter.
英语参考答案
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
1-5 ABABC
第二节(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
6-10 ACBCC 11-15 CABCB 16-20 BBACA
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
21-23 BDA 24-27 ADCD 28-31 DBCD 32-35 BCBA
第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
36-40 DEAGB
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
41-45 BDACC 46-50 BACDB 51-55 DAADC
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
56. are 57. emotional 58. in 59. to increase 60. successfully
61. a 62. where 63. improvement 64. limited 65. encouraging
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
One possible version:
Dear editor,
I'm delighted to contribute my views on AI in Modern Life. From my perspective, AI has both positive and negative impacts on modern life.
On one hand, AI greatly facilitates our daily life and study. Intelligent translation tools remove language barriers, and educational AI resources provide personalized guidance, making our learning more efficient. On the other hand, over-reliance on AI is likely to make us mentally lazy, which weakens our independent thinking ability.
Therefore, we should take advantage of its benefits while avoiding its drawbacks.
Thank you for considering my views. Looking forward to your reply.
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
One possible version:
Paragraph 1:
The next morning, Brenda made a decision that would have shocked her old self. After a moment of hesitation, she picked up the phone and dialed Jill's number.“I'm going to see you, love,” she said, her voice trembling slightly. Jill's excited scream over the phone made Brenda's eyes wet. She hung up and immediately booked her flight online. As she filled in the details, she felt a mix of excitement and nervousness. This was the first step towards a new beginning.
Paragraph 2:
Three weeks later, Brenda stepped off the plane into the Canadian winter. The cold air hit her face, but she barely noticed. Jill was standing at the gate, holding Jamie in her arms, with the other two children beside her. As Brenda approached, tears filled her eyes. She hugged Jamie tightly,feeling the warmth of his small body. Jill expressed how glad she was that Brenda had come. Brenda looked around at her family, realizing that this was where she truly belonged. She had spent years perfecting her home, but now she was ready to perfect her relationships.
写作评分标准
第一节 应用文写作
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为15分，按五个档次进行评分。
2.评分时，从以下四个方面考虑：
(1)内容：内容要点的合理性；是否完整、有逻辑，表达的清楚程度；
(2)词汇语法：所使用语言的准确性、恰当性和多样性(语言为交际服务，不可一味使用所谓“高级”语言)；
(3)篇章结构：上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性；
(4)写作规范：
①词数少于60和多于100的，扣2分；
②拼写和标点符号是写作规范的一个方面，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑，英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受；
③如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
3.评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档(13~15分)：完全达到了预期的写作目的。
●覆盖所有内容要点，表达清楚、合理；
●词汇和语法结构多样、准确、恰当；
●语言有个别错误，但为尽力使词汇和语法结构多样所致，完全不影响理解；
●有效地使用了语句间的连接手段，结构紧凑，意义连贯。
第四档(10~12分)：达到了预期的写作目的。
●覆盖所有内容要点，表达比较清楚、合理；
●词汇和语法结构比较多样，且准确、恰当；
●少数语言错误主要是因尝试词汇和语法结构多样化所致，不影响理解；
●有效地使用了语句间的连接手段，全文结构比较紧凑，意义比较连贯。
第三档(7~9分)：整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
●覆盖主要内容要点，少数内容表达不太清楚、合理；
●词汇和语法结构能满足要求；
●有一些语言方面的错误，不影响理解；
●应用简单的语句间连接手段，结构基本紧凑，意义基本连贯。
第二档(4~6分)：未能达到预期的写作目的。
●漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容；
●词汇知识有限，语法结构单调；
●语言错误较多，影响对写作内容的理解；
●较少使用语句间的连接成分，结构不够紧凑，意义不够连贯。
第一档(1~3分)：完全未达到预期的写作目的。
●遗漏大部分内容，写了很多无关内容；
●语法结构单调，词汇知识有限；
●语言错误很多，影响对写作内容的理解；
●缺乏语句间的连接成分，结构不紧凑，意义不连贯。
0分 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
第二节 读后续写
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为25分，按五个档次进行评分。
2.评分时，从以下四个方面考虑：
(1)内容：内容的丰富性、故事发展的合理性、续写的完整性及与原文语境的融合程度；
(2)词汇语法：使用语言的多样性、准确性和恰当性(语言为交际服务，不可一味使用所谓“高级”语言，要与原文语言特点保持一致)；
(3)篇章结构：上下文的衔接(包括续写段落之间的衔接)和全文的连贯性；
(4)写作规范：
①词数少于130的，扣2分；
②拼写和标点符号是写作规范的一个方面，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑，英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受；
③如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次；
3.评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档(21~25分)：完全达到了预期的写作目的。
●与所给短文融合度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理；
●内容丰富，故事发展合理，逻辑性强，续写完整，符合写作目的与情境；
●所使用语法结构和词汇多样、准确和恰当，可能有个别错误，但完全不影响意义表达；
●有效地使用了语句间的连接手段，结构清晰，意义连贯。
第四档(16~20分)：达到了预期的写作目的。
●与所给短文融合度较高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理；
●内容比较丰富，故事发展比较合理，有逻辑性，续写比较完整，比较符合写作目的与情境；
●所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达；
●比较有效地使用了语句间的连接手段，结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档(11~15分)：整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
●与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；
●写出了若干有关内容，故事发展有合理之处，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，基本符合写作目的与情境；
●应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义的表达；
●应用简单的语句间的连接手段，结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档(6~10分)：未能达到预期的写作目的。
●与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；
●写出了一些有关内容，故事发展不太合理，逻辑性差，不太符合写作目的与情境；
●语法结构单调，词汇项目有限，错误较多，影响了意义的表达；
●较少使用语句间的连接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第一档(1~5分)：完全未达到预期的写作目的。
●与所给短文和开头语的衔接较差；
●产出无关内容太多，故事发展不合理，不合逻辑，续写不完整，不符合写作目的与情境；
●语法结构单调，词汇项目很有限，错误很多，严重影响了意义的表达；
●缺乏语句间的连接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
0分 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。

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