2025-2026学年云南省红河县第一中学高二下学期开学英语试卷(含答案,无听力音频无听力原文)

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2025-2026学年云南省红河县第一中学高二下学期开学英语试卷(含答案,无听力音频无听力原文)

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2025-2026学年云南省红河县第一中学高二下学期开学英语试卷
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1.
Why did the woman arrive late
A She overslept.
B. The traffic was heavy.
C. There was a fault in the subway system.
2.
What will Thomas probably do next
A. Go job-hunting online.
B. Attend a job fair.
C. Call some firms.
3.
What does the man suggest the woman do
A. Replace the wooden floors.
B. Cover the floors with carpets.
C. Find a cleaner to help with the floors.
4.
Where will the man go next
A. His office.
B. A school.
C. A hospital.
5.
What are the speakers talking about
A. A living place.
B An office location.
C. Means of transportation.
第二节 (共 15 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 22.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。
6. What has Tom done
A. He has finished a project.
B. He has received a certification.
C. He has checked out some courses.
7. What does Amy think of the online platform
A. Reliable.
B. Inconvenient.
C. Economical.
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。
8. Who does the man give a good comment on
A. The goalkeeper.
B. The referee.
C. The opponents.
9. What was the result of the match
A. It ended in a tie.
B. The opposing team lost.
C. The opposing team won.
10. What is the woman’s attitude toward her team’s future
A. Uncertain.
B. Optimistic.
C. Negative.
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。
11. What does the woman say about some of the teaching rooms
A. They have big windows.
B. They are newly painted.
C. They need to be improved.
12. Which place is hard to get access to
A. The lab.
B. The gym.
C. The tennis court.
13. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Colleagues.
B. Schoolmates.
C. Teacher and student.
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。
14. What made Tamsin fall in love with music
A. Her parents' encouragement.
B. Her early interest in music.
C. Her teacher's guidance.
15. How did Tamsin feel before the competition
A. Nervous.
B. Calm.
C. Confident.
16. What do we know about the competition
A. It was for music teachers.
B. It had a history of 18 years.
C. It had only one winner.
17. What is Tamsin now
A. A composer. B. A student. C. A hostess.
听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。
18. What is the speaker doing
A. Making arrangements for a celebration.
B. Promoting several competitions.
C. Asking for sponsorship.
19. Why will the beach be closed on Saturday
A. To obey the council’s safety regulations.
B. To ensure the team can clean the beach thoroughly.
C. To preserve the cleaned beach for Sunday’s events.
20. How many people applied for the competitions last year
A. 263. B. 203. C. 70.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15个小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Want to know all the ins-and-outs regarding the Paris 2024 Olympics Then you’ve come to the right place! Below you will find all the information about the new Olympic sports.
Olympic skateboarding
Who will follow in the footsteps of Momiji Nishiya, the first Olympic skateboarding champion, who was crowned at the last Games at the age of 13 The answer will be revealed in Paris this summer. Speed, technique, mastery of the board will be required to successfully perform the most beautiful tricks.
Olympic sports climbing
With its second time entering the Olympics, sports climbing has three branches: Speed, Bouldering (抱石攀岩) and Lead. Speed is all about the speed of climbing. Bouldering is all about climbing a boulder on a wall and Lead requires athletes to climb a difficult route 20 meters high.
Olympic surfing
The Olympics will be held in Paris, but what about Olympic surfing There is one venue (场地) that is literally on the other side of the world. The location Teahupoo, on the island of Tahiti, is where Olympic surfing will take place. This island is part of French Polynesia, between Australia and South America.
Olympic breakdancing
Breakdancing is the new Olympic sport that will make its first appearance in Paris 2024. How to establish a grading system without taking away the artistic freedom at the same time The points should be based on creativity and musicality, a gray area that depends a lot on feeling and thus has a lot of subjectivity to it.
Looking for a handy list of all sports Click here! Throughout Paris there are all kinds of stadiums and arenas (竞技场) where sporting events are held. Not only Paris itself but also the surrounding suburbs of the capital of France set the stage for the Olympic Games!
21. Which sport is entering the Olympics for the first time in Paris 2024
A. Olympic skateboarding. B. Olympic sports climbing.
C. Olympic surfing. D. Olympic breakdancing.
22. Which of the following statements is correct
A. Olympic skateboarding requires a high level of physical strength.
B. Three branches of Olympic sports climbing evaluate various sides of skills.
C. All the above four Olympic events will be held in Paris.
D. The scoring of Olympic breakdancing is highly objective.
23. Where is the text probably taken from
A. A sports website. B. A health magazine.
C. A travel brochure. D. An Olympic news report.
B
When Barbara Earth was four, she injured herself in the basement of the family home. Imprinted on her memory, along with the hunt, is the understanding that she had to scream really loudly “because my mother wouldn’t hear”.
In a sense, Earth has prepared all her life for her own possible future deafness. She was 27 when a screening identified hearing loss, but the loss was gradual, so “it’s not easy to define when I stopped being able to hear.” Her work and travels have taken her to 33 countries. She did a doctorate in Tanzania in her 40s. In her 50s, she taught at a college in Thailand, but hearing students’ questions had become “impossible”. Life, was “an increasing struggle”.
Earth decided that if she were to spare herself the loneliness and pain, she needed to act. So she moved to Hawaii to learn American Sign Language (ASL) and now she has reached “a functional level”. The language is “very hard”. “There is a huge difference in the sign language of someone who is born deaf. I don’t have those connections from my brain to my hands and eyes,” she says. Finger-spelling is difficult. “The hand movements are so subtle. I often can’t catch it,” she says.
Along with learning a new language, Earth has spent the past decade placing herself in a community. After the ASL, course, she became a graduate student at Gallaudet university, which has a bilingual (双语的) approach to learning, then worked on a history of deaf people in Hawaii. One deaf woman Earth visited in the nursing home “cried because no one signed there”. Earth realized: “I need to be around other deaf people.”
Last year, Earth decided to start “a new life”. “My colleagues are all deaf and ASL is used for everything,” she says. “It’s like a second life. I learn more, I sign more. It’s progress.” Not having grown up with sign-language means it’s very easy to feel like an outsider.” But not here,” she says, “Everyone’s different, and they value diversity.”
24. How did Earth respond to her future deafness
A. She identified it as an unintentional mistake.
B. She claimed the condition would not progress.
C. She resigned herself to the awkwardness of life.
D. She braved challenges and jumped into adventures.
25. What does the underlined word “subtle” in paragraph 3 mean
A. Small but important. B. Organized and clear.
C. Difficult to perceive. D. Rare to encounter.
26. What did the example of the deaf woman in the nursing home illustrate
A. Benefits of bilingual learning.
B. Urgent need for sign language support.
C. Prejudice against the deaf people.
D. Lack of company care for the aged.
27. What contributed to Earth’s new path
A. Her academic achievement.
B. Her cross-cultural adaptability.
C. Social progress and gender equality.
D. Sign language and her deaf colleagues.
C
Few things delight children or irritate their parents, as much as screen time. Parents nag their children to put down their digital devices and pick up a book or a football. Some countries are banning social media for under-16s.
The worry may be focused on the wrong age group. Now a new generation of grandparents are adding to their screen time with smartphones, iPads and game consoles. The result is epic screen sessions, which take up more than half of their waking hours.
The digitization of old age is a good thing. Facebook and WhatsApp bring daily updates from old friends and faraway grandchildren. Zoom transports church, book clubs and doctors’appointments into the home. Older people are also insulated (使隔离) from some of the on-screen risks that threaten teenagers. They have already formed their key real-life relationships, and so are less in danger of the “social stunting” that screen-obsessed children supposedly suffer.
Yet as retirement moves online there will be costs that society must address. Older folks’ devices are usually connected to credit cards. Door-to-door cheat can now go iPad-to-iPad. Older people also appear to be more likely susceptible to online scam which artificial intelligence promises to make still more convincing. As older generations shift from spending their time in front of Fox or the BBC to spending it on YouTube or TikTok, they are entering a Wild West of information.
Screen time has a mixed impact on loneliness. Screens are companions for the isolated. But they can also be an alternative for real life. E-commerce removes the trouble of the weekly shopping trip — but also the social interactions that come with it. Balancing the pros and cons of screen use is easier for teenagers, whose time online is limited by teachers during the day and parents in the evening. Older folk lack these informal mediators (调停者).
Old people’s rocketing screen time should at least make for a more measured debate on digital matters. Generations do not always understand each other well. There is a long history of policymakers calling for bans on teenagers, from rock ‘n’ roll to violent video games. When the teenagers catches on more widely, the panic tends to die down. Universal use of smart-phones and social media should make it easier to have sensible conversations about their trade-offs. And when children are told for the hundredth time to get off their phones, they can cast a meaningful glance at grandpa in the corner, chuckling at the latest memes on WhatsApp.
28. By mentioning the two generations’ screen time, the author intends to ______.
A. highlight an issue B. evaluate an event C. clarify a goal D. illustrate an approach
29. What does the underlined phrase “susceptible to” in Paragraph 4 probably mean
A. Tolerant to. B. Awakened by. C. Tricked by. D. Relevant to.
30. What can be inferred from the last paragraph
A. Each generation tends to self-limit their own screen time strictly.
B. Society has promoted seniors’ digital benefits to prevent panic.
C. Digital policy should primarily target seniors’ online safety risks.
D. The digital engagement across ages calls for balanced discussions.
31. Which would be the best title for this passage
A. Square-eyed Elders B. All-thumbs Seniors
C. Self-taught Silver Surfers D. Leisure-seeking Grandparents
D
The health benefits of having a pet — especially a dog — are well-established. Dog owners have been shown to live longer, healthier lives than people without pups, in part because caring for a dog encourages physical activity. And pets of all types have been shown to lower their owners’ stress levels and improve their mental health.
But a new research letter published in JAMA Surgery offers a look at a potential downside of pet ownership. Among older adults fractures (骨折) linked to dog-walking are surprisingly common and growing more frequent, according to the research.
Researchers examined data from the National Electronic Injury Surveillance System, which logs injuries reported by patients visiting a nationally representative group of 100 U.S. hospital emergency rooms. In 2004, almost 1,700 adults aged 65 and older went to the emergency room for fractures related to walking leashed dogs, they found. By 2017, that number had risen to almost 4,500.
Fractures can occur as the result of falls or dogs charging while they’re leashed, the authors write — and they have some ideas about why the numbers have shot up since 2004. Dr. Jaimo Ahn, an associate professor at the University of Pennsylvania School of Medicine, says the reasons behind the rise are likely positive, even if the end result — more injuries — is not.
“People intuitively know many of the benefits of animal companionship,” Ahn said. “Not surprisingly, pet ownership has increased over time, including among the elderly, who are living longer and making efforts to live healthier — all good things.”
Still, the research suggests that the risks of pet ownership shouldn’t be ignored, especially for older adults. Almost 30% of the injured seniors in the paper were admitted to the hospital, and nearly 20% suffered hip fractures. This type of fracture is “associated with long-term decreases in quality of life and functional capabilities,” the authors write.
“As we get older, we should consider both the risks and benefits of the physical activity we desire and make sure we’re safely and thoughtfully up for the challenge,” Ahn says.
Dog-walking offers seniors a valuable opportunity to assess — and, if necessary, improve — their own strength, walking ability and overall well-being, he says, as well as their dog’s behavior.
“There are so many benefits from pet ownership, but just like everything else, there are negatives to potentially consider,” Ahn says.
32. The numbers in Paragraph 3 are intended to __________.
A. introduce the research problem B. support the research findings
C. describe the research process D. reveal the research significance
33. According to Ahn, the reasons behind the rise in the number of fractures of the old can probably be ________.
A. the tendency to fall when dog owners are walking leashed dogs
B. people’s intuitive understanding of a longer and healthier life
C. the gradual increase in elderly people owning pets due to benefits
D. the higher rate of admitting the injured elderly to the hospital
34. The hip fractures older adults suffer due to dog-walking indicate that ________.
A. they are more likely to encounter risks of pet ownership than the young
B. their quality of life and functional capabilities may decrease over time
C. the risks of pet ownership outweigh the benefits for some older adults
D. they need to do more dog-walking to improve their overall well-being
35. The lesson we can learn from the passage is that ________.
A. each coin has two sides
B. a dog is man’s best friend
C. every dark cloud has a silver lining
D. god helps those who help themselves
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
We’ve all experienced the frustration of forgetting what we studied yesterday. But memory isn’t just about natural talent. It’s a skill we can improve with smart strategies.
Our brains naturally screen information. We forget 70% of new knowledge within 24 hours if we don’t review it. Your brain serves as a library. Whenever you revisit information, you’re placing it on a more accessible shelf. A student who reviews math formulas (公式) right after class, then before bed, and once more after three days will find them easier to recall during exams. ____36____
____37____ When reciting words like “photosynthesis”, simply repeating the spelling often fails quickly. Instead, picture sunlight hitting green leaves while reading a biology textbook. This combines text, imagery, and real-world meaning, activating multiple brain areas at once. Similarly, linking “pineapple” to “pine tree with apples” creates a funny mental image hard to forget for long.
Sleep and calm minds are secret weapons for memory. During deep sleep, the brain reorganizes daytime learning like a librarian sorting books. Research shows students with 7-8 hours of sleep remember 40% more history facts than those who stay up late. ____38____ Taking slow breaths can protect your mental “library”.
Active practice beats passive reading. Instead of mechanically rereading notes, transform headings into self-test questions: “____39____” This forces your brain to search information, strengthening memory pathways. Explaining concepts to friends, like teaching a classmate how to solve equations, uses speech and logic to deepen understanding.
____40____ By spacing out reviews, creating vivid mental connections, and caring for your brain’s needs, you can turn temporary knowledge into lifelong wisdom—one small, steady step at a time.
A. How do I use this grammar rule in writing
B. This “spaced repetition” makes memories stick.
C. Forgetting is a common human condition without exception.
D. Context turns weak and uncertain memories into permanent ones.
E. Memory mastery is not about studying longer but studying smarter.
F. Improving memory is more focused on holding on to what really counts.
G. Feeling stressed, however, floods the brain with chemicals that damage memory.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 完形填空(共15个小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I didn’t start by falling in love with programming. I hated it, actually. During my tech studies, I ____41____ struggled. I couldn’t solve problems. The logic didn’t ____42____. I felt lost. So I ____43____: “This isn’t for me. I don’t have talent for this.”
If the story had ended there, I probably would have ____44____ forever. But it didn’t, for a ____45____ reason: I had already invested years in tech studies, and software development was (and still is) a ____46____ field. So I gave it another ____47____, partly out of pragmatism (实用主义).
Working part-time as a developer ____48____ everything. I was solving real problems. Real bugs. Real systems. I was getting feedback from actual code running, not from grades or assessments.
Slowly, I ____49____ small competencies. I solved one problem, then another, then petence brought ____50____. And then — and only then — something ____51____ happened: I started wanting to solve technical problems. I’d see a challenge and think about how to ____52____ it. I’d explore how systems worked. And now I’d even describe myself as a ____53____ engineer — something I never would have said during my studies.
My story isn’t unique. It’s just evidence of a simple truth: You don’t need to start with ____54____. Start with pragmatism, build small ____55____ and competencies; enjoyment will follow. Then, you’re not waiting for talent — you’ve actively built it.
41. A. occasionally B. suddenly C. rarely D. constantly
42. A. take control B. make sense C. take effort D. make progress
43. A. concluded B. promised C. proposed D. rejected
44. A. matured B. continued C. quit D. waited
45. A. moral B. technical C. practical D. cultural
46. A. widely-debated B. well-paid C. fast-paced D. high-cost
47. A. meaning B. shot C. place D. name
48. A. improved B. disturbed C. changed D. determined
49. A. built up B. heard of C. held back D. showed off
50. A. modesty B. patience C. safety D. confidence
51. A. unfortunate B. complicated C. similar D. unexpected
52. A. ignore B. tolerate C. approach D. deny
53. A. talented B. hopeless C. careful D. awkward
54. A. strength B. responsibility C. caution D. passion
55. A. traps B. wins C. teams D. conflicts
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
Sanrio, the Japanese company____56____ (know) for its cute and warm cartoon characters that have won the hearts of people all over the world, was founded in 1960 by Shintaro Tsuji. For more than sixty years, it____57____ (create) so many lovely and distinctive figures that they have not only become an indispensable part of many people’s childhood memories but also a symbol of pure joy and comfort. Among____58____well-designed characters, Hello Kitty, My Melody and Kuromi have long been hugely popular among fans of all ages, but it is Cinnamoroll____59____has stood out and become the most beloved character in recent years, thanks to its unique appearance and gentle personality.
____60____ (design) in 2001 by the talented designer Miyuki Okumura, who drew inspiration from the soft aroma of cinnamon rolls, Cinnamoroll is a small white dog with long, fluffy ears that look just ____61____a pair of delicate wings ready to take flight. He lives in a cozy little place called Café Cinnamon, ____62____he spends his days greeting every customer with a gentle look and a warm smile, bringing them unexpected happiness and a sense of peace amid their busy lives. His soft, cloud-like ears, which are lighter than cotton, allow him____63____ (float) quietly in the sky whenever he wants, making him quite different from other ordinary cartoon dogs and adding a touch of magic to his image.
Today, Cinnamoroll, along with other classic Sanrio characters, can____64____ (see) on almost every kind of product, ranging from delicate stationery and cute toys to fashionable clothes and themed cafes that are decorated with their lovely images. _____65_____ (bring) warmth, joy and smiles to people’s daily lives, especially in times of stress and tiredness, has always been the most important and unchanging goal of this special Japanese company, which continues to spread happiness across the globe through its charming creations.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 应用文写作(满分15分)
66. 假定你是李华,近期你校推出了宣传学校的系列文创作品,你打算赠送一件给你的英国朋友Jack,请你给他写一封邮件,内容包括:
1. 说明写信目的;
2. 介绍此文创作品及其意义。
文创作品creative cultural works
注意:
1. 写作词数应为80个左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。
Dear Jack,
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 读后续写(满分25分)
67. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
While walking along the street, the bitter cold of a December day in Barrow was ruining my mood. The temperature was below zero so I rushed into the sub way station, hoping to get warm.
Warmth came to my body as I settled onto a bench with a cup of hot coffee. Now I was ready to relax and do some serious people-watching. I noticed a homeless man seated nearby. The pleasant smell of delicious food from the subway food court (美食广场) was attracting me to consider an early dinner. From the longing look in my neighbor’s eyes, it was obvious that he, too, noticed the good smell. I wondered how long it had been since he had eaten anything, expecting he would approach me for some food. But he never did. My head and heart were battling it out: the former telling me to mind my own business, and the latter urging me to make an immediate trip to the food court for him.
While this inner debate was fierce, a well-dressed young couple suddenly approached. “Excuse me, sir,” began the husband. “We just finished eating and our appetite wasn’t as big as we thought. We hate to waste food. Can you help us out and put this to good use ” The kind stranger handed a large container with food. “Thank you.” came the grateful reply. Feeling good about what I had seen, but disappointed by my own lack of action, I observed my neighbor’s response to his sudden good fortune.
He lifted the soup, cupping his hands around the steaming bowl. It was obvious that he was going to enjoy this miracle meal. He opened mouth and suddenly, he stopped.
The reason for this unexpected behavior soon became clear. Entering the hall was a new arrival, in his seventies, without a hat and gloves. His lightweight jacket was a poor protection against cold. His face and hands were red and damaged. People around focused on him with pity and whispered at this sad sight.
注意:
1. 续写词数应为150左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
My neighbor was the only one taking action.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
I went to buy food from the food court, with tears welling up in my eyes.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

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