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安徽凤阳县部分学校联考2025-2026学年上学期八年级2月期末英语试卷答案
听力材料
Ⅰ. 短对话理解
W: What did you do last weekend, Tom M: I attended a plant - growing workshop. I learned how to grow some herbs. Q: What did the boy do last weekend
M: How do you usually go to the cinema, Lily W: I usually go by bike. It's quick and easy. Q: How does the girl usually go to the cinema
W: You seem upset. What's wrong with your tablet M: The screen is cracked. I don't know what to do. Q: What's wrong with the boy's tablet
M: Are you going to join any clubs this semester W: I want to join the photography club. I love taking pictures. Q: Which club does the girl want to join
W: What's your favorite sport, Jack M: I like swimming best. It's good for my health. Q: What's the boy's favorite sport
Ⅱ. 长对话理解
对话一 M: Hi, Mary. What shall we do this weekend W: How about volunteering at a local community garden M: That sounds great! How many people will go together W: Five of us. Q6: What are they planning to do this weekend Q7: How many people will go together
对话二 W: Have you noticed the new trend in fashion - sustainable fashion M: Yes. It's popular because it's both environmentally friendly and stylish. W: Where can we buy clothes of this trend M: We can buy them at second - hand stores or online sustainable fashion brands. Q8: What is the new trend in fashion they are discussing Q9: Why is this trend popular Q10: Where can they buy clothes of this trend
Ⅲ. 短文理解
In modern society, teenagers spend a lot of time on digital devices, which can cause problems like eye strain and sleep problems. To solve these issues, teenagers can do a digital detox. They can set time limits for using devices and engage in outdoor activities. A digital detox can help teenagers improve their concentration and social skills. The speaker suggests that teenagers have a regular digital detox.
Q11: What is the passage mainly about Q12: What problems can too much screen time cause for teenagers Q13: How can teenagers do a digital detox Q14: What can teenagers gain from a digital detox Q15: What is the speaker's suggestion
Ⅳ. 信息转换
There will be a Flower Festival next week at the City Park. The main activity of the festival is a flower show. It is expected that about 500 visitors will come to the festival.
答案
Ⅰ.短对话理解
1~5 C B A A C
Ⅱ.长对话理解
6~10 B B A C C
Ⅲ.短文理解
11~15 A C C C A
Ⅳ.信息转换
Flower 17. week 18. City 19. flower 20. 500
V. 单项填空
21~25 BCCAB 26~30 DDCDB
VI. 完形填空
31~35BADCB 36～40ACDBD 41～45BCDAB 46~50 ACDAC
VII.补全对话
51～55BAGFC
Ⅷ.阅读理解
56～60DCDCB 61～65 CDDDB 66~70AABBD 71~72 CB
73.Because she had a cleft lip.
74. They didn't have enough money to pay for the operation.
75.She felt happy and excited.
IX.单词拼写
76. rmy 77. rm 78. rust 79. atch 80.ug
X.书面表达
【参考范文】
Dear Kevin，
How are you these days？I'm writing to invite you to take part in a New Year's Evening Party.Our class is going to have a New Year's Evening Party from 7：30 to 9：00 on the evening of Dec.31st.It is in Class 2，Grade 8.On that evening，all the teachers and students will take part in the evening party.Firstly，we will enjoy a wonderful performance of Beijing opera.Then we are planning to put on some talent shows and e and join us!Please prepare a program for the party.Everyone would love to see your performance!I think that we will have a great time.
Please let me know if you can come.I'm looking forward to your early reply.
Yours， Li Hua安徽凤阳县部分学校联考2025-2026学年上学期八年级2月期末英语试卷
本试卷共四部分,十大题,满分120分,考试时间为120分钟。
第一部分　听力(共四大题,满分20分)
Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1.What did the boy do last weekend
A. He went to a virtual reality arcade. B. He watched a football match. C. He attended a plant - growing workshop.
2.How does the girl usually go to the cinema
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. By car.
3.What's wrong with the boy's tablet
A. The screen is cracked. B. It won't turn on. C. The battery drains quickly.
4.Which club does the girl want to join
A. The photography club. B. The drama club. C. The science club.
5.What's the boy's favorite sport
A. Tennis. B. Badminton. C. Swimming.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
听下面一段对话，回答 6 - 7 两个小题。
6.What are they planning to do this weekend
A.Go on a camping trip in the forest.
B.Volunteer at a local community garden.
C. Visit an art exhibition.
7. How many people will go together
A. Four. B. Five. C. Six.
听下面一段对话，回答 8 - 10 三个小题。
8.What is the new trend in fashion they are discussing
A.Sustainable fashion. B. Retro - style clothing. C. Tech - integrated clothing.
9.Why is this trend popular
A.It's environmentally friendly. B. It's very stylish. C. Both A and B.
10.Where can they buy clothes of this trend
A. At second - hand stores. B. At online sustainable fashion brands. C. Both A and B.
Ⅲ. 短文理解（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11.What is the passage mainly about
A.The importance of digital detox for teenagers.
B.The benefits of reading e - books.
C. The development of 3D printing technology.
12. What problems can too much screen time cause for teenagers
A. Eye strain. B. Sleep problems. C. Both A and B.
13. How can teenagers do a digital detox
A. Set time limits for using devices. B. Engage in outdoor activities. C. Both A and B.
14. What can teenagers gain from a digital detox
A. Improved concentration. B. Better social skills. C. Both A and B.
15. What is the speaker's suggestion
A. To have a regular digital detox.
B. To only use digital devices for learning.
C. To reduce the number of digital devices.
Ⅳ. 信息转换（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
你将听到一篇短文。根据短文内容，写出表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Information Details
Name of the event The 16 Festival
Time of the event Next 17
Place of the event At the 18 Park
Main activity A 19 show
Expected number of visitors 20
第二部分　语言知识运用(共三大题,满分35分)
Ⅴ.单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21.Each of the students plays ________ important role in their class as everyone is a member of the class.
A. a B. an C. the D. /
22.—Who is the man over there —He is our new teacher. He teaches ________ English.
A. we B. our C. us D. ours
23.The structure of the sentence “We gave him some books” is “________”.
A. S+V+O B. S+V+P C. S+V+O+O D. S+V+O+C
24.Jim is so ________ that he can wait for his friends for hours without getting angry.
A. patient B. honest C. humorous D. friendly
25.When it began to rain, Mary ________ for the bus at the bus stop.
A. is waiting B. was waiting
C. are waiting D. were waiting
26.—Not only Chinese people but also foreign people like pandas.—________! Pandas have become a symbol of China.
A. Come on B. Don’t worry
C. Cheer up D. You said it
27.The children enjoyed ________ very much at the Lantern Festival.
A. yourself B. himself C. ourselves D. themselves
28.Sandy likes making new things out of old ones to ________ waste.
A. repeat B. return C. reduce D. report
29.—Why didn’t you answer my phone call at 3 p.m. yesterday —Oh, I’m sorry. I ________ an exciting football match at that time.
A. watch B. watched
C. am watching D. was watching.
30.—Do you know ________ our school？
—Tomorrow.（　　）
A. when the American students visit
B. when the American students will visit
C. when do the American students visit
D. when will the American students visit
Ⅵ.完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
A long time ago，there was a big apple tree.A little boy always played around it.When the boy got(31)，he didn't play around it.
One day the tree said，"(32)and play with me."The boy answered，"Now I only want toys.I need(33)."Sorry，I don't have money，(34)you can sell the apples for some money ."The boy did so and left his home(35).
After a few years，the boy came back and the tree was so excited.The tree said ，"Come and play with me ."The tree said."Sorry，I am too(36).I have to work for my family.I need a(37).""You can cut off my branches（树枝） and trunk（树干） for a house，"answered the tree.The boy did so.
Twenty years later，the boy came back again. "My boy，the(38)thing left is my dying roots（树根），"said the tree ."I don't need much now，just a place to rest.I am too(39)these years，" answered the boy. "Come here，sit down with me."The tree then smiled with tears.
This is a story of everyone.The tree is our(40).No matter what we need，our parents will always be there and give everything they have.
31.A. younger B. older C. angry D. quiet
32.A. Come B. Go C. Stop D. Look
33.A. paper B. water C. glue D. money
34.A. if B. so C. but D. because
35.A. sadly B. happily C. friendly D. carefully
36.A. busy B. afraid C. lucky D. bored
37.A. phone B. car C. house D. computer
38.A. good B. bad C. difficult D. only
39.A. fast B. tired C. rich D. poor
40.A. friends B. time C. life D. parents
B
Hello，everyone!I'm a fifteen-year-old boy in 2023.I want to tell you what the year 2035 will be like.In 2035，I will grow up.Yes，I will be(41)years old.My parents want me to be a doctor when I grow up.However，in fact，I want to be a(42)，I'm good at science at school.I think science can change the world.
In 2035，there will be more(43)in factories，even in the street.They will be(44)to do almost everything that people can do.That will make our life much(45).Robots will(46)people's place to do lots of jobs.Then people will have more free time.But there will be more(47)because of so many factories.So will some people have to(48)to other planets？I think so.Maybe I will live on the space station.I think everyone must play a part in(49)the earth，or nobody will be able to live on the earth in 2035.What can we do？We can use(50)water and plant more trees.We have only one earth，so let's take action now!
41.A. 25 B. 27 C. 30 D. 35
42.A. pilot B. cook C. scientist D. driver
43.A. people B. plants C. animals D. robots
44.A. able B. happy C. sad D. relaxing
45.A. busier B. easier C. bigger D. worse
46.A. take B. find C. make D. lose
47.A. work B. space C. pollution D. money
48.A. use B. walk C. pick D. move
49.A. saving B. seeing C. studying D. knowing
50.A. cleaner B. dirtier C. less D. fewer
Ⅶ.补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据对话内容,从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。
A：Hi, Leo. Where did you go during the holiday？
B：I went to Hangzhou with my family.
A：I hear it is a wonderful place. （51） ______
B：Yes. I visited the West Lake.
A： （52） ______
B：It was fantastic! The lake is very big and beautiful.
A：Really？ （53） ______
B：Yes. I went boating with my brothers and we took many photos there.
A：That sounds great! （54） ______
B：Sure. I will give you tomorrow.
A：（55） ______
B：OK. See you then!
A：See you!
A. How did you like it？
B. Did you go anywhere special there？
C. I'm looking forward to them.
D. What about you？
E. I think you must be tired
F. Can you show them to me？
G. Did you do any other things？
第三部分　阅读(共两节,满分40分)
Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
第一节　阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
56.What is the result of plastic pollution according to(根据) the picture
A. People buy and use plastic.
B. People throw plastic away.
C. Plastic ends up in oceans and rivers.
D. Fish and sea animals get hurt and die.
57.Which of the following is a way to fight plastic pollution
A. Buying new water bottles every day.
B. Using plastic straws in all drinks.
C. Saying no to plastic shopping bags.
D. Throwing plastic waste into rivers directly.
58.Where is this passage most probably from
A. A novel about daily life.
B. A storybook about animals.
C. A history book about the Earth.
D. A poster about environmental protection.
B
Mia loved painting, but she was always too shy to show her works. Last term, her school held a painting competition with the theme “My Hometown”. Mia wanted to join, but her hands shook when she thought about other students seeing her paintings. Her grandma noticed this and said, “Your paintings are full of love for our town, don’t let fear hide that.”
With grandma’s encouragement, Mia spent two weeks painting the old street in her hometown. She drew the red brick houses, the old tree by the river, and the grandmas selling fresh fruits. On the competition day, she walked to the school hall with her painting tightly in her hands. When she hung it on the wall, she closed her eyes, afraid of hearing bad words. But soon, she heard a teacher say, “This painting captures the true beauty of our town!”
Surprisingly, Mia won the first prize. When she stood on the stage to get the award, she said, “I was scared to share my art in the past, but now I know—courage (勇气) isn’t being fearless, but taking action even when you’re afraid.” Now, Mia often shows her paintings at the school art corner, and she even teaches younger students to paint what they love.
59.What did Mia paint for the competition
A. Her grandma and the old tree.
B. The red brick houses only.
C. The old street in her hometown.
D. The school and younger students.
60.Which word can replace (代替) the underlined word “captures”
A. misses B. shows C. changes D. hides
61.Why did Mia start teaching younger students to paint
A. Because the school gave her this task.
B. Because her grandma asked her to do so.
C. Because she won the first prize and felt confident (自信的).
D. Because she wanted to make money from it.
62.What can we learn from the story
A. We should always help others.
B. Shy people can never do well in art.
C. It’s easy to win a painting competition.
D. Courage means doing things even if you’re afraid.
C
Do you know a special kind of forest in China We call it “the mangrove (红树林)” or “the red forest”. Are the mangroves red No, mangroves don’t have red leaves. They are green.
Mangroves grow in the water on the coast (海岸). The place of mangrove planting in China is between 20°—30°N and 105°—120°E. Some parts of the trees are out of the water. They are home to animals like monkeys. The other parts in the water make great homes for baby sea animals, like baby fish.
Mangroves can grow as high as 10 meters. They keep the land away from strong winds and waves. Like other trees, mangroves take in carbon dioxide from the air and produce oxygen. They are helping to make air clean on the earth. But now there are fewer and fewer mangroves. We need to do more to protect them.
63.Which picture shows the mangroves
A. B.
C. D.
64.How can mangroves be good for us
①They can keep air clean. ②They can make carbon dioxide.
③They can protect the land from winds. ④They provide homes for some animals.
A. ①②③ B. ①②④ C. ②③④ D. ①③④
65.Why does the writer write the passage
A. To tell a story of mangroves.
B. To ask us to do something for mangroves.
C. To answer why mangroves grow in water.
D. To let us know where mangroves can grow.
66.In which part of a newspaper can we read this passage
A. Nature. B. Science. C. Health. D. Sports.
D
Most of us spend around 50-60 hours sleeping every week. That’s much time for dirt, sweat and skin cells (污垢、汗水和皮肤细胞) to build up on our sheets (床单)! Without regular cleaning, the dirt can harm our health. So it’s very important to keep our sheets clean.
But how often should we wash them According to the Sleep Foundation, once a week is best. If you don’t use your bed every day, you can wash the sheets every two weeks. But some people should wash their sheets even more often.
If you have a pet, you should wash the sheets every three to four days. Pets leave fur and dirt behind. If you have asthma or allergies (哮喘或过敏症), you may also find it helpful to wash your sheets more often.
There’s another reason to wash your sheets: dust mites (尘螨)! These tiny bugs (小虫子) live on beds. They are so small that you can’t see them. But they love eating dead skin cells. A bed can have up to 10 million of them! It sounds amazing, but it’s true.
Dust bugs are hard to kill, but washing your sheets helps. When you wash your sheets, you wash away their food and many of the bugs, too. This results in fewer dust mites and a cleaner bed.
So remember, washing your sheets once a week is a smart and healthy habit. It helps you sleep better and keeps your bed fresh and clean!
67.How often can you wash sheets if you don’t use your bed every day
A. Every two weeks B. Once a week
C. Every three days D. Every day
68.The underlined word “it” in Paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. having a pet
B. washing sheets more often
C. leaving fur and dirt on sheets
D. sleeping 50-60 hours a week
69.What’s the best title for the passage
A. How to Keep Pets Clean.
B. Remember to Wash Sheets Regularly (定期)!
C. The Ways to Kill Dust Mites.
D. Different Kinds of Dust Mites in Beds.
E
Feelings are difficult to deal with, especially for a 4-year-old who doesn’t know why his mum won’t let him eat another cake and a 7-year-old who is unhappy because his dad returns to work and has to leave the playground early.
For parents, it’s very important to begin teaching children about their feelings as early as possible because their feelings influence (影响) every choice they make. Children who understand their feelings are less likely to act out by getting angry or fighting with others. They can use clear sentences to express their feelings.
A good way to help children learn about feelings is to talk about how different roles in TV series may feel. When watching TV, a parent could stop and ask the child, “How do you think he feels right now ” Then, discuss the feelings that person may experience and the reasons.
Doing so also teaches empathy (共鸣). Young children think the world centers around them, so it can be an experience for them to learn other people have feelings too. When young children can understand other people’s feelings, they are less likely to do bad things to them. For example, if a child knows that pushing his friend to the ground may make his friend sad, he will do so less.
Teaching a child about feelings will help him become mentally (精神上) strong. Children who have the skills to deal with their feelings will be so confident that they can deal with whatever they meet in their life.
70.What is a good way to help children learn about feelings according to the text
A. Asking children to leave the playground early.
B. Letting children eat more cakes to make them happy.
C. Making children fight with others to express feelings.
D. Talking about how different roles in TV series may feel.
71.If a child can understand others’ feelings, which of the following behaviors(行为) is he/she the least likely (最不可能) to do
A. Helping a younger kid who is lost.
B. Sharing toys with a friend who is sad.
C. Laughing at a friend who fails an exam.
D. Saying sorry to a classmate after hurting him/her.
72.What is the writer’s purpose of writing this passage
A. To describe how children express their feelings.
B. To advise parents to teach children about feelings early.
C. To explain why children don’t want to leave the playground.
D. To tell parents to let children eat as many cookies as they like.
　第二节　阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题的词数要求)。
F
Growing up in Jiangsu，Wang Li was afraid to show her face because she had a cleft lip（唇裂）.Other kids didn't like to play with her and laughed at her.She was very sad.
Wang Li's parents were both factory workers.They wanted to help their daughter.But they didn't have enough money to pay for the operation（手术）.One day they learned about Smile Train.It works with hospitals to help people with cleft lips for free.They were really happy.
With the help of Smile Train，Wang Li had the operation in a hospital in Nanjing.And it was successful."When I looked into the mirror after the operation，I saw a different person looking back at me—a smiling person，"said Wang Li.That was the first time she smiled.She jumped up and down.
The operation changed Wang Li's life in many ways.She wasn't afraid to show her face and went back to school.Now she lives a happy life with her family.She's thankful to Smile Train.
Smile Train has helped more than 1，500，000 people with cleft lips.These people are living the kind of life they once thought impossible.
73. Why didn't other kids play with Wang Li？（不超过 10 个词） ______
74. What problem did Wang Li's parents meet？（不超过 15 个词） ______
75. How did Wang Li feel when she looked into a mirror after the operation？（不超过5个词） ______
第四部分　写(共两大题,满分25分)
Ⅸ.单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。
76.He joined the a （军队） a year ago.
77.His left a （手臂） was hurt in an accident.
78.You have to t （信任） me，because I'm your best friend.
79.He's lucky to c （赶上）the last bus.
80.Yesterday my mother d （挖） some potatoes for dinner.
Ⅹ.书面表达(共1小题;满分20分)
假如你是李华，你班将举行元旦迎新晚会。请你根据提示内容及要求，给外教Kevin用英语写封电子邮件邀请他参加此次活动。
内容如下：
1.时间：12月31日晚7：30—9：00
2.地点：八年级二班教室
3.内容：观看京剧表演、师生才艺展示、做游戏等
4.要求：请他准备一个节目
提示词：京剧Beijing opera 表演performance
注意：
1.结构完整，表达通顺，语言规范，书写清晰；
2.文中不得出现任何真实的人名、学校名等信息；
3.词数100左右。开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Kevin，
How are you these days？I'm writing to invite you to take part in a New Year's Evening Party.___________
Yours，
Li Hua

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