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2025-2026学年度第一学期期末考试卷
七年级英语（仁爱版）
考试注意事项
1.本试卷共6大板块，满分120分，考试时长100分钟。
2.答题前务必将姓名、班级填写在答题卡指定位置，所有答案均写在答题卡对应区域，试卷作答无效。
3..书面表达需字迹工整，不得出现真实姓名、班级，字数符合题目要求。
一、 听力理解（共20小题，每小题1分，满分20分）
第一节 听句子，选择正确图片（每小题1分，共5分）
听下面5个句子，从题中所给的A、B、C三幅图片中选出与句子内容相符的图片。每个句子读两遍。
（ ）1.A. B. C.
（ ）2.A.（ B. C.
（ ）3.A. B. C.
（ ）4.A. B. C.
（ ）5.A. B. C.
第二节 听句子，选择正确答语（每小题1分，共5分）
听下面5个句子，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答语。每个句子读两遍。
（ ）6. A. Fine, thank you. B. Goodbye! C. Nice to meet you.
（ ）7. A. It's a pen. B. It's red. C. It's on the desk.
（ ）8. A. Yes, I am. B. Yes, I do. C. Yes, I can.
（ ）9. A. At 7:00. B. By bus. C. In the morning.
（ ）10. A. You're welcome. B. Thank you. C. That's right.
第三节 听对话，选择正确答案（每小题1分，共5分）
听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
（ ）11. What's the girl's favorite color
A. Pink. B. Purple. C. Yellow.
（ ）12. How many books does the boy have
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five.
（ ）13. Where is the boy going
A. To the park. B. To the zoo. C. To the supermarket.
（ ）14. What does the girl want to drink
A. Tea. B. Juice. C. Water.
（ ）15. What time will they meet
A. At 3:00 p.m. B. At 3:30 p.m. C. At 4:00 p.m.
第四节 听短文，选择正确答案（每小题1分，共5分）
听下面一篇短文，短文后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。短文读两遍。
（ ）16. How old is Tom
A. 12. B. 13. C. 14.
（ ）17. Where is Tom from
A. England. B. America. C. Canada.
（ ）18. What class is Tom in
A. Class 2, Grade 7. B. Class 3, Grade 7. C. Class 4, Grade 7.
（ ）19. What's Tom's favorite sport
A. Football. B. Basketball. C. Tennis.
（ ）20. Who is Tom's English teacher
A. Miss Li. B. Mr. Wang. C. Ms. Zhang.
二、 单项选择（共20小题，每小题1分，满分20分）
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。
（ ）21. —What's ______ name —My name is Lucy.
A. you B. your C. yours D. yourself
（ ）22. This is ______ orange. ______ orange is orange.
A. a; The B. an; The C. the; An D. an; An
（ ）23. —How many ______ are there in the classroom —There are twenty.
A. student B. students C. student's D. students'
（ ）24. My mother ______ a teacher. She ______ in a middle school.
A. is; work B. is; works C. are; work D. are; works
（ ）25. —______ is the book —It's 20 yuan.
A. How many B. How much C. How long D. How often
（ ）26. He usually ______ up at 6:30 in the morning.
A. get B. gets C. got D. getting
（ ）27. —Can you play ______ piano —No, but I can play ______ basketball.
A. the; / B. /; the C. the; the D. /; /
（ ）28. There ______ some milk and two eggs on the table.
A. is B. are C. have D. has
（ ）29. —______ do you go to school —By bike.
A. What B. How C. Where D. When
（ ）30. I like reading ______ I often go to the library on weekends.
A. so B. but C. or D. because
（ ）31. —What's your favorite —Math.
A. food B. color C. subject D. sport
（ ）32. He ______ watch TV in the evening. He usually does his homework.
A. don't B. doesn't C. isn't D. aren't
（ ）33. —Would you like some coffee —. I don't like coffee.
A. Yes, please B. No, thanks C. OK D. Sure
（ ）34. This skirt is very beautiful. I want to ______ it.
A. buy B. sell C. take D. bring
（ ）35. —Where ______ your parents last weekend —They went to the countryside.
A. do B. does C. did D. are
（ ）36. She has two sisters. One is a doctor, ______ is a teacher.
A. other B. others C. the other D. another
（ ）37. —______ I use your pen —Sure, here you are.
A. Must B. Should C. May D. Need
（ ）38. My brother enjoys ______ football with his friends after school.
A. play B. plays C. playing D. to play
（ ）39. —How was your school trip —It was . We had a great time.
A. terrible B. wonderful C. boring D. difficult
（ ）40. —! There's a car coming. —Thank you for telling me.
A. Look out B. Look up C. Look for D. Look after
三、 完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案。
My name is Lily. I’m a Grade 7 student. I live in a warm family with my parents and my twin sister Lucy. Lucy is only 12 years old, just like me, and we go to the same school every day.
Every morning, I always 41 up at 6:20. Lucy is a little lazy and often gets up 10 minutes later than me. After I brush my teeth and wash my face, I help my mom make breakfast. Our favorite breakfast is bread and milk. Then I go to school 42 Lucy. We usually ride bikes to school 43 it’s fast and good for our health. Our school starts at 8:00 a.m. We have 44 classes a day, four in the morning and three in the afternoon. My favorite subject is English 45 it can help me talk with foreign friends someday. Our English teacher is Mr. White. He is very kind 46 all students and often makes his classes fun.
After school, I do my homework first at home. Then I play chess with Lucy for a while. On weekends, my family often go to the park nearby. We fly kites when it’s windy and have a picnic on sunny days. Sometimes I go to the school library to 47 books. I love reading history books because they tell me many old and interesting stories.
Last Sunday, we went to visit my grandparents in the countryside. The air there was so fresh. My grandma cooked a lot of delicious food for us. I 48 a chicken leg and some vegetables. Lucy and I played with the little dogs in the yard. We laughed a lot and felt very 49 .
I love my simple and happy life. I hope I can 50 good grades in the final exam. I also want to learn to swim this summer vacation. It must be very cool to swim in the pool on hot days. 51 my free time, I also like to draw pictures of flowers and birds. I want to be a painter in the future. I know it needs hard work, but I will keep trying and never give up my dream.
When the new term comes, I will make a new plan. I will listen to teachers more carefully and exercise every day. I believe I can be a better student and make my family 52 of me. I will also make more friends and share happiness and sadness with 53 . Life is full of hope, and I will cherish every moment to live a meaningful life.
I 54 believe that hard work will pay off, and I will try my best to make 55 dream come true step by step.
（ ） 41.A. get B. gets C. got D. getting
（ ）42.A. for B. with C. to D. about
（ ）43.A. so B. but C. because D. or
（ ）44.A. five B. six C. seven D. eight
（ ）45.A. because B. but C. so D. and
（ ）46.A. at B. to C. for D. with
（ ）47.A. watch B. see C. read D. look
（ ）48.A. have B. has C. had D. having
（ ）49.A. happy B. happily C. sad D. sadly
（ ）50.A. get B. gets C. got D. getting
（ ）51.A. On B. In C. At D. For
（ ）52.A. tired B. proud C. afraid D. bored
（ ）53.A. them B. they C. their D. theirs
（ ）54.A. never B. always C. sometimes D. seldom
（ ）55.A. my B. your C. his D. her
四、 阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分）
第一节 阅读理解选择（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案。
A
Welcome to our school library! Our library is open from 8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. on weekdays. On weekends, it's open from 9:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m. You can borrow books, magazines and newspapers here.
Students can borrow up to 3 books at a time. The borrowing time is two weeks. If you can't return the books on time, you need to tell the librarian. You can't borrow books if you have overdue books.
Our library has a lot of books for you. There are storybooks, science books, history books, English books and so on. You can find the books you want easily with the help of the computer.
We also have a reading room. You can read books there quietly. Please keep the reading room clean and quiet. No eating or drinking in the reading room.
If you have any questions, you can ask the librarian for help. We hope you enjoy reading in our library!
（ ）56. When is the library open on weekdays
A. From 8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. B. From 9:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m.
C. From 8:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m. D. From 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
（ ）57. How many books can a student borrow at a time
A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4.
（ ）58. How long can students keep the borrowed books
A. One week. B. Two weeks. C. Three weeks. D. Four weeks.
（ ）59. What can't you do in the reading room
A. Read books. B. Keep quiet. C. Eat food. D. Keep clean.
（ ）60. Where can you find the books you want easily
A. With the help of the teacher. B. With the help of the computer.
C. With the help of the librarian. D. With the help of the students.
B
My name is David. I'm 13 years old. I'm from Australia. I live in Beijing with my parents now. My father is a doctor. He works in a big hospital. My mother is a teacher. She teaches English in a middle school.
I study in No. 1 Middle School. I'm in Class 3, Grade 7. My favorite subject is Chinese. I think it's difficult but interesting. I have Chinese classes every day. My Chinese teacher is Mr. Li. He is very friendly. He often helps me with my Chinese.
After school, I like playing basketball with my classmates. We usually play basketball on the playground. I also like reading Chinese books. I have a lot of Chinese books at home. On weekends, I often go to the Chinese bookstore to buy new books.
I like Beijing very much. It's a beautiful city. I want to learn more about Chinese culture.
（ ）61. Where is David from
A. England. B. America. C. Australia. D. Canada.
（ ）62. What does David's father do
A. A teacher. B. A doctor. C. A driver. D. A farmer.
（ ）63. Which class is David in
A. Class 1, Grade 7. B. Class 2, Grade 7. C. Class 3, Grade 7. D. Class 4, Grade 7.
（ ）64. What's David's favorite subject
A. English. B. Math. C. Chinese. D. History.
（ ）65. What does David like doing after school
A. Playing football. B. Playing basketball. C. Reading English books. D. Watching TV.
C
Christmas is a very important festival in many Western countries. It is on December 25th every year. People celebrate it to remember the birth of Jesus Christ.
Before Christmas, people usually decorate their houses with Christmas trees, lights and stars. They also buy presents for their family and friends. On Christmas Eve, many families have a big dinner together. They eat turkey, potatoes and other delicious food. After dinner, they often sing Christmas songs and exchange presents.
Children are very happy on Christmas Day. They believe that Santa Claus will come to their houses at night and bring them presents. They usually put stockings by the fireplace or under the Christmas tree. When they wake up on Christmas morning, they will find presents in their stockings.
Christmas is a time for family reunion and sharing. People enjoy spending time with their loved ones and spreading joy.
（ ）66. When is Christmas
A. On November 25th. B. On December 25th. C. On November 24th. D. On December 24th.
（ ）67. Why do people celebrate Christmas
A. To remember the birth of Jesus Christ. B. To have a big dinner. C. To get presents. D. To decorate houses.
（ ）68. What do people usually eat on Christmas Eve
A. Chicken. B. Fish. C. Turkey. D. Beef.
（ ）69. Where do children put their stockings on Christmas Eve
A. By the window. B. By the door. C. By the fireplace or under the Christmas tree. D. On the table.
（ ）70. What is Christmas a time for
A. Family reunion and sharing. B. Traveling and shopping. C. Working and studying. D. Singing and dancing.
第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容，回答下列问题。
Hello, everyone! My name is Lisa. I'm 12 years old. I'm a student of Grade 7. I have a healthy lifestyle.
I usually get up at 6:30 a.m. Every morning, I do some exercise for 15 minutes. Then I have breakfast. I often have bread, milk and an egg for breakfast. They are good for my health.
I go to school by bike every day. It's a good way to exercise. At school, I have lunch at 12:00. I usually eat rice, vegetables and meat. I don't like fast food because it's not healthy.
After school, I do my homework first. Then I play badminton with my friends for an hour. I go to bed at 9:00 p.m. I never stay up late.
A healthy lifestyle helps me keep fit and study well. I hope everyone can have a healthy lifestyle.
71. How old is Lisa
72.What does Lisa do every morning after getting up
73.How does Lisa go to school
74.Why doesn't Lisa like fast food
75.What does Lisa do after finishing her homework
五、 补全对话（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A: Hello, Mike! 76. ________________________
B: Hi, Jenny! I'm going to the playground. I want to play football with my classmates.
A: 77. ________________________
B: I usually play football after school. What about you
A: I like reading. I often go to the library after school.
B: 78. ________________________
A: I like reading storybooks best. They are interesting.
B: 79. ________________________
A: The library is open from 8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. on weekdays.
B: 80. ________________________
A: Sure! Let's go to the library together this Saturday.
B: Great! Thank you.
六、 书面表达（满分15分）
假如你是李华，你的笔友Tom想了解你的日常学习和生活情况。请你根据以下提示，给他写一封60-80词的电子邮件。
提示：1. 每天6:30起床，7:00吃早餐，7:30乘公交上学；2. 上午4节课，下午3节课，最喜欢的科目是英语；3. 放学后和同学打篮球，晚上7:00吃晚餐，9:00睡觉。
要求：1. 包含所有提示内容，可适当发挥；2. 语句通顺，语法正确；3. 文中不得出现真实姓名和班级。听力材料原文
第一节 听句子，选择正确图片
1.I like oranges best. They are my favorite fruit.
2.I usually get up at 7:00 in the morning.
3.My brother often plays basketball with his friends after school.
4.The sky is blue. It looks very beautiful.
5.We have lunch in the dining hall at 12:00.
第二节 听句子，选择正确答语
6.How are you
7.What color is your pencil
8.Do you like playing computer games
9.How do you go to school every day
10.Your new dress is very nice!
第三节 听对话，选择正确答案
11.M: What's your favorite color W: I like purple best. It's very beautiful.
12.W: How many books do you have M: I have four. Three are storybooks and one is an English book.
13.W: Where are you going M: I'm going to the supermarket to buy some food.
14.M: Would you like some tea or juice W: Neither. I want to drink some water.
15.W: When shall we meet M: Let's meet at 3:30 p.m. Is that OK W: Sure.
（小节间停顿30秒）
第四节 听短文，选择正确答案
Hello, everyone! My name is Tom. I'm 13 years old. I'm from America. Now I'm a student in No. 2 Middle School. I'm in Class 2, Grade 7. I like sports very much. My favorite sport is basketball. I often play basketball with my friends after school. My English teacher is Miss Li. She is very nice and we all like her.
参考答案及评分标准
一、 听力理解（共20小题，每小题1分，满分20分）
1.C 2.A 3.C 4.B 5.C 6.A 7.B 8.B 9.B 10.B
11.B 12.B 13.C 14.C 15.B 16.B 17.B 18.A 19.B 20.A
评分标准：每小题选对得1分，选错、不选均不得分。
二、 单项选择（共20小题，每小题1分，满分20分）
21.B 22.B 23.B 24.B 25.B 26.B 27.A 28.A 29.B 30.A
31.C 32.B 33.B 34.A 35.C 36.C 37.C 38.C 39.B 40.A
评分标准：每小题选对得1分，选错、不选均不得分。
三、 完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
41.A 42.B 43.C 44.C 45.A 46.B 47.C 48.C 49.A 50.A 51.B 52.B 53.A 54.B 55.A
评分标准：每小题选对得1分，选错、不选均不得分。
四、 阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分）
第一节 阅读理解选择（15小题，30分）
56.A 57.C 58.B 59.C 60.B 61.C 62.B 63.C 64.C 65.B 66.B 67.A 68.C 69.C 70.A
评分标准：每小题选对得2分，选错、不选均不得分。
第二节 任务型阅读（5小题，10分）
71.She is 12 years old.
72.She does some exercise for 15 minutes.
73.She goes to school by bike.
74.Because it's not healthy.
75.She plays badminton with her friends for an hour.
评分标准：每小题2分，答案符合原文意思即可得分；句式正确、无语法错误得满分，语法错误扣1分，答非所问不得分。
五、 补全对话（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
76.Where are you going
77.When do you usually play football
78.What kind of books do you like best
79.When is the library open
80.Can I go to the library with you this Saturday
评分标准：每小题2分，答案不唯一，符合对话语境、语法正确即得满分；语法错误扣1分，语境不符不得分。
六、 书面表达（满分15分）
参考范文
Dear Tom,
I'm glad to tell you about my daily life. I usually get up at 6:30 a.m. and have breakfast at 7:00. Then I take the bus to school at 7:30. We have four classes in the morning and three in the afternoon. My favorite subject is English because it's interesting. After school, I often play basketball with my classmates. I have dinner at 7:00 p.m. and go to bed at 9:00 p.m. What about your daily life
Yours,
Li Hua

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