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2025-2026 学年度（上）学期期末教学质量检测
八年英语试卷
（本试卷共 70道题 满分 110分 考试时间 110分钟）
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2. 答选择题时，选出每小题的答案后，用 2B铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂
黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
3. 答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
第一部分 选择题（含听力，共 70分）
一、听力部分 （共两节，满分 20分）
在进行听力测试答题时, 请先将答案标注在试卷上。听力部分结束前, 你将有两分钟
的时间将你的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 情景应答（共 5小题，每小题 1分，共 5分）
你将听到 5 个句子，每个句子后面设有一个小题，请从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个
选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个句子后，你将有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下
一小题。 每个句子读一遍。
1. A. Reading. B. Five years. C. Great.
2. A. Tigers. B. Bamboo. C. Biscuits.
3. A. My father. B. To see the sunrise. C. Because it’s fun.
4. A. Sweet home. B. 3,000 yuan. C. It’s sunny.
5. A. You’re welcome. B. On foot. C. Good idea.
第二节 听短对话、 长对话和短文，回答问题（共 15小题， 每小题 1分， 共 15分）
听短对话，回答问题
你将听到 5段短对话，每段对话后面设有一个小题，请从题中所给的 A、B、C三个
选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下
一小题。每段对话读一遍。
6. Who is the tallest according to the conversation
A. Tina. B. Tom. C. Kate.
7. What does the boy have to do first
A. Make the bed. B. Fold the clothes. C. Take out the rubbish.
8. Where is Alice going this Saturday
A. Going to the zoo. B. Going camping. C. Going to the gym.
9. Which bike does the boy want
A. The blue one. B. The black one. C. The yellow one.
10. How will they go to the movie probably
A. By bike. B. By bus. C. By taxi.
2025-2026 (上) 八年英语期末试卷 第 1 页 （共 10 页）
听长对话，回答问题。
你将听到两段长对话，每段对话后面设有三个小题，请从题中所给的 A、B、C三个
选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各小题，每小题 5秒钟；听完后，
各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听第 11段材料， 回答第 11-13题。
11. Who did Peter go to Yunnan with
A. His friends. B. His family. C. His cousins.
12. How many days did Peter stay in Lijiang
A. For one day. B. For two days. C. For three days.
13. How did Peter feel about Yulong Mountain
A. It’s amazing. B. It’s boring. C. It’s interesting.
听第 12段材料，回答第 14-16题。
14. How does Fu Xing plan to become a writer
A. By going to a special school.
B. By talking to famous writers.
C. By reading classics and writing stories.
15. What is the relationship between the two speakers
A. Doctor and patient. B. Teacher and student. C. Classmates.
16. What is Adam going to do
A. Work hard on the farm.
B. Study hard at school.
C. Work hard in the hospital.
听短文，回答问题。
你将听到一段短文，短文后面设有四个小题，请从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中
选出最佳选项。听短文前，你将有时间阅读各小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将
给出 5秒钟的作答时间。短文读两遍。
17. What does the blue whale look like
A. It’s the largest animal on earth.
B. It’s the fastest swimmer in the ocean.
C. It’s the most beautiful animal in the ocean.
18. What do blue whales eat in the ocean
A. Big fish. B. The tiniest animals. C. Sea plants.
19. How long can a blue whale live
A. Up to 4 years. B. Up to 90 years. C. Up to 200 years.
20. Why must we protect blue whales
A. Because they are very heavy.
B. Because they are beautiful to watch.
C. Because they help create a healthy ecosystem.
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二、阅读理解 （共 20小题，每小题 2分，满分 40分）
第一节 阅读下面语言材料，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
21. What’s the the highest speed of e-bikes according to the new rules
A. 20km/h. B. 25km/h. C. 55km/h. D. 63km/h.
22. The e-bike can ________ because of its new total weight.
A. cost less B. look cooler C. go faster D. run farther
23. To keep safe, you must use ________ when riding an e-bike.
①Turn signals ②A better phone
③Driving mirrors ④The BeiDou System
A.①③ B.②④ C.①④ D.②③
24. We can probably read this text in ________.
A. a story book B. a notebook
C. a short novel D. a newspaper
2025-2026 (上) 八年英语期末试卷 第 3 页 （共 10 页）
B
My daughter Linda is kind. She always writes love
notes as gifts to warm others.
Her brother Stephen lost a basketball game. She
wrote a note to tell him he was the best player in the
world although he did not win the game. After work, I
often got her thank-you note with smiling face for my
efforts.
We used to get Linda’s love notes and always put them up on the fridge. But
one day I suddenly found there was no one for Linda. At that time, my eyes filled
with tears. My husband asked me what was wrong. I pointed at the notes on the
fridge. Though I said nothing, he knew exactly what I was trying to tell him.
Weeks later, I could see the notes for Linda on the fridge. In return, she wrote
more notes to show her love.
Linda grows up now. She has her own family and children. But some things
about her never change.
One afternoon, I got another love note from her. “Thanks for always being
there for me, Mom. I am happy to have you as family.” It reminded me of all her
love notes. They are the warmest gifts in the world.
25. What did Linda do for Stephen after he lost the basketball game
A. She wrote him a love note. B. She gave him a thank-you note.
C. She cheered for the winner. D. She played basketball with him.
26. The mother cried one day because ________.
A. she was tired B. the notes were lost
C. Linda was sad D. nobody wrote Linda a note
27. What does “her” refer to in Paragraph 6
A. Linda. B. The mother.
C. Stephen. D. The father.
28. What is the main idea of the text
A. Linda is a kind daughter. B. Love notes are warm gifts.
C. A family fridge is important. D. We should write notes often.
2025-2026 (上) 八年英语期末试卷 第 4 页 （共 10 页）
C
Long ago, when an old man first planted a tree
in the garden, it was full of energy and kept moving.
Then the man pulled the tree out and planted it
upside down (颠倒地) to make sure it stayed in one
place. What’s the tree It’s the baobab tree, also
called monkey bread tree, bottle tree or others.
The baobab tree is a strange looking tree that grows in Africa and Australia.
Just like its name “Bottle Tree”, it looks like a large bottle. Some grow as tall as a
16-floor building. During the dry season, these trees are standing there without
leaves, and look like trunks sticking up in the air. But when the rainy season comes,
leaves appear and then flowers come out. Later, the flowers can turn into (变成 )
fruit.
Baobab is called “the tree of life”, because it can live longer than 1,000 years
old. In the dry land, the baobab can save and hold 1,000 gallons (加仑) of water.
Thirsty people can drink the water stored in the tree. The fruit, monkey bread, is
good to eat. Baobab leaves are a kind of medicine. People can use the bark (树皮)
to make paper or cloth. When a baobab gets old, its trunk becomes empty (空的).
An old tree can hold many people. The local people often build their houses inside
these trunks. It is such a helpful tree that some people could hardly live without it.
29. How does the writer begin the text
A. By singing a song. B. By asking a question.
C. By showing a story. D. By giving an example.
30. Why does the baobab have no leaves in the dry season
A. To grow tall. B. To save water.
C. To make fruit. D. To be a bottle.
31. What makes the baobab “the tree of life”
A. It looks like a big bottle. B. It has flowers in rainy seasons.
C. It only grows in dry lands. D. It can live to be over 1000 years old.
32. What is the best title for the text
A. The Look of the Baobab Tree B. AVery Helpful Tree of Life
C. The Dry Season in Australia D. A Delicious African Flower
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D
Humans are the smartest on earth. Some people
believe we can make machines think like we do.
That’s why we create artificial intelligence (AI).
Q: Do you want an AI friend Why
“Yes. Because it will take care of me and never
get angry. My best friend sometimes fights with me,”
Fei Zitong, a girl in Beijing, answers.
What is AI AI makes the machine think and do things like humans. Scientists
teach AI to remember lots of information and learn from it. Then it uses its
knowledge to help us.
Now, let’s see howAI and humans are different. Here’s a table for you!
AI Humans
◆AI doesn’t need to eat or sleep. ◆Humans need rest.
◆AI remembers lots of ◆Humans are afraid sometimes.
information and thinks fast. ◆Humans sometimes get sick
◆AI can’t feel happy or sad. or hurt. But they are friendly.
◆AI can’t have dreams. ◆Humans have dreams.
◆AI doesn’t know how to love. ◆Humans know how to love.
Where is AI in our life？AI is around us every day. A company has used AI to
make a new driverless bus. It can follow traffic rules. What risks can AI bring？
The biggest worry is that some people could use AI to do bad things. For example,
they may use AI to create websites that steal (窃取) people’s personal information.
Or they could use AI programs to break into our computers.
AI is useful but risky. Let’s use it wisely!
33. Why does Fei Zitong want an AI friend
A. Because it never gets sick. B. Because it often has dreams.
C. Because it can fight for her. D. Because it will take care of her.
34. Which is a difference between AI and humans
A. AI can make mistakes. B. AI can feel happy or sad.
C. AI gets tired and sleepy. D. AI does not have dreams.
35. What does the underlined word “risks” mean in the last paragraph
A. Problems. B. Benefits. C. Advantages. D. Decisions.
36. What can we infer (推断) from the last two paragraphs
A. AI is always safe for everyone. B. People need to be careful with AI.
C. All AI programs help people. D. Driverless buses are bad for traffic.
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第二节 阅读短文，从方框内所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有
一个多余的选项。
Lots of teenagers use online apps now. These apps help
them chat, share photos, and see what friends are doing. A
survey found that most Chinese kids use the internet, and
half of them make new friends online. Cool, right Social
media is fun when you stay in touch with friends, share
funny cartoons, or talk about your day. But the internet isn’t
always safe. 37 .
Use hard-to-guess passwords. If your password is
“123456” or your pet’s name, bad people might guess it.
Make it tricky, like “CatDog2025!”
38 . Not everyone online is nice. Some might lie about who they
are. Never tell them your school, home address, or phone number. Those are secret
things.
Think before you post. Once you send a photo or message, it’s hard to take it
back. Don’t share things you might feel sad or sorry about later, like a silly face or
a secret.
Make your pages personal. On apps, you can set them personal so only real
friends see your posts. 39 .
Remember: The internet is fun, but safety comes first. Your parents and
teachers care about you. 40 . Stay smart, and you’ll enjoy online time
without worries!
A. Be careful with strangers.
B. Here are some simple tips.
C. Try to make friends with everyone on line.
D. That way, strangers can’t get your information.
E. So you can talk to them if something feels strange.
三、完形填空 （共 10小题，每小题 1分，满分 10分）
阅读短文，理解其大意，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Last summer, my dad wanted to take us for
a trip. We finally decided to go to Huangshan
City in Anhui. It is about 900 kilometres from
my 41 Zhengzhou to Huangshan City. The
thought of traveling so far for the first time made my
sister and me 42 .
2025-2026 (上) 八年英语期末试卷 第 7 页 （共 10 页）
It took us about ten hours to get there. We arrived at our 43 at about
8 o’clock in the evening. Then my sister and I went out for the evening sightseeing
tour. My parents felt so tired that they wanted to do 44 but stay at the
hotel.
The next morning, we got up very early and then went to Mount Huangshan.
We started to 45 it at 5:30 a.m. Two hours later, we got to Bright Peak.
The landscape from the top was wonderful. It just took our breath away. The sun
was 46 through the clouds. The clouds looked amazing. It felt like a
magical place. The trees and rocks 47 a part of a painting. We took
a lot of photos. For lunch and dinner, we had lots of local food. They all tasted
delicious, 48 the stinky mandarin fish (臭鳜鱼). On the third 49 ,
we came back home.
The trip was short, but everything there was 50 for us. We all had a
great time.
41. A. island B. hometown C. camp D. palace
42. A. angry B. honest C. excited D. worried
43. A. hotel B. city C. mountain D. street
44. A. something B. anything C. everything D. nothing
45. A. draw B. see C. climb D. treasure
46. A. flying B. shining C. moving D. passing
47. A. looked like B. tasted like C. smelled like D. sounded like
48. A. seriously B. probably C. mainly D. especially
49. A. day B. week C. month D. year
50. A. difficult B. interesting C. terrible D. different
第二部分 非选择题（共 40分）
四、语篇填空 （共 10小题，每小题 1分；满分 10分）
阅读短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内所给词的正确形式填空，使短文
通顺、连贯。
Hot dry noodles are a famous food of Wuhan.
Many old Wuhan people say they are like a “taste
of 51 (they) childhood (童年)”! In Wuhan, hot
dry noodles are 52 (actual) a special breakfast
food. People get them from small street shops before school
or work. You can, even in other 53 (city) now,
find hot dry noodles.
Once upon 54 time, a man named Li Bao had a small noodle shop in
Hankou. He sold noodles and soup to feed his family. One day, he accidentally put
2025-2026 (上) 八年英语期末试卷 第 8 页 （共 10 页）
some oil in his noodles. The next day, he boiled the noodles as usual and added
other condiments (调味品). But 55 his surprise, the noodles smelled
great. His noodles soon became very popular 56 they were so delicious.
Everyone in the neighborhood 57 (come) to buy them. Li Bao called
them hot dry noodles.
The recipe is different from cold noodles or soup noodles. First, cook the
noodles until soft, then mix with a little oil and dry them 58 (keep) the
noodles chewy (有嚼劲的). When someone 59 (order) , you can boil the
dried noodles quickly, then add green onions, carrots, and more condiments. It’s
ready in minutes— 60 (simply) but delicious.
If you go to Wuhan, don’t forget to try a bowl. You’ll taste why people have
loved it for so many years!
五、阅读与表达 （共 4小题，61-63小题，每小题 2分，64小题 4分；满分 10分）
阅读短文，然后根据内容回答问题。
People’s social ways in the past were very different from today’s.
The social way of people in the past was mainly face-to-face communication.
They showed their ideas and feelings by walking in front of others in person or by
writing letters. They spent more time communicating with others in the past. That’s
why we can see the heavy feelings between Yu Boya and Zhong Ziqi, Lian Po and
Lin Xiangru and so on.
However, the social way of today’s people depend more on the technology.
Today’s technology gives people many new social ways to make friends. These
new ways of contact make people communicate with their friends and family
anytime and pared with people in the past, today’s people don’t
need to meet their friends in person. They can communicate with others in every
part of the world just through a phone or a computer. However, although today’s
people’s social ways are easier, there is also something bad. Because of the
popularity of the Internet, people are more ready to communicate or make friends
on the Internet and pay no attention to some of their friends or families in the real
world.
As a result, today’s people should learn from the people in the past and care
more about their own families or friends in the real world.
61. What was the main social way in the past
62. Why did people in the past have heavier feelings
63. Who should today’s people care more about
64. How can you communicate better with others (Write 30 words or more. )
2025-2026 (上) 八年英语期末试卷 第 9 页 （共 10 页）
六、局部翻译（共 5小题，每空所填词数不限，每小题 1分；满分 5分）
65．多亏了这份工作，我才成了一个喜欢阅读的人。
__________________ this job, I became interested in reading.
66．露西总是忘事，出于这个原因，她不得不经常找别人借书。
Lucy always forgot things. __________________, she had to borrow books
from others.
67．你打算什么时候和苏姗和好？
When are you going to__________________ Susan
68．过去，我们一直尽最大努力帮助其他人。
In the past, we always __________________ to help others.
69．弗兰克每天都和父母分享他的学校生活。
Frank __________________ his parents every day.
七、书面表达 （满分 15分）
70. 寒假即将到来，如何度过一个有意义的假期呢？学校英语社团将举办一场主题交流
会和大家一起探讨“How to Make Our Winter Holiday More Meaningful”，分享计划，交流
心得。假如你是李华，请根据提供的思维导图用英语写一篇发言稿，并在英语社团分享。
要求:
(1)开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数；
(2)可适当增加细节，语义连贯，层次清晰；
(3)不得出现真实姓名和校名，词数 80-100。
Hi everyone,
Winter Holiday is an important part of our daily life. ____________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
Li Hua
2025-2026 (上) 八年英语期末试卷 第 10 页 （共 10 页）2025-2026 学年度（上）学期期末教学质量检测
八年英语试卷（满分 110分）
参考答案
第一部分 选择题（含听力，共 70分）
一、听力部分 （共两节，满分 20分）
1-5 ABCBC 6-10 CBABB 11-15 BCACC 16-20 BABBC
二、阅读理解 （共 20小题，每小题 2分，满分 40分）
21-24 BDAD 25-28 ADAB 29-32 CBDB 33-36 DDAB
37-40 BADE
三、完形填空 （共 10小题，每小题 1分，满分 10分）
41-45 BCADC 46-50 BADAB
第二部分 非选择题 （共 40分）
四、语篇填空 （共 10小题，每小题 1分；满分 10分）
51. their 52. actually 53. cities 54. a 55. to
56. because 57. came 58. to keep 59. orders 60. simple
五、阅读与表达 （共 4小题，61-63小题，每小题 2分，64小题 4分；满分 10分）
61. (Mainly) face-to-face communication.
62. Because they spent more time together.
/Because they spent more time communicating with others.
63. Their own families or friends in the real world.
64. I can communicate better by looking at their eyes to show I care. I listen
carefully without cutting in. I smile and say kind words like “That’s nice!” This
makes talking easy and warm for both of us. /…
注：阅读与表达为开放性试题，参考答案不唯一，凡符合题意，具有正确的价值观，语
句通顺，能清楚的表达语意，就可以给满分，不揪词汇和语法的错误。
温馨提示：语意正确应得分，但有多处严重语法错误已影响语意的表达，需酌情减分；
此题中的标点和大小写可以不扣分，但讲卷时要提醒学生注意改正。
六、局部翻译（共 5小题，每空所填词数不限，每小题 1分；满分 5分）
65. Thanks to
66. For this reason
67. make up with
68. tried our best
69. shares his school life with
注：局部翻译对则给分，不对即不得分！此题中的大小写可以不扣分，但讲卷时要提醒
学生注意改正。
2025-2026（上） 八年英语期末试卷·参考答案 第 1 页 共 2 页
七、书面表达 （满分 15分）
Hi everyone,
Winter Holiday is an important part of our daily life. To make it more meaningful,
here are some ideas.
First, the winter holiday is a great time for family to get together. It’s good to help
our parents do some housework. We may wash clothes or cook simple meals for parents.
Second, we should spend time developing our interests and hobbies. For example, I
would like to choose some books to read and communicate with others after reading.
Third, we can take part in volunteering activities, like visiting the old people’s home or
doing some cleaning in public places. Last but not least, to make ourselves healthier,
going skating is a good choice.
As the saying goes, “Time flies; seize the day.” Let’s work together to have a
wonderful and meaningful winter holiday!
Li Hua
※ 书面表达评分标准
第一档（15~13分）：符合题意要求，表达完整，条理清楚，语句通顺，语言正确无误。
第二档（12~10分）：符合题意要求，表达基本完整，条理清楚，语句较为通顺，语言基
本无误。
第三档（9~7分）：基本符合题意要求，表达基本完整，条理较清楚，语句较通顺，语言
有部分错误。
第四档（6~4分）：不符合题意要求，表达不完整，条理清楚，语言错误过多，词数不够。
第五档（3~0分）：所写内容均与要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
零分作文补充说明：不作答或非英语作答，完全抄写本试卷中语篇内容。
※书面表达评分细则: 仅供 2025-2026年模拟训练时灵活参考
作文批卷思想：重写作思维，用欣赏的态度，不纠结结构与要点的前后顺序。
不写标题
15分 整体表达流畅，有逻辑性，没有任何错误。
或每缺一项要点扣 2分
14分 整体表达流畅，有逻辑性，有 1-2处错误。
13分 整体表达流畅，有逻辑性，有 3-4处错误。 13分以上优秀（含 13分）
12分 整体表达流畅，有 5-6处错误。
11分 表达流畅，错误较多，有 7-8处错误。
10分 不够流畅，积极表达，有 9-10处错误。
9分 有关键词，其他词不达意，基本相关。 字数够、要点全：9分起评分
部分抄写，有两三句自己观点或与主题相关，80
8-6分 从 8以下开始慎重给分
词以上 10分，之后结合字数依次递减。
部分抄写，只有一句话与主题相关 5分。
5-3分
或字数够 5分，结合字数依次递减。
有字数，有相关可给分；完全抄写一点不相关即
3-0
0分。
注： 整个文章时态错误算一处错误，整体看，看内容，瑕不掩瑜。
2025-2026（上） 八年英语期末试卷·参考答案 第 2 页 共 2 页

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