贵州省毕节市2026届高三下学期高考第二次适应性考试英语试卷(含答案,无听力音频及听力原文)

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贵州省毕节市2026届高三下学期高考第二次适应性考试英语试卷(含答案,无听力音频及听力原文)

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毕节市 2026 届高三年级高考第二次适应性考试
英语
注意事项:
1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改
动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案书写在答题卡上,写
在试卷上无效。
3.请保持答题卡平整,不能折叠,考试结束后,将答题卡交回(试卷不用收回)。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分 30 分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂
到答题卡上。
第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
听下面 5 段录音。每段录音后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段录音后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。
1. What does the woman ask the man to do
A. Switch seats. B. Open the window. C. Look after the kid.
2. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. A weather report. B. A camping site. C. A weekend trip.
3. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Husband and wife. B. Brother and sister. C. Father and daughter.
4. Where does the conversation most probably take place
A. On the street. B. On a bus. C. In a supermarket.
5. What did Rob do last night
A. He played on stage. B. He had a course. C. He watched a performance.
第二节(共 15 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 22.5 分)
听下面 5 段录音。每段录音后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听每段录音前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,每小题都有 5 秒钟的作
答时间。每段录音播放两遍。
听下面的录音,回答第 6 和第 7 小题。
6. What disappoints the speakers about the film
A. The special effects. B. The storyline. C. The characters.
7. What does the woman think of the reviews of the film
A. Unreliable B. Detailed. C. Helpful.
听下面的录音,回答第 8 至第 10 小题。
8. What is the man’s problem
A. His temperature is high.
B. He wants to save energy.
C. He is too cold to do his work.
9. Where are the speakers
A. In a workplace. B. At a school. C. At the woman’s home.
10. What’s the woman’s suggestion
A. Stopping working right now.
B. Caring more about their health.
C. Discussing the issue with the leader.
听下面的录音,回答第 11 至第 13 小题。
11. When does the conversation take place
A. At the end of May. B. In early June. C. In the middle of June.
12. Where might the woman like to work
A. In a hospital. B. In a restaurant. C. In a zoo.
13. What should the woman do according to the man
A. Receive job training. B. Have a physical check. C. Learn about first aid.
听下面的录音,回答第 14 至第 17 小题。
14. Why do many people feel confused about art according to the woman
A. It is difficult to explain.
B. It has no real practical use.
C. It costs a large amount of money.
15. What does the man say about appreciating some paintings
A. First impressions matter most.
B. It varies from person to person.
C. It takes time to understand them.
16. Which of the following is the man’s opinion
A. Nature is more inspiring than art.
B. Art goes beyond what nature offers.
C. Art and nature affect people in the same way.
17. What role does the artist play according to the man
A. A storyteller of historical events.
B. A guide who conveys ideas through art.
C. A creator who copies beauty from nature.
听下面的录音,回答第 18 至第 20 小题。
18. Why did the speaker join the summer program
A. She loved nature protection.
B. She needed school credits.
C. Her friends joined it too.
19. What impressed the speaker most during the summer program
A. Cleaning trash on the beach.
B. Learning waste sorting skills.
C. Meeting a passionate scientist.
20. What change has the speaker made after the program
A. She has begun to live an eco-friendly life.
B. She has started to teach others waste sorting.
C. She has chosen to work as a full-time volunteer.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分 50 分)
第一节(共 15 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满分 37.5 分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
The World’s Most Spectacular Flower Markets
Flowers have always captivated people with their beauty, symbolizing love and hope. Across the globe, there
are massive flower markets that not only supply florists and decorators but also attract enthusiasts who appreciate
the art and commerce of flowers.
Aalsmeer Flower Auction, Netherlands
Aalsmeer Flower Auction in the Netherlands has a reputation as the largest flower auction in the world. Every
day, over 20 million flowers are traded here. It operates on a unique Dutch auction system, where prices start high
and gradually decrease until a buyer places a bid. Roses, tulips, and chrysanthemums are the most abundant. The
market is at its busiest and most impressive in the morning.
Dounan Flower Market, China
As Asia’s largest flower-trading center, Dounan Flower Market lies in Kunming, known as the “Spring City.”
The market handles up to 5 billion stems annually, with products exported worldwide. It offers a wide variety of
flowers, including lilies, orchids, and roses. The lively night market and flower-arranging workshops are
particularly popular with visitors.
Mercado de Jamaica, Mexico
Situated in Mexico City, Mercado de Jamaica boasts over 1,000 stalls and is rich in local culture. It opens
during the daytime and is best known for marigolds during the Day of the Dead celebrations. Tropical flowers and
succulents are available year-round, making it a colorful and vibrant destination for tourists. When shopping, you’d
better negotiate for better prices.
Pak Khlong Talad, Thailand
Pak Khlong Talad in Bangkok is a 24-hour market that showcases Thailand’s rich floral heritage. It offers a
variety of flowers, including orchids, lotuses, and garlands used in religious ceremonies. The best time to visit is at
night when fresh shipments arrive. Exotic tropical flowers make it a paradise for enthusiasts.
21. What is Aalsmeer Flower Auction famous for
A. Operating for 24 hours. B. Having a lively night market.
C. Being the largest flower auction. D. Exporting 5 billion flower stems annually.
22. What are visitors advised to do in Mercado de Jamaica
A. Place a bid early. B. Ask for a lower price.
C. Learn flower arranging. D. Buy flowers in the morning.
23. Where can visitors buy flowers at night
A. Dounan Flower Market and Pak Khlong Talad.
B. Dounan Flower Market and Mercado de Jamaica.
C. Aalsmeer Flower Auction and Mercado de Jamaica.
D. Aalsmeer Flower Auction and Dounan Flower Market.
B
When someone hears I always visit Mrs. Bacon, my eighth-grade English teacher, they often say, “That’s so
sweet of you to look in on your old teacher.” In fact, she has done far more for me than I could ever do for her. She
was brought into my life for a reason.
Mrs. Bacon distinguished herself on the first day by giving each student a journal. “This is for your honest
thoughts,” she explained. “Write freely. If there’s anything you don’t want to share with me, just mark it and I’ll
skip it.” This offer meant a lot. I loved writing, yet I hid my home life. My home was filled with tense arguments.
Mrs. Bacon’s class became my safe place.
Once, I came down with the flu and had to stay at home. I found my journal with a note: “Describe a day from
an observer’s perspective.” I wrote pages, finally telling the painful reality I protected myself from. That night, I
slept peacefully for the first time in months.
Back at school, a note on my journal read, “Please see me.” Anxiety struck — I’d forgotten to mark the entry
private. After class, Mrs. Bacon said gently, “I read your pages. My heart aches for you.” Over lunch, she
volunteered to tell stories of her own struggle with loss. Her openness dissolved my shame. I felt safe being just as
open and honest with her. She listened, offering a safe place without judgment. This sincere connection became my
inner strength, paving the way for the lifelong guidance she would offer me.
At the end of school year, she told me, “You have a gift for writing. I expect to witness your journey.” She
kept her word, remaining a guiding force which inspired my careers in education and writing — my first novel
was dedicated to her.
Mrs. Bacon’s deepest impact was transformative. As the first person I could wholeheartedly rely on, she led
me toward greater strength and faith.
24. Why did Mrs. Bacon give each student a journal
A. To improve their writing skills.
B. To encourage them to make up stories.
C. To help them escape family arguments.
D. To allow them to express true feelings safely.
25. Why did Mrs. Bacon share her personal struggles
A. To create mutual trust. B. To teach a life lesson.
C. To explain her sadness. D. To compare experiences.
26. What does the underlined word “dissolved” in paragraph 4 mean
A. Recorded. B. Removed. C. Understood. D. Strengthened.
27. Which best describes Mrs. Bacon’s influence on the author
A. Positive and far-reaching. B. Shallow and all-round.
C. Meaningless and life-changing. D. Inspiring and short-term.
C
Plastic has earned its bad reputation due to pollution, yet it remains fundamental to modern life — from
medicine and electronics to transportation. Its production, however, relies on fossil fuels and contributes to climate
change.
Bioplastics, often seen as a green alternative, present their own challenges. They typically require industrial
treatment to break down, and their production process often results in more carbon emissions than traditional
plastics. Growing crops for bioplastics also consumes resources like water and fertilizers, which can lead to water
pollution. Furthermore, mixing bioplastics with regular recycling can ruin streams, rivers and oceans.
A more promising solution is emerging: making plastic from carbon dioxide (CO2). “Instead of using fossil
fuel, you can turn the industry on its head by using waste carbon dioxide,” says Professor Peter Styring, who
researches this technology. This approach not only reduces fossil fuel use but also helps lower greenhouse gas
emissions by using captured CO2.
Scientists are developing special helpers to transform CO2 into various plastics. For example, companies are
already producing polyurethane foam (聚氨酯泡沫) using CO2 as a raw material. These new materials are just as
good as or even better than the quality of conventional plastics in some aspects, such as flame resistance.
Economically, using cheaper CO2 instead of traditional raw materials could save millions.
Research continues to expand the possibilities. Some teams are aiming at producing ethylene — a key
ingredient for half the world’s plastics — from CO2, water, and electricity. Others are developing safer,
sugar-based plastics for medical use. While large-scale commercial production may take years, this innovative path
offers a potential route to more sustainable plastics, addressing both waste and climate concerns.
28. What is a disadvantage of bioplastics
A. Higher production costs. B. Higher carbon footprint.
C. Complex recycling process. D. Limited product applications.
29. What can be inferred about plastics made from CO2
A. They’re the cheapest option available.
B. Their quality is worse than traditional plastics.
C. Their production technology is fully developed.
D. They bring environmental and economic benefits.
30. Why is “ethylene” mentioned in the text
A. To detail its chemical properties. B. To show its environmental harm.
C. To highlight a key research target. D. To compare it with polyurethane.
31. What can be a suitable title for the text
A. Problems of Bioplastics B. Future of Carbon Dioxide Use
C. New Path for Plastic Production D. Ending Our Dependence on Plastic
D
Have you ever wondered if animals “see the world” in the same way we do According to a new study, the
answer is no — not only do animals perceive their surroundings differently, but they also experience time itself at
greatly different speeds. The research studied 237 animal species and found that an animal’s lifestyle strongly
influences how fast it processes visual information.
The speed of visual perception (感知) is measured using a universal standard called “critical flicker fusion
(CFF)”, which refers to the fastest rate at which a flickering light can be seen as separate flashes, not a continuous
light. For instance, humans can perceive flicker (闪烁) up to about 60 flashes per second, while some birds and
insects can detect over 200 flashes. That means they see the world in much finer detail in terms of time, almost like
watching slow motion.
The study uncovered several key findings. Flying species tend to have the fastest visual processing — about
twice as fast as non-flying animals. Predators (捕 食 者 ) that chase fast-moving prey also have quicker vision
compared to animals feeding on slow or stationary food. In addition, animals active in bright daylight generally
have faster vision than those living in dark or deep-water environments. These differences are not random.
Scientists believe they are shaped by evolution to match each animal’s ecological needs. Undoubtedly, faster visual
processing brings great survival benefits: it allows animals to react instantly when flying, hunting or escaping.
However, it comes with a high cost, as rapid neural processing consumes huge amounts of energy.
The findings also raise concerns about the impacts of artificial lights, which flicker at rates invisible to humans
but may disturb animals with fast visual system by affecting their hunting success, navigation, and predator-prey
interactions.
“Understanding how animals perceive time helps us understand how they behave, evolve, and respond to
environmental change,” said lead author Dr Haarlem. “It also reminds us that the world we experience is just one
version of many.”
32. What is CFF according to the text
A. The point of light invisible to animals.
B. The number of light flashes per second.
C. The frequency of light flickering in nature.
D. The standard for visual perception speed.
33. Which of the animals processes visual information fastest
A. An eagle. B. A fish. C. A snake. D. A tiger.
34. What negative effect may artificial lights have on animals
A. They make all animals lose their way.
B. They prevent animals from hunting.
C. They disturb animals’ survival activities.
D. They do harm to animals’ visual system.
35. What do Dr Haarlem’s words imply
A. Humans perceive time in the most advanced way.
B. The real world is far more diverse than humans perceive.
C. Animals experience the world in the same way as humans do.
D. Animals’ perception of time decides their living environment.
第二节(共 5 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满分 12.5 分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Reading: A Secret to Health and Long Life
Are you looking for a simple habit that can transform your health 36 You may know the joy of
reading, but there are even more unexpected ways reading will positively affect your body and mind.
● 37
Studies prove regular book readers live nearly two years longer than non-readers. Reading lowers stress and
provides a sense of social connection, both vital for healthy aging. Reading books for more than 3.5 hours per week
is linked to a 20% lower risk of death. Even 15 minutes of reading before bed can calm your nervous system,
helping you sleep better and live longer.
● You can boost brain power with daily reading.
Reading builds mental strength, which helps protect your brain to resist age-related decline. It also sharpens
working memory, attention, and empathy by placing you in different characters’ lives. Treat reading like everyday
exercise — just 10 to 30 minutes a day strengthens mental skills over time. 38
● You can start reading from birth for lifelong health.
39 Reading aloud with babies and young children helps their brains grow and reduces harmful stress.
Doctors and nurses should encourage shared reading beginning from birth as a cost-effective, evidence-based
strategy to lay the foundation for lifelong health. Children who see books as comfort and connection often carry the
habit into adulthood.
● You can make reading a simple habit.
The secret to getting the most from reading is doing it often, not reading a lot at once. 40 Choose
books you truly love, schedule short reading time, and remember — it is never too late to start. Each page is an
investment in a longer, healthier life — start today.
A. The benefits of reading begin early.
B. Reading may be just the thing you need.
C. You can live longer by reading regularly.
D. You can read as much as possible every day.
E. Experts agree that small, enjoyable daily routines matter most.
F. The more you challenge yourself with books, the healthier you become.
G. This daily mental workout protects your brain and boosts focus and strength.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分 30 分)
第一节(共 15 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
“Do you remember me ” That Friday email came 34 years after we first met. “I think of you often,” I replied.
How could I 41 Andrea She was the 8-year-old girl I met on the night of a 1990 plane 42 . That
evening changed us both.
43 to the hospital, I found the emergency room 44 with an unknown number of survivors,
some crying, some 45 and others staring blankly in sorrow. In the ICU, an injured girl 46 , “Am I
going to die ” “No,” I replied. With a look of 47 that I’ll never forget, she asked, “May I go to sleep ” I
nodded.
During her hospital stay, I brought her picture books and sat with her through nightmares. She often held my
hand 48 , afraid I’d leave. One night, she drew me a small flower on a napkin and smiled, “This is for you,
so you never forget me.” Gradually, we formed a deep 49 .
I visited her three times daily. She would call out my name — “Fornari!” at the 50 of me. After
51 , she returned to her homeland. Nine years later, at 17, she visited me and 52 her dream — to help
children as I had helped her — 53 by the care she’d received.
Years later, she emailed me: “I thought of how I fell out of the sky, and how you 54 me.” We spoke
on video for 30 minutes. I was left feeling humbled and grateful for having connection with this child. As a doctor,
I often wonder whether I’ve made a 55 in patients’ lives. With Andrea, I know.
41. A. believe B. forget C. recognize D. accept
42. A. trip B. route C. crash D. delay
43. A. Rushing B. Wandering C. Calling D. Sending
44. A. equipped B. packed C. covered D. dotted
45. A. laughing B. jumping C. running D. weeping
46. A. shouted B. remarked C. whispered D. announced
47. A. confusion B. fear C. sadness D. relief
48. A. gently B. slightly C. tightly D. happily
49. A. insight B. bond C. agreement D. gap
50. A. sight B. thought C. sound D. call
51. A. treatment B. research C. operation D. recovery
52. A. realized B. remembered C. shared D. achieved
53. A. inspired B. moved C. persuaded D. reminded
54. A. caught B. saw C. taught D. found
55. A. decision B. choice C. mistake D. difference
第二节(共 10 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Peking opera 56 (be) one of China’s most treasured cultural heritages over the past 200 years. In an
era dominated by digital entertainment, the ancient art is experiencing a remarkable return, thanks to the 57
(devote) of young performers like Zhang Wanting. This actress shows the combination of centuries-old tradition
with modern appeal, 58 (demonstrate) how classical art forms can remain relevant today.
Zhang’s command of the “chair trick”, a 59 (represent) move of the Song School, stands for the strict
training required in this art form. This trick, 60 involves complex balancing and posing on a narrow chair
handle, demands years of hard practice and represents the highest level of physical control and art expression in
Peking opera.
Despite facing fierce competition from modern forms of entertainment, Peking opera continues to attract
audiences through 61 (it) unique mix of music, body movement, dance, and acrobatics (杂技). Young
62 (art) like Zhang are at the forefront (前 沿 ) of this cultural preservation, adding fresh understanding to
traditional techniques 63 (ensure) the continued value and appeal.
The lasting charm of Peking opera lies not just in its great displays of skill, 64 in its ability to convey
deep emotions through special performance. As Zhang and her peers show, the art form’s capacity to evolve while
keeping its core traditions is the key 65 its survival and growth in the digital age.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分 40 分)
第一节(满分 15 分)
假定你是李华。你的外国朋友 Chris 在社交媒体上看到你分享的班级三月活动照片,发邮件表示好奇。请你
用英语给他回复一封邮件,内容包括:
1.简述一项春日主题活动及其具体细节;
2.活动的意义和启发。
注意:
(1)写作词数应为 80 个左右;
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Chris,
Best wishes,
Li Hua
第二节(满分 25 分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Born and raised in the US, I often heard my father talk about the history, ancient traditions and warm-hearted
people of his homeland — China. When he shared those, his eyes always lit up, which planted a seed of curiosity
in my heart. At 18, I went to China as an exchange student, eager to explore the country he loved. I had thought the
journey would be easy, yet cultural gaps soon made me feel lost and out of place.
Those subtle differences between my life in the US and here soon made daily life feel like a series of small
challenges. Every morning when I walked into the classroom, classmates would lean over and ask, “Did you sleep
well last night ” or “What did you have for breakfast ” I’d freeze for a second, not knowing how to respond. In the
US, we’d just nod and say “Hi” without digging into such personal details. I’d mumble a quick “Fine” and hurry to
my seat, not knowing the “right” ways to reply.
I also struggled with the use of chopsticks and misread a classmate’s kind reminder as a criticism. All these
small discomforts piled up, leaving me confused and lonely. One night, I couldn’t hold back anymore and called
my father, pouring out all my frustration and confusion. He gently said, “It’s not about fitting in, but understanding.”
Hearing his words, I realized what matters. I decided to embrace Chinese culture with an open heart. I turned
to my father for more stories about his hometown, spending 30 minutes every morning learning Chinese characters.
My Chinese friends taught me how to use chopsticks properly, took me to try local snacks, and explained the
meaning behind some idioms.
注意:
(1)续写词数应为 150 左右;
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Gradually, I came to understand Chinese culture.
Back in the US, I couldn’t wait to share this experience with my classmates.保密★启用前
毕节市2026届高三年级高考第二次适应性考试
英语参考答案及评分建议
第一部分听力
(1一20题:共20小题,每小题1.5分;满分30分)
1-5 ACBBA
6-10 BACAC
11-15 ABCBC
16-20 BBCCA
第二部分阅读理解
(21一40题:共20小题,每小题2.5分;满分50分)
21-25 CBADA
26-30 BABDC
31-35 CDACB
36-40 BCGAE
第三部分语言运用
第一节完形填空
(41一55题:共15小题,每小题1分;满分15分)
41-45 BCABD
46-50 CDCBA
51-55 DCAAD
第二节语法填空
(56-65题:共10小题,每小题1.5分;满分15分)
56.has been
57.devotion
58.demonstrating 59.representative
60.which
61.its
62.artists
63.to ensure
64.but
65.to
第四部分写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【范文仅供参考,内容符合题目要求即可。】
Dear Chris,
I hope this email finds you well!I'm so glad you're interested in the photos from the March
event of our class.
We organized a meaningful activity called "Spring Warmth Action."Last Friday,we visited a
local nursing home and presented performances we had prepared,such as singing and storytelling.
After that,we chatted with the elderly,listened to their life stories and helped tidy up their rooms.
The warm smiles on their faces truly touched us all.
This experience was really rewarding.Not only did this experience remind us that small acts
of kindness can make a big difference,but it also brought us the joy of caring for others.
Best wishes,
Li Hua
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