江西吉安市2026届高三下学期3月模拟考试(一模)英语试卷(含答案,含听力音频无听力原文)

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江西吉安市2026届高三下学期3月模拟考试(一模)英语试卷(含答案,含听力音频无听力原文)

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2026 年全市高三模拟考试 2026.3
英 语 试 题
(测试时间:120 分钟 卷面总分:150 分)
注意事项:
1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改
动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在
本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节;满分 30 分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上,录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷
的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
例:How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是 C。
1. What does the man promise to do
A. Watch a match. B. Drive the woman. C. Arrive on time.
2. Where are the speakers probably
A. In a library. B. In a bookstore. C. In a classroom.
3. What does the man prefer to do
A. Eat snacks. B. Climb hills. C. Go hiking.
4. How much has the man paid already
A. $4.9. B. $9.8. C. $19.6.
5. What does Emma mean in the end
A. She will wait for the man.
B. She will buy some school supplies.
C. She will solve the whiteboard problems.
第二节(共 15 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 22.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,
并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小
题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料,回答第 6 至 7 题。
6. Where did the crash take place
A. Near a school gate. B. At a street crossing. C. In a skateboard park.
7. What did the guard think caused the crash
A. The slippery ground. B. The careless skateboarder. C. The missing warning sign.
听第 7 段材料,回答第 8 至 10 题。
8. How did the woman learn about the robot competition
A. From WeChat Moments. B. From a poster. C. From an email.
9. What does the man think of the robot competition
A. It is highly creative. B. It is great fun for kids. C. It is worthless watching.
10. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Father and daughter. B. Teacher and student. C. Classmates.
听第 8 段材料,回答第 11 至 13 题。
11. When can Ms. Green give Bob medicine for his previous problem
A. Today. B. Tomorrow. C. The day after tomorrow.
12. What was Bob’s trouble yesterday afternoon
A. A headache. B. A backache. C. A stomachache.
13. What can we infer from the conversation
A. Bob will go home immediately.
B. Ms. Green will let Bob rest in the clinic.
C. Bob’s discomfort is probably homesickness.
听第 9 段材料,回答第 14 至 17 题。
14. What is the woman probably
A. A host. B. A doctor. C. A nutritionist.
15. What do many people have for breakfast in some northern parts of China
A. Eggs and lean meat. B. Seafood and milk. C. Porridge only.
16. Why do some people feel surprised according to the conversation
A. Someone dislikes eating seafood.
B. Someone avoids milk before bedtime.
C. Someone mainly has eggs for breakfast.
17. Which best describes Dr. Smith’s view on regional diet differences
A. Natural. B. Strange. C. Harmful.
听第 10 段材料,回答第 18 至 20 题。
18. Where was World Music Day first launched
A. In France. B. In America. C. In Germany.
19. What will tonight’s lecture mainly cover
A. The global history of World Music Day.
B. Historical accounts of well-known musicians.
C. Plans for future music celebrations in schools.
20. What does the speaker mainly tell us
A. Various global celebrations of World Music Day.
B. The role of UNESCO in promoting music culture.
C. The achievements of the famous music historian Moore.
第二部分 阅读(共两节;满分 50 分)
第一节(共 15 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满分 37.5 分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Smart devices aren’t magic; they’re just connected machines with intelligent systems to help you work more
efficiently and save time and money. They don’t directly lower the cost of heating your home or washing your
clothes, but they do help you make better choices that bring great savings.
Take, for example, a smart plug (插头) in the basement that controls a wall heater: it is a 1500W unit, and in
the winter, it usually runs for a few hours per day as needed. With the smart plug, you can make sure it’s off at
night and when you leave the house without having to remember to turn it off by hand. If it is used even one hour
less per day, that adds up to $8 in savings per month—enough to quickly cover the cost of the smart plug itself.
Devices and thermostats (恒温器) with built-in smart technology can be even more cost-efficient, since they
can operate during off-peak hours or learn from your daily habits.
Typical cost savings of common smart devices
Average savings
Device Smart vs. standard Savings percent Notes
per year
Mostly from cold cycles and Smart washer $900 vs. $600 $20 - $35 10% to 15%
off-peak use
Heat pump and scheduling Smart dryer $1,000 vs. $700 $25 - $50 15% to 20%
combination
Minor direct savings; more Smart fridge $2,000 vs. $1,200 $10 - $20 5% to 10%
convenience
Smart plug and Cuts wasted power from
$25 vs. $10 $10 - $15 —
power board devices
Note that while the costs listed are typical regular prices, many affordable smart devices are likely available
from your energy provider at a huge discount.
21. What can help cover the cost of the smart plug quickly
A. Running it at night. B. Turning it off by yourself.
C. Using it during off-peak hours. D. Reducing its daily use by one hour.
22. Which device saves most yearly according to the table
A. Smart washer. B. Smart fridge. C. Smart dryer. D. Smart plug.
23. What is the author’s purpose in writing the text
A. To list data. B. To prove value. C. To teach skills. D. To compare prices.
B
For more than three decades, Dr. Singhal lived in a world where she used medical images to help treat her
patients. But in January 2025, she made a remarkable change, stepping away from clinical practice and into
contemporary art.
Her background in radiology (影像学) continues to inform how she sees and paints the world. Years spent
reading shadows and changes of thickness sharpened her eyes for structure, depth, and the fine architectures hidden
beneath the surface. “In many ways, I still read images,” she reflects, “just with a different purpose now.”
For Dr. Singhal, painting is a form of deep thought. Each movement slows the breath, centers the mind, and
creates a quiet space of reflection. Where medicine healed bodies, art now develops inner landscapes both for her
and her viewers. “If a painting helps someone pause, breathe, or reconnect with themselves, then it has done what I
intended,” she says.
Dr. Singhal’s artistic journey is filled with remarkable energy. Her first year as a full-time artist has been
marked by a dynamic series of group exhibitions that traced her rise at home and abroad. She first appeared on the
national stage in July 2025. Her path soon crossed borders. Her artworks were introduced to foreign countries,
where audiences connected deeply with the emotional impact of her pieces. In December, she held her first private
exhibition, which, more than a display, was a reflection of her year-long development.
The praises and criticisms along the way have made her modest and mature. At an international group show, a
visitor once asked in disbelief, “Is this really your first year ” When she confirmed it, the visitor smiled and said,
“Then your soul has been painting much longer.” It is a thought she carries with her, a reminder that passion often
comes before practice, waiting quietly for the right moment to emerge.
24. What does painting mainly mean to Dr. Singhal
A. A process of scientific training.
B. A way to treat physical illnesses.
C. A method to gain public recognition.
D. A form of calm reflection and inner healing.
25. What does the visitor’s comment imply
A. Singhal needs more technical practice.
B. Singhal should have started painting earlier.
C. Singhal’s artistic talent is naturally rooted.
D. Singhal’s first-year success was a pure accident.
26. Which of the followings can best describe Dr. Singhal
A. A traditional and cautious learner. B. A determined and insightful pioneer.
C. A socially popular and talkative speaker. D. A financially driven and ambitious seller.
27. What is the best title for the text
A. A Doctor’s New Path in Art B. A Well-known Artist’s Life
C. The Challenges of Career Change D. The Public Recognition of a New Artist
C
People have become used to living with AI fairly quickly, which has changed the way many of us
communicate or deal with information. It has also led to serious concerns about jobs. Surely mass unemployment is
coming soon
But economic data tell a different story: EU unemployment is at a historical low of around 6%, half the level
of ten years ago; the UK’s is even lower at 5.1%, roughly the level of the fast-growing early 2000s; that of the US
is lower still at 4.4%. Jobs remain plentiful because technology creates new types of jobs.
But yes, AI will take away some jobs. A third of Americans worry they will lose theirs to AI, and many of
them will be right. Since the industrial revolution, a wave of innovations has fueled extraordinary exponential
economic growth. However, AI, like the computer, the internet, or the railways, is a slow revolution. And just as
there has been no immediate AI boom when it comes to economic growth, there is no immediate change in
employment. What we see instead are largely firms using AI as an excuse for standard job-cutting exercises. This
then leads to a different question about how AI will affect the meaning of our jobs.
Another question raised by AI is whether it will reduce or increase the inequality between workers. At first,
many thought that allowing everyone to use an AI assistant with skills in processing information or clear
communication would decrease earning inequality. But other recent research found the opposite, with highly skilled
businessmen gaining the most from using AI support. One reason for this is that taking advice is a skill in itself. In
my own research with colleagues, we found that giving chess players top-quality advice does little to close the gap
between the best and the worst because lower-ability players were less likely to follow high-quality advice. And
perhaps that’s the biggest risk AI brings: that some people may benefit from it much more than others.
28. What do the economic data show
A. Mass unemployment is coming soon.
B. EU unemployment is higher than America’s.
C. Technology has cut job opportunities sharply.
D. The UK’s unemployment matches the 1990s level.
29. What does the underlined word “exponential” in paragraph 3 mean
A. Rapid. B. Steady. C. Irregular. D. Unbalanced.
30. What can we infer about companies’ job cuts
A. They result from AI’s direct influence.
B. They are often done under the excuse of AI.
C. They make jobs more meaningful for workers.
D. They cause an immediate employment change.
31. How does the author develop his idea in the last paragraph
A. By quoting authoritative figures in the field.
B. By analyzing the cause and effect of inequality.
C. By explaining why people disagree with each other.
D. By presenting contrasting views and providing examples.
D
A new study reveals that tropical (热带的) forests can recover almost twice as quickly from tree cutting when
their soils contain enough nitrogen (氮). The findings emphasize the critical role that underground conditions play
in determining the speed of forest regrowth after land clearance.
In the largest and longest-running experiment of its kind, scientists led by the University of Leeds investigated
how nutrition influences this recovery process in tropical regions previously cleared for logging or agriculture. The
team monitored tree growth and death across 76 forest areas of varying ages and sizes for over 20 years. To find
out the role of specific nutrition, they subjected these areas to different treatments: some received nitrogen
fertilizer, others phosphorus (磷 ), a third group received both, while a control group was left untreated. This
arrangement allowed for a direct comparison of forest responses under varying soil nutrition conditions.
The results were striking: soil nutrition significantly affects regrowth rates. During the first decade of
recovery, forests with enough nitrogen came back at roughly twice the rate of those low in it. Phosphorus alone,
however, did not produce a comparable growth-increasing effect.
Lead author Wenguang Tang highlighted the broader effects: “Our findings are exciting because they suggest
we could enhance the absorption and storage of greenhouse gases through smarter tree planting—simply by
managing the nutrition availability for trees.”
Although the experiment used nitrogen fertilizer, the researchers do not recommend directly fertilizing natural
forests. Instead, they propose more practical choices. Forest managers could, for example, plant leguminous
(bean-bearing) trees, which naturally fix nitrogen into the soil. Another strategy is to focus on tree planting in areas
where nitrogen from air pollution has already built up to enough concentrations in the ground.
Principal investigator Dr. Sarah added a note of caution: “Preventing the tree cutting of mature tropical forests
must remain the top priority. However, as policymakers look to restore forests to make full use of carbon storage,
our insights into how nutrition impacts carbon storage are crucial.”
32. What mainly affects the speed of forest recovery
A. The nitrogen level in the soil.
B. The age and size of forest areas.
C. The types of trees planted after logging.
D. The amount of rainfall in tropical regions.
33. Why was a control group set up in the experiment
A. To speed up forest regrowth.
B. To test phosphorus’ effect alone.
C. To compare different fertilizer brands.
D. To show results without added nutrition.
34. What might be a practical way to aid forest recovery according to the study
A. Avoiding tree planting in regions with air pollution.
B. Planting trees that can increase soil nitrogen naturally.
C. Selecting areas with the lowest existing nitrogen levels.
D. Applying chemical fertilizers directly to natural forests.
35. What can be concluded from the lead author and the principal investigator’s statements
A. They hold opposing views on stopping tree cutting.
B. They regard phosphorus as more vital than nitrogen.
C. They focus on different aspects of forest protection.
D. They consider fertilizing natural forests the best method.
第二节 (共 5 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满分 12.5 分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Many of us remember childhoods spent outdoors, when friendships were built on playgrounds. Now, we are
raising children whose closest connections often lie behind a screen. For many youths, a smartphone is their social
lifeline, diary, classroom, and sometimes even their helper. For parents, competing with technology designed to
attract attention can feel impossible. 36
Children do not always need to be corrected; they need to be heard and understood. Often, it is not what we
say but how we say it that determines whether a conversation turns into a conflict. Instead of pointing out, “You’re
always on your phone,” try asking, “ 37 ” or “What do you like about this app ” The goal is to show
curiosity, not criticism. When they feel judged, they usually pull away, but if they feel heard, they are more likely
to open up.
38 If we ask them to put down their devices while constantly checking our own, the message becomes
mixed. Setting aside “device-free” family hours or showing that you can switch off your own device helps them see
that balance is not about limits but about choices.
Rules around screen time work best when they are built with, not for, your children. 39 For example,
keeping phones off the table during meals or away from bedrooms before bedtime can help everyone—parents
included—disconnect and restart. These daily routines become foundations of family ties in a fast-paced world.
Family education in the age of TikTok is not about keeping up with every trend or decoding (弄懂) every app.
40 The digital world will continue to develop, yet our influence as parents remains strong. When we change
from fear to curiosity, we teach our children how to handle technology with kindness and balance, strengthening
the family tie that will carry them through every stage of their lives.
A. What are you watching
B. It is about staying connected.
C. But perhaps that is where the change begins.
D. When do you think you owe it to yourself to stop
E. Children often learn more from what we do than what we say.
F. Involve them in deciding when and how screens fit into family life.
G. Encourage hobbies or volunteering—anything that helps them build confidence.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节;满分 30 分)
第一节(共 15 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
While shopping, I kept hearing a young child crying loudly. When I 41 the self-checkout area, the
mother was in the line next to me, her child still crying. Other customers in line rolled their eyes and shook their
heads 42 .
After 43 my purchases, I mentioned to the couple behind me that I had no kids and that being a
mother must be the 44 job. They agreed with me and we exchanged looks of 45 for the mom. I
decided to buy her a candy bar. The couple behind me 46 the idea, so I gave a Reese’s bar to the mother,
saying she might need it. She was moved to tears. The customers around looked at me with 47 .
I noticed her basket was mostly filled with kids’ medicine and food. I 48 to cover her things, but she
politely refused. I told her she deserved 49 that day.
I helped scan and 50 her goods while she comforted her child. A woman showed the child photos on
her phone, 51 the child down. When I used my card, two other strangers gave me 52 to share the
cost.
I was touched that the strangers 53 to support this struggling mother. This experience completely
54 me up and changed my whole day, even though I had also been feeling 55 that morning. It gave me
warmth and hope.
41. A. imagined B. reached C. described D. checked
42. A. impatiently B. unexpectedly C. disorderly D. abnormally
43. A. going through B. sorting out C. giving away D. paying for
44. A. funniest B. riskiest C. toughest D. coolest
45. A. sympathy B. regret C. sorrow D. trust
46. A. advanced B. praised C. considered D. accepted
47. A. caution B. determination C. acknowledgement D. curiosity
48. A. decided B. managed C. offered D. preferred
49. A. kindness B. success C. honour D. credit
50. A. market B. bag C. brand D. ship
51. A. laying B. holding C. patting D. calming
52. A. opportunity B. service C. cash D. reason
53. A. united B. promised C. struggled D. prepared
54. A. tightened B. stirred C. broke D. cheered
55. A. scared B. confident C. upset D. satisfied
第二节(共 10 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
I’ve lived beside a highway for my entire life. No matter which highway I live along, one common factor
remains the same: too much rubbish, 56 (especial) that thrown from car windows as drivers pass by.
In October, I conducted a cleanup event. Five students came out to help pick up rubbish, 57 (end) up
with two large bags. It wasn’t a big event, 58 was it the kind of eye-catching climate action that makes
headlines, but small things like this add up over time. It takes many hands to make a difference to a small area,
59 now contributes to a cleaner, more visually pleasant environment because some of the rubbish 60
(remove).
If you’re passionate about the environment and keeping our 61 (surround) rubbish-free, I encourage
you to hold your own cleanup event! You just need to figure out which area to hold it 62 .
The change can start with you, and it’s only one step away. We first have to care about the environment
63 (we) if we want others to care, which will ideally lead to a healthier Earth. This planet, 64 (gift) to
us with so much, has taken care of us for thousands of years. I think it’s high time 65 we, as a collective,
began to return the favor.
第四部分 写作(共两节;满分 40 分)
第一节 书面表达(满分 15 分)
你校英文广播站发起“Old Things, New Value”主题征稿活动,旨在号召师生用旧物改造美化校园。请
你写一篇英语短文投稿,内容包括:
1. 你的具体做法;
2. 改造带来的校园变化;
3. 呼吁大家积极参与进来。
注意:
1. 写作词数应为 80 个左右;
2. 题目已为你写好。
Old Things, New Value
第二节 读后续写(满分 25 分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Julie let out a laugh as she playfully tapped Robert with her lightweight jacket—she’d only meant to joke with
him gently, never to hurt him. But Robert reacted sharply: he stepped back in pain, holding his left shoulder and
tears welling up in his eyes. Their teacher Mr. Mobley noticed the noise and walked over. Soon, Robert was sent to
the nurse’s office, while Julie returned to the classroom, confused and uneasy.
Julie tried to focus on the spelling lesson, but her mind wandered. A sudden knock interrupted the class; a
student volunteer handed Mr. Mobley a note from the office. All eyes fixed on the teacher, as office notes usually
meant trouble. Sure enough, Mr. Mobley told Julie to take her belongings and go to Principal Sinclair’s office
immediately. Embarrassed and panicked, she grabbed her jacket and headed out, wondering how it could cause
harm.
Sliding her hands into the jacket pockets, she felt a hard, round object—her new yo-yo. Her legs went weak,
realizing it was the yo-yo, not the jacket, that had hurt Robert. Reaching the office, she was called in at once. The
principal informed her that Robert had a shoulder bump (肿块). His mother was upset and took him to the doctor.
Julie waited anxiously for her mother, fearing punishment as she’d always been a straight-A student. When
her mother arrived, Julie described the whole story, admitting she’d joked about Robert. Unexpectedly, her mother
didn’t blame her. Instead, she hugged Julie tightly and shared that she’d once bitten a boy at school on purpose,
calling themselves “troublemakers” with a smile. Julie laughed through her tears, feeling relieved.
The next day, Robert was back at school, with a slight bump on his shoulder. Julie apologized immediately.
But Julie still felt guilty—she wanted to ensure he wasn’t really angry.
注意:
1. 续写词数应为 150 左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Weeks later, a class picnic was announced, and thinking of Robert, Julie hesitated to invite him.
As the picnic ended, Julie walked beside Robert on the way home.
2026 年全市高三模拟考试 2026.3
英语试题参考答案
第一部分 听力
1-5 BACCB 6-10 BBACB 11-15 CACAC 16-20 BAABA
第二部分 阅读
第一节
21-23 DCB 24-27 DCBA 28-31 BABD 32-35 ADBC
第二节
36-40 CAEFB
第三部分 语言运用
第一节
41-45 BADCA 46-50 BCCAB 51-55 DCADC
第二节
56. especially 57. ending 58. nor 59. which 60. has been removed
61. surroundings 62. in 63. ourselves 64. gifted 65. that
第四部分 写作
第一节
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为 15 分,按 5 个档次给分;
2. 评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,
最后给分;
3. 词数少于 60 词或多于 100 词的,从总分中减去 2 分;
4. 评分时,应注意的主要内容为:时态、人称、内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性、上下
文的连贯性、语言的得体性及应用文体裁格式;
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及
词汇用法均可接受;
6. 如书写较差,以致影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档(13—15 分)
1. 完全完成了试题规定的任务;
2. 覆盖所有内容要点;
3. 应用了较多的语法结构和词汇;
4. 语法或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或词汇所致;
5. 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑;
6. 完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档(10—12 分)
1. 完成了试题规定的任务;
2. 虽漏掉一两个次要点,但覆盖所有主要内容;
3. 应用的语法结构和词汇方面能满足任务的要求;
4. 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致;
5. 应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑;
6. 达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档(7—9 分)
1. 基本完成了试题规定的任务;
2. 虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容;
3. 应用的语法结构和词汇方面基本能满足任务的要求;
4. 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解;
5. 应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文内容连贯;
6. 整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档(4—6 分)
1. 未恰当完成试题规定的任务;
2. 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容;
3. 语法结构单调,词汇知识有限;
4. 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解;
5. 较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性;
6. 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档(l—3 分)
1. 未完成试题规定的任务;
2. 明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求;
3. 语法结构单调,词汇知识很有限;
4. 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解;
5. 缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯;
6. 信息未能传达给读者。
不得分(0 分)
—未能传达给读者任何信息;
—内容太少,无法评判。所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
说明:
1. 内容要点可用不同方式表达;
2. 应紧扣主题,可适当发挥。
One possible version:
Old Things, New Value
To make the most of old items, I usually turn worn-out clothes into lovely bags and pen holders. I put them in
the school reading room, and they benefit both teachers and students.
Such small yet meaningful practices have breathed new life into our campus. Not only do they add warmth to
the otherwise dull corners, but they also raise awareness of environmental protection.
Every bit of effort will make our campus a more lively place. So don’t hesitate to join hands and embrace this
eco-friendly lifestyle together!
第二节
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分 25 分,按以下 5 个档次给分;
2. 评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,
最后给分;
3. 评分时,应注意的主要内容为:与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度;内容的丰富性和创新性;应用语
法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性;上下文的连贯性;
4. 词数少于 120 的或者多于 180 的,从总分中减去 2 分;
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及
词汇用法均可接受;
6. 如书写较差,以致影响交际,建议酌情扣分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档(21—25 分)
1. 与所给短文融洽度高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理;
2. 内容丰富;
3. 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑,表达合理。
第四档(16—20 分)
1. 与所给短文融洽度较高,与段落开头衔接较为合理;
2. 内容比较丰富;
3. 比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑,表达合理。
第三档(11—15 分)
1. 与所给短文关系较为密切,与段落开头有一定程度的衔接;
2. 写出了若干有关内容;
3. 应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文内容连贯,表达基本合理。
第二档(6—10 分)
1. 与所给短文有一定的关系,与段落开头有一定程度的衔接;
2. 写出了一些有关内容;
3. 较少使用语句间连接成分,全文内容缺少连贯性,表达不够合理。
第一档(1—5 分)
1. 与段落开头语衔接较差;
2. 写出内容太少;
3. 全文内容不连贯,表达不合理。
不得分(0 分)
—白卷;内容太少,无法判断或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
One possible version:
Weeks later, a class picnic was announced, and thinking of Robert, Julie hesitated to invite him. The memory
of hurting him still stayed, making her worried that he might hate her. She spent a whole night making a
hand-drawn card with a yo-yo pattern and preparing his favorite strawberry cookies, wanting to express her
apology again. On the picnic day, she gathered up all her courage to walk toward Robert. Seeing her approaching,
Robert turned around with a gentle smile, which eased her nervousness instantly. She handed Robert the card and
cookies, hoping that Robert could accept her apology.
As the picnic ended, Julie walked beside Robert on the way home. The setting sun cast warm light on them,
and Robert talked about his experience at the doctor’s, saying the injury healed quickly with his mother’s care. He
mentioned that he knew Julie hadn’t meant to hurt him. Julie felt a weight lift off her chest, realizing true friendship
wasn’t easily broken by mistakes. This small incident taught her that the courage to make up and apologize could
strengthen relationships, and imperfection was part of growing up.

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