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2026 届高三模拟考试
英语试题
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需
改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写
在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂
到答题卡上。
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听下面 5 段录音。每段录音后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段录音后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。
1. What does the man offer to do
A. Make a delivery. B. Buy some milk. C. Contact the milkman.
2. Why does the man recommend CellMart
A. It offers affordable prices. B. It can fix up the cell phone. C. It’s near the woman’s office.
3. What does the man mean
A. He will send for the suit. B. He has collected the suit. C. He called the dry-cleaner’s.
4. What are the speakers talking about
A. The bright moon. B. The short winter. C. The snow scenery.
5. What did the woman fail to do
A. Send her information. B. Get the man’s schedule. C. Book the flight.
第二节（共 15 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分）
听下面 5 段录音。每段录音后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听每段录音前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的
作答时间。每段录音播放两遍。
听第 6 段录音，回答第 6、7 题。
6. Who is probably the man
A. A biologist. B. An explorer. C. A tour guide.
7. What can the participants do every few days
A. Telephone their family. B. Deal with emergencies. C. Contact people by email.
听第 7 段录音，回答第 8、9 题。
8. What do we know about Cassie
A. She is new to the company. B. She works unpaid overtime. C. She has a day off on Friday.
9. Why is the monthly meeting held
A. To share working experience. B. To update the field knowledge. C. To make a monthly work plan.
听第 8 段录音，回答第 10 至 13 题。
10. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Teacher and student. B. Classmates. C. Colleagues.
11. What does the man think of doing a project on rainforests
A. Unattractive. B. Educational. C. Acceptable.
12. What is the woman’s attitude toward the man’s suggestion
A. Uncertain. B. Favorable. C. Critical.
13. What does the man decide to do
A. Surf the Internet for ideas. B. Organize some activities. C. Talk to the headmaster.
听第 9 段录音，回答第 14 至 17 题。
14. What does the man think is the worst thing of his job
A. Making people satisfied. B. Working long hours. C. Serving various people.
15. What happens this Monday
A. Many foreigners appear. B. The restaurant closes late. C. People celebrate a holiday.
16. Who can help the man improve his service
A. The local customers. B. The British customers. C. The Spanish customers.
17. What does the man find tough
A. Dishonest customers. B. Special cooking requests. C. Complaints from customers.
听第 10 段录音，回答第 18 至 20 题。
18. Why is the Magician’s Pyramid special
A. It has rounded sides. B. It’s the largest pyramid. C. It was built overnight.
19. How did the Magician’s Pyramid get its name
A. From its site. B. From its design. C. From a tale.
20. What will the speaker talk about next
A. What ball games were held at the court.
B. How the Magician’s Pyramid was built.
C. When the ball games will take place.
第二部分 阅读（共两节；满分 50 分）
第一节（共 15 小题；每小题 2.5 分,满分 37.5 分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Following the successful launch of its inaugural year in 2024, the China Daily Global Impact Writing
Challenge returns for 2025-2026. Open to students all over world, the Challenge invites young voices to engage
with global issues through the lens of the UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
Centering on the theme “Me and the SDGs,” this year’s Challenge encourages young people to explore how
data, innovation and global cooperation can turn goals into real-world progress. By combining independent
thinking with clear English expression, participants are encouraged to think critically, research deeply and express
their own perspectives on the issues that matter most to our shared future.
The 2025-2026 Challenge is grounded in the United Nations 17 Sustainable Development Goals, which
provide the overarching framework for all writing topics. To help students engage with the SDGs in a structured
and accessible way, the goals are organized into five thematic directions:
* Humanities and Society
* Ecology and Environment
* Economy and Policy
* Science, Technology and Engineering
* Interdisciplinary Integration
Within each thematic direction, two essay questions are designed to reflect different levels of academic
maturity, allowing participants to select topics that best match their age, experience and analytical ability.
Organizer
China Daily Global Edition (USA)
Eligibility
The Challenge is open to students worldwide, including junior high school students, high school students, and
first-and second-year college students.
Topics and judging criteria are designed to match participants’ academic levels, ensuring fairness, challenge
and meaningful engagement.
Schedule
Registration: Jan 12-Mar 31, 2026
Submission: Apr 1-Apr 15, 2026
Judging & Results: Apr 16-May 1, 2026
Language
All submissions must be written in English.
Entry Fee
399 RMB
21. What does this year’s Challenge focus on
A. The students’ scientific findings. B. The students’ language abilities.
C. The students’ roles in the SDGs. D. The students’ academic maturity.
22. Why are two essay questions designed for each thematic direction
A. To ensure fairness for all. B. To increase the challenge.
C. To offer writing framework. D. To provide writing topics.
23. Which of the following will result in disqualification
A. Forgetting to pay entry fee. B. Composing an essay in English.
C. Being a senior high student. D. Submitting an essay on Apr. 15.
B
In 1978, eight-year-old David Chiem and his family left Vietnam and arrived in Australia. He didn’t speak a
word of English when he started school, but he picked it up quickly and topped his class that same year.
At 14, Chiem starred in the Australian TV series Butterfly Island, becoming the first Asian-Australian to land
a lead role on mainstream television. He became interested in acting and film-making and decided to study them—
little knowing this would one day lead him to create an education empire.
While learning film-making, Chiem realized something important: teachers often told students what to learn,
but never how to learn. He wondered why so many kids struggled in school. He thought it might be because lessons
didn’t truly interest them. He asked himself, “Instead of memorizing facts, why not teach children how to learn and
help them become lifelong learners who love learning ”
In 1998, Chiem started a research center in Sydney. He brought together experts in education, psychology, and
brain science to develop the “3-Mind” learning model: the Champion Mind (never giving up), the Learning Mind
(knowing how to learn), and the Creative Mind (coming up with new ideas). This approach helps children face
challenges with curiosity and confidence.
The first MindChamps preschool opened in Singapore in 2008 and was so popular that parents waited three
months for a spot. Today, MindChamps has 39 preschools in Singapore and 81 across Australia, Myanmar, and
Indonesia. Perhaps the greatest sign of success: over 70% of its franchisees (特许经营人) are parents of children
who attend MindChamps schools. That’s real belief in a better way to learn.
24. What can we learn about David Chiem from the first two paragraphs
A. He had difficulty in learning English. B. He became a TV star quite by chance.
C. His acting career inspired later business. D. He made the move for better education.
25. What did Chiem see as the main problem with traditional education
A. Children struggled in school. B. It stressed on memorizing facts.
C. Lessons were not challenging. D. It didn’t teach learning methods.
26. Which of the following best describe Chiem’s “3-Mind” model
A. Impractical. B. Demanding. C. Debatable. D. Innovative.
27. What does the high percentage of parents franchisees show
A. Parents have faith in the model. B. The schools are expanding quickly.
C. Parents excel at making money. D. The model are favored by children.
C
The time for action is now, at least when it comes to climate change. If the world’s major governments don’t
enact measures that limit global warming, it may be impossible to stop its progress, according to a study published
in the journal Earth System Dynamics.
The study, led by scientists in the United Kingdom and Netherlands, claims that in 2035, we will cross a point
of no return — after which it will be extremely unlikely we can stop Earth’s temperature from rising by 2 degrees
Celsius(2℃)and kicking off a dangerous medley of global disasters.
The 2 degrees Celsius mark is critical for Earth’s well-being. Once the planet warms an additional 2 degrees
Celsius, scientists predict a range of catastrophic effects, from widespread flooding in coastal areas to searing heat
waves and extreme storms.
One important area that could slow the movement toward a point of no return in 2035 is the transition from
fossil fuels to renewable energy sources. But even this will require marked progress. Scientists have calculated that
the share of renewables worldwide must grow by at least two percent each year in order to slow the march toward
climate change. Two percent a year may not sound like much, but in the 20 years leading up to 2017, the
percentage of energy from renewables grew by a paltry total of 3.6 percent.
There is hope, though. If the use of renewable energy were to outpace the scientists’ model, say by 5 percent
per annum, the climate change deadline could move back by at least a decade, the researchers note. Likewise,
developing technology to remove carbon dioxide and other gases from the atmosphere could help slow climate
change. These gases alter Earth’s atmosphere and allow it to trap more heat from the sun and cause temperatures to
rise.
“We hope that ’having a deadline’ may stimulate the sense of responsibility to act for politicians and policy
makers,” Henk Dijkstra, a professor at Utrecht University in the Netherlands and one of the study authors, said in a
statement. “Very little time is left.”
28. Why is the year 2035 critical to the Earth
A. It will be a record-breaking hot year. B. It’s a key point for our earth’s health.
C. It is when the fossil fuel will exhaust. D. It’s a year of frequent natural disasters.
29. What annual minimum growth in renewables do we need to slow the progress
A. 2%. B. 3.6%. C. 5%. D. 7%.
30. What does the underlined word “outpace” in paragraph 5 mean
A. Match. B. Keep up with. C. Do better than. D. Continue.
31. How did Henk Dijkstra feel about the current situation
A. Optimistic. B. Urgent. C. Doubtful. D. Satisfied.
D
Understanding and reacting to our emotions is how we survive. They may alert us and grab our attention, as
when we feel fear and should run away. They may also assure us—we feel joy when we’re safe and nourished after
a meal. But, perhaps no other sense has played a larger role in obtaining emotional cues from our environment than
sight.
Our ability to infer emotion from visual cues is primal. If we see someone who looks cross, we may feel fear;
while encountering a person who looks happy may elicit a sense of calm or happiness. Although unproven,
cognitive science suggests that visual art can evoke emotions in the viewer by exploiting emotional cues we’ve
learned to read for thousand years.
Certainly, studies using functional brain imaging technology bear this out. The same regions of the brain that
are involved in experiencing emotion are activated when shown a piece of pleasing artwork. The use of color and
symbolism can be recognizable to the viewer and evoke an emotion, even in abstract works. This can happen even
if the conscious mind isn’t aware of the reason for the sudden onset of emotion. Red, for example, can indicate
anger. A series of lines in disarray, like those found in the work of painter Franz Kline, can evoke uncomfortable
feelings of disorder.
The color red, and lines in disorder are all called cognitive antecedents. By including them in visual art, the
artist may present an emotional state to be decoded and experienced by the viewer later on. The emotions elicited
by a work of art aren’t necessarily intentional. They’re often individually and culturally specific. A Japanese viewer
of the white turkeys depicted in Monet’s “Turkeys at Montgeron” may experience a sense of sadness or melancholy
since white is associated with death in their culture.
Perhaps an understanding of exactly how to elicit a specific emotion in the viewer is best left unsolved. To
some, the best works of art are open to interpretation.
32. How do we primarily pick up emotional cues from the environment
A. With our eyes. B. With our tongues. C. With our ears. D. With our hands.
33. What is paragraph 2 of the text mainly about
A. The origins of human emotions. B. The methods of evoking emotions.
C. The causes of people’s feelings. D. The underlying logic of visual art.
34. What does the author try to show by mentioning the Japanese viewer in paragraph 4
A. The popularity of Monet’s works. B. The impact of color selection.
C. Color symbolism across cultures. D. Japanese people’s taste in art.
35. What does the author say about art appreciation
A. It should follow strict rules. B. It allows for varied readings.
C. It depends on artist’s skills. D. It requires special guidance.
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 12.5 分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Do you often find yourself re-reading pages just to grasp the meaning Boosting your reading speed and
comprehension may seem like an unconquerable task. 36
Reading speed and comprehension are intertwined skills. Studies have shown that faster readers tend to
understand the material better than slower readers. 37 Experts believe it’s because faster readers are able to
process more information per unit of time, which allows them to retain and recall details more effectively. This is
known as the “processing capacity” theory-our brains have a limited capacity for processing new information. Slow,
disjointed reading can exhaust this capacity, causing attention to wander and information to be poorly integrated.
In fact, this inefficiency is often because of underlying obstacles that hinder our focus and comprehension.
One major challenge is a lack of focus, which can be caused by distractions like social media, email notifications,
or simply the urge to multitask. 38 Reading in harsh sunlight or dimly lit rooms can cause eye strain and
discomfort, leading to slower comprehension. Prior knowledge also plays a significant role in reading speed and
comprehension. If you’re unfamiliar with the topic, it’s natural that your understanding will suffer.
39 To become a faster and more efficient reader, many often focus on finding quick fixes or magic
solutions. However, the truth is that consistent effort and purposeful practice are key to achieving lasting results.
Purposeful practice involves setting specific goals for improvement, identifying areas of weakness, and
creating a structured plan to address them. 40 It focuses on making gradual progress over time rather than
seeking short-term gains. By dedicating regular time to focused practice, readers can develop their skills and build
confidence in their ability to understand complex material quickly.
A. This is perfectly normal!
B. But why does this happen
C. This approach emphasizes quality over quantity.
D. Given these challenges, how should we proceed
E. Another common obstacle is poor lighting conditions.
F. This way, you stay focused and get a better understanding.
G. However, with right techniques, you can unlock your full potential.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节；满分 30 分）
第一节（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
While Bonnie was growing up, her mother always volunteered to sew costumes for the class plays. Not just
for Bonnie, but for the entire class.
Last year, her mother 41 . In her place, Bonnie discovered three knit 42 . She knew exactly who
they were 43 for: The first, a blue-and-white pullover, was for her mother; the second, all purple, was for
Bonnie; and the third, a cardigan, was for Bonnie’s daughter.
Bonnie brought them to a knitting store to be 44 . The employees there put her in 45 with
Loose Ends, an organisation that matches people who have unfinished work from their lost loved ones, with 46
who can finish quilting, knitting and other projects, all at no 47 . Soon after, Bonnie was connected with a
nearby finisher, Anna Minmier, who 48 to take over her mother’s work.
“All I could do when I met Anna was give her a big 49 ,” Bonnie says, tearing up. “It’s incredible how
special this project is.”
With every flick of her 50 , Anna finished the sweaters within months. She feels 51 to have a
part in a beautiful story that 52 generations. And she’s also looking forward to that moment when Bonnie
can hold and hug the 53 that her mom started to knit into existence.
“ 54 , it feels a little selfish,” Anna said, joking. “I get to do my 55 , and I don’t have to pay for
any of the supplies.”
41. A. fell down B. gave out C. went along D. passed away
42. A. sweaters B. clothes C. costumes D. supplies
43. A. searched B. intended C. decorated D. repaired
44. A. covered B. finished C. stuffed D. equipped
45. A. answer B. response C. contact D. request
46. A. customers B. followers C. relatives D. crafters
47. A. charge B. time C. reply D. work
48. A. stopped B. predicted C. agreed D. offered
49. A. hug B. smile C. deal D. gift
50. A. lights B. needles C. feelings D. tears
51. A. identified B. honored C. appreciated D. admired
52. A. parts B. limits C. meets D. links
53. A. giveaways B. contributions C. memories D. belongings
54. A. Honestly B. Doubtfully C. Fortunately D. Hopefully
55. A. duty B. business C. hobby D. best
第二节（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入 1 个单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In a clearing surrounded by banana trees in rural Uganda, players are running around with sticks between their
legs. They are playing Quadball, a real-life version of the fictional sport Quidditch 56 (invent) in fantasy
book series Harry Potter.
In the Harry Potter books, Quidditch 57 (portray) as a dangerous but popular sport played by wizards
high in the air on flying broomsticks. But the real-life version of Quidditch, 58 (official) called quadball,
does not require any magical or flying abilities. It mixes elements from netball, football, volleyball, 59
rugby, but every team must have both male and female players.
The sport arrived in Katwadde, a rural village in southern Uganda, in 2013. One day 60 a bus, John
Ssentamu, a primary school teacher spotted a passenger reading a Harry Potter book. Curious about the word
“Quidditch”, he searched it online, and immediately 61 (fall) in love with the idea. “This is beautiful. I can
bring it to my community.”
He started a team at the primary school 62 he teaches. For ten years, he trained young players with
passion and patience. Their hard work finally paid off in 2023, when his team hosted and won Uganda’s first
63 (nation) quadball tournament.
Locally, the sport has already worked 64 (wonder). “It has brought youth together and opened up
their minds” while 65 (help) to create “a community of belonging”, said Vicky Edith Nabbanja, Ssentamu’
s daughter and a team player.
第四部分 写作（共两节；满分 40 分）
第一节（满分 15 分）
假定你是李华。上周,你班参加了一次社区义务植树活动。请你为学校英文报写一篇投稿，内容包括：
（1）时间地点；
（2）活动经过；
（3）活动意义。
注意：
（1）词数 80 左右；
（2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
A Voluntary Tree Planting Activity
第二节（满分 25 分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The Smith family lived in a cozy little house on the outskirts of the town Millfield, surrounded by green
grassland and a small forest. Little did they know that their peaceful routine was about to be interrupted by an
unexpected guest.
On a hot summer day, their cat, Fluffy, was acting strangely, meowing loudly and staring at the window.
Looking outside, they saw a furry creature in their backyard. It was a raccoon (浣熊)! The family was surprised and
amused by the visitor, but they didn’t know what to do.
For a few weeks, the raccoon was a constant presence in the Smiths’ lives. The family was divided in their
opinion about the unexpected guest. The kids, Emma and Jake, loved having a wild animal around and even named
it Rascal. They would often leave bits of food for it to eat and try to pet it through the window. The parents,
however, were more concerned about the safety of their family and pets. They wanted to get rid of the raccoon
before it caused any harm.
One afternoon, they noticed the raccoon was digging around the flower bed. The family was interested and
decided to investigate. To their surprise, they found a family of baby raccoons hiding in a hole!
The discovery of the baby raccoons changed everything. The Smiths realized that Rascal wasn’t just a trouble,
but a mother trying to provide for her young. They started leaving food and water for the raccoon and even built a
little shelter for the family.
As the baby raccoons grew, they became more adventurous. They started exploring the yard on their own and
even ventured into the hallway. But one day, the family woke up to find that Rascal and her babies were gone.
They searched the yard and the surrounding area but couldn’t find them. They were sad to see them go but also
relieved that they could go back to their normal routine.
注意：
1. 续写的词数应为 150 左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
A few days later, Rascal and her babies returned!
As the summer ended, it was time to say goodbye.2026 届高三模拟考试
英语试题参考答案及评分标准 2026.03
第一部分：听力（每小题 1.5 分，满分 30 分）
1—5 BABCB 6—10 CCABC 11—15 ABABC 16—20 CBACA
第二部分：阅读（满分 50 分）
第一节（每小题 2.5 分，满分 37.5 分）
21—25 CAACD 26—30 DABAC 31—35 BADCB
第二节（每小题 2.5 分，满分 12.5 分）
36—40 GBEDC
第三部分：语言运用（共两节；满分 30 分）
第一节（每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
41—45 DABBC 46—50 DACAB 51—55 BDCAC
第二节（每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
56. invented 57. is portrayed 58. officially 59. and 60. on 61. fell
62. where 63. national 64. wonders 65. helping
第四部分：写作（共两节；满分 40 分）
第一节（满分 15 分）
一、评分原则
1．本题总分为 15 分，按 5 个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，
最后给分。
3．词数少于 60 和多于 100 的，从总分中减去 2 分。
4．评分时应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及
词汇用法均可接受。
6．如书写较差以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、内容要点：（见试题）
三、各档次的给分范围及要求
第五档（13~15 分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
—覆盖所有内容要点。
—应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
—语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致。
—有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（10～12 分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
—虽漏掉一两个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
—语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
—应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档（7～9 分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
—虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
—有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
—应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（4～6 分）
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
—漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
—语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
—有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
—较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档（1～3 分）
未完成试题规定的任务。
—明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
—语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
—较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
—缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
0 分
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
四、说明
1．内容要点可用不同方式表达。
2．应紧扣主题，可适当发挥。
第二节（满分 25 分）
一、评分原则
1．本题总分为 25 分，按 7 个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据作文整体情况，确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最
后给分。
3．评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面来衡量，具体如下：创作内容的质量、续写的完
整性以及与原文情境的融洽度；使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性；上下文的衔接和全文的
连贯性。
4．词数少于 120 的，从总分中减去 2 分。
5．单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑，英美拼写的词
汇用法均可接受。
6．书写较差以致影响交际的，从总分中减去扣 2 分。
二、各档次的给分范围及要求
第七档（22—25 分）
—创造了新颖、丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性、续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。
—使用了多样性且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达流畅，语言错误很少，且完全不影响理解。
—自然、有效地使用了段落间、语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，前后呼应，意义连贯。
第六档（18—21 分）
—创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，且与原文情境融洽度较高。
—使用了比较多样性且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达比较流畅，有个别错误，但不影响理解。
—比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第五档（15—17 分）
—创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性、续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。
—使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达方式不够多样性，表达有些许错误，但基本不影响理解。
—使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第四档（11—14 分）
—创造了基本完整的故事内容，但有的情节不够合理或逻辑性不强，与原文情境基
本相关。
—使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有部分语言错误和不恰当之处，个别部分影响理解。
—尚有语句衔接意识，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第三档(6—10 分)
—内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文有一定程度的脱节。
—使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多且比较低级，并影响理解。
—未能有效的使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义欠连贯。
第二档(1—5 分)
—内容和逻辑上有较多重大问题或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节。
—所使用的词汇非常简单，语法结构单调，错误极多，严重影响理解。
—几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
第一档 0 分
—未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清晰，以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。

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