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2025年七年级上册英语素养参考答案
第一部分听力理解（共两节，满分20分）
1-5CAAAB 6-10BABBA 11-15BACBA 16-20CBABA
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分30分）
21-23ABC 24-27ACCB 28-31BABC 32-35EDAC
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分）
第一节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
36-45 CBABB ACCBA
第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）本次大小写不扣分
46.gets 47 breakfast 48 At 49 together 50 his
51 delicious 52 housework 53 watches 54 plays 55good
第四部分 综合技能 （共两节，满分25分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容回答问题或翻译画线部分。
56. At a radio station.
57. Mr. Miller.
58. After dinner.
59. Eight hours.
60. 我非常喜欢我的工作，但是到那个时候我想找一份新工作。
第二节（满分15分）
略2025年七年级上册英语素养检测试题
时量：100分钟 满分：100分
1.答题前，请按要求在答题卡上填写好自己的姓名和准考证号。
2.答题时，切记答案要填在答题卡上，答在试题卷上的答案无效。
3.考试结束后，请将试题卷和答题卡都交给监考老师。
第一部分 听力理解（共两节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. What’s under the desk
A. A book. B. A pen. C. An ID card.
2. Who does Mike play ping-pong with
A. His classmates. B. His friends. C. His mother.
3.What will the boy buy for his grandpa
A. A sweater. B. A watch. C. A hat.
4. What club does the boy often go to
A.English Club. B.Sports Club. C.Arts Club.
5. How does Lucy feel about maths
A.Easy. B. Difficult. C.Interesting.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6．When is Mary’s birthday party
A.On March 6th. B.On March 7th. C.On March 8th.
7．Who is Bill
A.Jack’s brother. B.Jack’s friend. C.Mary’s brother.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8．What do they think of the classroom
A.Very clean. B.Very messy. C．Very beautiful.
9.What are they going to do first
A.Sweep the floor. B.Put the desks in order. C．Clean the blackboard.
听第8段材料，回答第10、11题。
10．What’s the weather like tomorrow
A.Warm and sunny. B.Cold and rainy. C.Hot and sunny.
11．What’s Peter’s mother doing
A.Watching TV. B.Shopping. C.Doing some housework.
听第9段材料，回答第12至14题。
12．What animals does Jim like to see best on the farm
A．Cows. B．Dogs. C．Ducks.
13．How do they go to the farm
A．By bike. B．By car. C．By bus.
14．Who are they
A．Teacher and student. B．Mother and son. C．Sister and brother.
听第10段材料，回答第15至17题。
15. What colour is Ava’s hair
A. Brown. B. Black. C. Red.
16. What does Ava like
A. Keeping animals. B. Taking photos. C. Drawing.
17. How old is George
A. 12. B. 14. C. 16.
听第11段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. Where is Eric from
A. The UK. B. The US. C. Australia.
19. What is Eric’s favourite subject
A. Science. B. Math. C. Art.
20. When does Eric go to science class
A. On Mondays. B. On Thursdays. C. On Fridays.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共10小题；每小题2分，满分20分）
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Billy Time to get up:At 5:40. Breakfast:At 7:00 at home. Things to do: ●Do homework at home in the morning. ●Read books in the library and then play football with his brother. Helen Time to get up:At 6:40. Breakfast: At 8:00 at home. Things to do: ● Play games with friends in the park in the morning. ● Watch TV at home with the little sister and then help with housework in the afternoon.
21.Who gets up before 6 o’clock
A.Billy B.Helen C.Helen’s mother
22.What does Billy do after reading books in the library
A.He does some homework. B. He plays football. C.He watches TV.
23.Where does Helen play games in the morning
A. At home. B. At school. C. In the park.
B
①Now let’s talk about Buddy (伙伴) Club. It is great.
②I really like to talk with classmates about their school life and problems of growing up (成长). I can learn a lot from others’ stories. One classmate tells me how to relax before tests. Another classmate tells me some great websites (网站) of learning history and English.
③We sometimes play ping-pong. It’s hard for me. I can’t play very well but I learn a lot from watching the games.
④We have a Buddy Club trip on Sunday every week. We have a lot of games and everyone loves the trip. After a boy teaches me how to fish, I can do it by myself now.
⑤I really love the club and people there are very nice. They help me a lot. I can make some friends and I can help them too.
24.What can they do at the Buddy Club
A. Talk with others. B. Shop online. C. Have dinner.
25. How does the writer feel about playing ping-pong
A. It is easy and fun. B. He is good at it. C. It is hard for him.
26. Which shows the structure of the passage(文章的结构)
A. B. C.
27. What is the best title (标题) for the passage
A. How to join the club.
B. Having fun in the Buddy Club
C. My school life.
C
Artificial intelligence (AI人工智能) is growing quickly. But some people are worried about this new thing. They think kids should not use AI. What do you think Should kids use AI
Yes — it is important for young people to use AI.It is an important tool(工具), and kids will use it when they grow up. At school, students learn how to use computers and other apps. So, they should also learn how to use AI.
Some big people use AI at work to make some work easier, like writing an email or planning a meeting. AI may help kids start their homework.
No — AI is too strong and dangerous(危险的). It is better to stop kids from using it for now. AI can sometimes show bad things to kids. This can make them feel worried.
The app is not right all the time. It can give users wrong information. One study last year found(发现) that an AI app gave wrong answers 52% of the time when answering computer programming questions.
28.Why do some people think kids should use AI
A. Because AI is only for adults.
B. Because AI is an important tool.
C. Because AI can play games for kids.
29. What can AI help big people do according toPara 3(根据第三段)
A. Write emails. B. Drive cars. C. Cook dinner
30. What did the study find about the AI app
A. It gave right answers all the time
B. It can give users wrong information.
C. It worked only for big people.
31. What is the passage mainly about
A. How to use computers
B. How to write emails with AI
C. Should kids use AI
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
How to have a happy family
People want a happy family. But what can we do ________32.________.
Talk to family.
Talking is the key to a happy family. It helps family to show what they are thinking. ______33.__________.
Spend time together.
There are many ways to spend time with our family: making dinner, watching TV, going for a walk or cleaning the house.
________34.________.
Say thank you when family members help you. And let them know that you thank them for what they do for you. Also you can buy some small gifts for them. A cool hat, a good book... They can be very happy.
Say sorry.
_______35_________.A good breakfast for your family can show you are sorry too.
A. Show thanks. B. Do you know why C.When you do something wrong, you should say sorry. D. If we often talk to our family, we can know much about them. E.Here are some good ways for you.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分）
第一节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
We have birthdays every year. They are important to us, but they have 36____meanings to everyone.
Today my best friend Peter asks me to join his birthday at his home. We 37____ everyone's birthday at the party. Sam's birthday is on 1st January, so he never needs to go to 38____on his birthday. Lily's birthday is on 29th February, and she can 39____ celebrate it every four years. So it's a big day for her, Tom and his brother were born(出生) on the same 40____in October. So they always have a birthday 41___together. All their friends come and have a good time.
For all of us, birthdays are our holidays. But Sam's 16-year-old sister thinks birthdays have 42____meanings. She says her birthday is a day to 43____her mother for bringing her to the world. This is a 44___ idea to me and makes me think a lot. I can't wait to have my birthday this year. I want to have a party and 45____ a gift for my mother. What does your birthday mean to you
36.A. similar B.important C. different
37.A.blow out B. talk about C. act out
38.A.school B. party C. holiday
39.A.really B.only C. exactly
40.A.hour B.day C. month
41. A. party B. balloon C. wish
42. A.interesting B. surprising C.special
43. A.celebrate B.know C. thank
44. A. smart B.new C. boring
45. A.buy B. need C.start
第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
(
at breakfast watch get
together
play delicious housework he exciting
)
On Saturdays, Sam sometimes__46___ up up at 9:00. He makes __47___ for his family and then he does his homework.__48___ around 2:00 in the afternoon, he meets his friends, and they play a football game __49___. It is often exciting. At about 6:30, Sam sometimes goes to a restaurant with __50___ family for dinner. Sam thinks the food there is __51___. On Sunday mornings, Sam often helps his mother with __52___. Sometimes he __53___ a film in the afternoon. After dinner, he usually __54___the guitar for a while.He likes it very much and is __55___ at it. He goes to bed at about 10:00.
第四部分 综合技能 （共两节，满分25分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容回答问题或翻译画线部分。
Mrs. Miller works at a radio station (广播电台). She finishes work at six o’clock every morning. Then she goes home, eats breakfast and takes a shower. At half past seven, she goes to bed. That’s when Mr. Miller gets up.
After half an hour, Tom, their son, gets up. Mr. Miller takes Tom to the kindergarten (幼儿园) and then goes to work. At three o’clock in the afternoon, Mrs. Miller gets up. She has to be at the kindergarten at half past four to take Tom home.
When Mr. Miller comes back home in the evening, they have a big dinner. After that, they play with Tom. At half past nine, Mrs. Miller goes to work. She starts work at ten o’clock every night.
“Tom will start primary school (小学) next year,” Mrs. Miller says. “I like my job very much, but I want to find a new job at that time .”
56 Where does Mrs. Miller work ______________________________________
57.Who takes Tom to the kindergarten __________________________________
58.When does the family play together _______________________________
59.How long does Mrs. Miller work every day ____________________________
60. 将短文中画线的句子翻译成中文。__________________________________
第二节（满分15分）
在本周的学校英语社团活动日中，同学讨论了“How do you celebrate your birthdays ”。假如你是社团成员李华，请你根据以下要点描述你想如何庆祝自己的生日，写一篇不少于60词的英语短文。
要点：1.生日是什么时候？ 2.你想和谁一起，在哪儿度过？ 3.你有何感想？
参考词汇：eat birthday noodles, take photos, do something different，remember fun times
a day to feel the love from my family

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