资源简介

九年级一模绿色评价
英语
注意：
1.本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分 120分，考试时间为 120分钟。
2.全卷包括“试题卷”（10页）和“答题卡”（2页）两部分。
3.请务必在“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。
4.考试结束后，请将“答题卡”交回。
第一部分听力 (共四大题，满分 20分)
I.短对话理解 (共 5小题;每小题 1分,满分 5分)
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选
项。每段对话读两遍。
1. How does the boy go to school
2. What will Cathy do in the camping activity
3. What color coat does the man prefer
A. Black. B. Brown. C. Blue.
4. How often does the man do sports
A. Once a week.
B. Twice a week.
C. Three times a week.
5. Why does the boy go to see the doctor
A. Because he has a fever.
B. Because he has a cold.
C. Because he has a headache.
II.长对话理解 (共 5小题;每小题 1分,满分 5分)
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选
项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第 6、7题。
6. Where will Charlie Chow stay in the study tour
A. In a hotel.
B. In an English family.
C. In his friend's house.
7. How does the woman let Mr. Chow know the tour plan
A. By letter. B. By phone. C. By email.
听下面一段对话，回答第 8至 10题。
8. What is the boy's mum doing
A. Playing games.
B. Cooking dinner.
C. Talking with her friends.
9. Where are Tina and Susan from
A. China. B. America. C. England.
10. How should the boy greet Nick and Simon
A. By hugging. B. By bowing. C. By shaking hands.
III.短文理解（共 5小题；每小题 1分，满分 5分）
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出
一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. What will Asher do on Monday
A. Play football.
B. Have lunch with Sam.
C. Do a part - time job.
12. Where will Asher go on Tuesday
A. To the Youth Club.
B. To the hospital.
C. To the city park.
13. When will Asher go to check his teeth
A. At 9:00 am. B. At 6:30 pm. C. At 7:00 pm.
14. What lesson will Asher have on Thursday
A. A piano lesson. B. A violin lesson. C. A guitar lesson.
15. Who will Asher go running with
A. His cousin. B. His brother. C. His father.
IV.信息转换（共 5小题；每小题 1分，满分 5分）
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
School Open Day
Time On (16) ______
School Open Day
9:00 am —Meet parents at the (17) ______ gate of the school
Teachers
9:15 am — (18) ______ parents around the classrooms
10:00 am — Check out the class projects in the hall
12:00 am — Have lunch with teachers and students
Parents
1:30 pm — Visit the library and the new (19) ______
(20) ______ pm — Enjoy a show
第二部分语言知识运用（共三大题，满分 35分）
V.单项填空（共 10小题；每小题 1分，满分 10分）
从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. When our monitor was away, Linda took over his ______ and organized the class meeting well.
A. promise B. habit C. method D. role
22. Learning a foreign language well doesn't happen easily. It ______ more practice.
A. avoids B. requires C. borrows D. accepts
23. The concert hall was almost full when we arrived, but luckily there were still a few ______ seats in the back.
A. free B. fresh C. modern D. private
24. People around the world should ______ their differences and join hands to build peace.
A. turn down B. look down on C. put aside D. run out of
25. Grandfather spoke ______ to the little girl so that she wouldn't feel afraid.
A. softly B. rapidly C. heavily D. widely
26. There are many ways to build a green school. ______, we can start by saving water and electricity.
A. At first B. For example C. In public D. As usual
27. The road is much safer now. Workers ______ the broken street lights along it.
A. repaired B. were repairing C. had repaired D. have repaired
28. My little brother is very cute, ______ he often leaves his toys everywhere.
A. until B. since C. though D. whether
29. —Do you know ______ our school started the "Four Good Habits" activity
—To help students develop better daily behavior.
A. why B. where C. when D. whether
30. —I'm afraid I didn't do very well when answering the teacher's question today.
—______ You were brave enough to speak in public.
A. I agree. B. Good try. C. Great idea. D. I'm sorry.
Ⅵ.完形填空（共 20小题；每小题 1分，满分 20分）
阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
When I was in primary school, I was afraid of speaking in front of others. Every time the teacher asked a
question, I lowered my head and hoped she wouldn't call my name. My classmates often answered quickly, but I
stayed 31 .
One day, our teacher announced (宣布) that there would be a story - telling competition. To my surprise, she
asked me to 32 . My heart began to beat fast. I wanted to give up, but my best friend Lucy said, "You always tell
wonderful stories to me after class. Why not share one with everyone else " Her words gave me some 33 .
That evening, I stood in front of the mirror and practiced again and again. At first, I spoke too quietly to hear
myself. Then I tried to stand straight and speak more 34 . On the day of the competition, I was still nervous.
When I walked onto the stage, my hands were shaking. But I remembered Lucy's words and took a deep 35 .
As I began, I saw my teacher smiling at me. That made me feel a little more 36 . Slowly, I forgot my fear
and started enjoying the story. When I finished, the students clapped (鼓掌 ) loudly. I didn't win first prize, but
something inside me had 37 . I learned that I was stronger than I had thought.
Since then, I have tried many different competitions. Step by step, I have become more open and 38 . Now I
know that being brave does not mean having no fear. It means choosing to move forward 39 fear is still there.
And sometimes, one small success can 40 the way you see yourself forever.
31. A. silent B. busy C. honest D. proud
32. A. hide B. join C. wait D. return
33. A. trouble B. doubt C. courage D. space
34. A. clearly B. carelessly C. politely D. angrily
35. A. walk B. look C. rest D. breath
36. A. relaxed B. upset C. proud D. worried
37. A. remained B. changed C. missed D. stopped
38.A. confident B. serious C. humorous D. friendly
39.A. unless B. because C. although D. until
40.A. break B. describe C. imagine D. influence
B
In the film Forrest Gump, there's a famous saying: "Life is like a box of chocolate; you never know what you're
gonna get." It's 41 to blind boxes.
Each of these small, closed boxes 42 one of many toys in a series. The buyers don't know which toy they've
got 43 they open the boxes. Blind - boxes can date back to lucky bags from the late 1880s. In recent years, it
has become a big 44 in China.
One 45 for their popularity is the toys inside the boxes. They're like small cartoon characters. They can be
46 anywhere in your home as a decoration (装饰品). But another, perhaps more important reason people like
them is the fun of being 47 .
The most interesting thing about blind boxes is the difference between what people 48 and what they get.
The excitement of getting the exact toy you want is like winning the lottery (彩票).
While the boxes are certainly interesting to some, others 49 that children might spend too much money on
these toys. The blind box industry takes advantage of gambling (赌博 ) mind. Young people usually 50 the
excitement brought by uncertainty and higher risks, which leads to sudden buying.
41.A. important B. opposite C. good D. similar
42.A. makes B. includes C. builds D. takes
43.A. until B. if C. since D. though
44.A. problem B. performance C. business D. celebration
45.A. decision B. chance C. idea D. reason
46.A. placed B. hidden C. filled D. locked
47.A. cheated B. valued C. surprised D. agreed
48.A. remember B. expect C. have D. lose
49.A. wonder B. worry C. prove D. agree
50.A. pick up B. call for C. put off D. look for
VII.补全对话（共 5小题；每小题 1分，满分 5分）
根据对话内容，从选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Lily, Mother's Day is around the corner. 51
B: Yes, of course. I have decided to send my mum a painting which is painted by myself.
A: 52
B: It is about my mum sitting around flowers.
A: Does the painting have any meaning
B: Yes. 53 By the way, what would you send to your mother
A: I haven't decided it yet. Maybe I will travel with my mother.
B: 54
A: Chaohu Lake. It's famous for fantastic views and delicious fish.
B: 55
A: Thanks. So are you.
A. Where do you want to go
B. What's your painting about
C. How do you like the painting
D. Do you have any good ideas
E. It describes my love to her.
F. You are a nice girl.
G. Have you finished the painting yet
第三部分阅读理解（共两节，满分 40分）
VIII.阅读理解（共 20小题；每小题 2分，满分 40分）
第一节阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Environmental Protection Competition
Team up with your classmates to think about ways you can help the environment. Then send us your works for
a chance to win great prizes! From April 6th, we are looking forward to your works!
Rules of the Competition
√Teenagers aged 12-16.
√Send your works before June 23rd.
√A photo, a letter or a video will be accepted.
√Explain your actions of helping protect the environment.
Prizes to Be Won
1. THE BEST WORK
The winner will receive:
● A plant - growing toolbox
● A free ticket to Art Show and a storybook
2. SPECIAL WORKS
The winners will receive:
● A hands - on guidebook
Ideas to Inspire (激发) You
▲ Try a day of zero - waste life.
▲ Clean up the rubbish at your local parks.
▲ Dream up an invention to help with recycling.
The final result and winning works will be posted on www..
Send your works to www..
56. What can we know about the competition
A. Jane, an 18 - year - old girl, can take part in the competition.
B. The competition lasts from April 6th to July 23rd.
C. To attend the competition, we can send our works to www..
D. To attend the competition, we can send a video or a letter as our works.
57. If Jack's work is chosen to be the special work, what can he get
· A. A storybook.
B. A free ticket to Art Show. C. A plant - growing toolbox.
, D. A hands - on guidebook.
58. Where may we read the text
A. On a website. B. In a storybook.
C. In a travel magazine. D. In a science report.
B
From 1G to 5G, mobile communication has changed people's lives a lot. In the past, phones were mainly used
for making calls and sending messages. Today, communication technology is used in factories, cars and many other
areas. Now, people are paying more attention to 6G, the next step in communication technology.
Compared with 5G, 6G may be much faster. It may use higher - frequency signals(高频信号), so it can carry
more information. In the future, downloading a 4K movie may take less than one second.
6G may also help machines "see" better. Its signals can be used not only for communication, but also for
sensing. This means self - driving cars and drones(无人机) may be able to understand road conditions more clearly
and avoid danger more quickly.
What's more, 6G will be smarter. Traditional networks mainly send and receive information, but 6G base
stations may have AI power of their own. They may offer smarter services, find problems by themselves and
improve their work in time.
China has already completed the first stage of 6G technical tests and started the second stage. Experts believe
6G will be used more widely in the future and make people's lives better.
59. What does Paragraph 2 mainly tell us about 6G
A. Speed. B. Cost. C. Popularity. D. Safety.
60. How may 6G help self - driving cars
A. By making them smaller. B. By knowing roads better.
C. By lowering their speed. D. By saving more energy.
61. What makes 6G network different from traditional networks
*A. It is only used in factories.
B. It is only used for phone calls.
C. It may have AI power of its own.
D. It may work without signals.
62. What can be the best title(标题)for the text
A. The History of Mobile Phones B. 6G: A Smarter Future
C. How to Build Better Cars D. AI Changes Factory Work
C
Thirteen - year - old Omar has always enjoyed repairing small things at home. So when his grandmother
mentioned that her old reading lamp was no longer bright enough, he decided to build a new one for her.
He searched online for simple ideas and finally chose a design that used a recycled bottle, a small LED light,
and some wires(电线). For several evenings, Omar worked patiently at his desk. He cut the bottle, connected the
wires, and tested the lamp over and over again. The process was not smooth. At times, the lamp failed to work, and
once he connected a wire the wrong way, which meant he had to redo part of the project. However, instead of
giving up, he carefully checked the problem and tried again.
In the end, Omar made a lamp that was light, safe, and practical. His grandmother was deeply touched when
she turned it on. To her, it was more than just a lamp—it was a gift filled with love and effort.
Later, Omar showed his work at the school science fair. Although he did not win the first prize, his teachers
spoke highly of his project because it turned simple recycled materials into a useful solution for everyday life.
More importantly, the experience helped Omar realize that creativity is not only about having ideas, but also about
turning them into reality.
63. Why did Omar decide to build a new lamp for his grandmother
A. To win a prize at school. B. To help her read better.
C. To sell lamps online. D. To finish a school task.
64. Which mistake did Omar meet while making the lamp
A. He could not find any recycled materials.
B. He did not know how to use an LED light.
C. He once connected a wire incorrectly
D. He broke the bottle and had to buy a new one.
65. Which of the following best describes Omar
A. Creative and patient. B. Helpful and modest. C. Honest and brave. D. Polite and active.
D
He Hua Shen was one of the most eye - catching programs at the 2026 CCTV Spring Festival Gala. It brought
together twelve performers, each standing for a goddess(女神) who looks after one month's flower. The show was
based on the traditional Chinese custom of the twelve monthly flower goddesses, which has been popular for
hundreds of years.
What made the show special was its perfect mix of traditional culture and modern technology. The designers
created clothes in classic Chinese styles, using traditional materials and pictures from ancient cultural treasures. For
example, Li Qin, playing the Goddess of Osmanthus (桂花), wore a beautiful Song - style dress that showed the
beauty of traditional clothing. Qin Lan appeared as the Goddess of Peach Flowers, whose look was soft and lovely
like peach flowers.
Besides beautiful looks, the program also carried deep cultural meanings. Each flower and goddess stands for
certain values in Chinese culture. The chrysanthemum (菊花) means independence and a long life, while the lotus
(荷花) stands for honesty and peace. Through beautiful looks, the show told these cultural stories in a lively and
modern way.
Modern technology played an important role, too. With AI and 3D effects, the stage looked
like a real garden where flowers of twelve months came out at the same time. The amazing images made the
program popular among people of all ages, especially the young.
He Hua Shen is more than just a performance. It helps traditional Chinese culture become fresh and lively
again. It allows people at home and abroad to understand and enjoy traditional beauty in a new way. Many people
hope to see more such creative cultural programmes in the future.
66. Why are Li Qin and Qin Lan mentioned in Paragraph 2
A. To compare their different styles.
B. To introduce their acting skills.
C. To show the beauty of the clothes.
D. To explain the meaning of flowers.
67. Which of the following shows cultural meanings
A. Twelve performers appear on the stage.
B. The dresses use traditional materials.
C. 3D effects make the stage like a garden.
D. The lotus stands for honesty and peace.
68. What can we infer (推断) about the program
A. It is mainly welcomed by old people.
B. It makes traditional culture closer to people.
C. It depends too much on modern technology.
D. It explains the history of each flower clearly.
69. What is the purpose of the text
A. To introduce a cultural programme.
B. To show how technology helps spread culture.
C. To teach people how to enjoy flowers.
D. To show the improvement of Chinese clothing.
E
Small plastic particles (微粒) in water have become one of the biggest problems for human health. A Chinese
team has developed a new way to take away the plastic particles from water.
▲ They describe a special foam (泡沫橡胶) that can take in up to 99.8% of the particles in its first use! The
best part is that it can be used again and broken down into harmless materials.
The researchers from Wuhan University and Huazhong University of Science and Technology made this foam
from sea life and cotton. The foam is full of tiny holes, which helps it take in different kinds of particles. These
particles often come from things like electronics, plastic products, and clothes.
To assess how well the foam works, the team used water from different real - world places. They found that the
foam took in almost all the particles in its first use. After using the foam five times, it still cleared away more than
95% of the particles. The study also says the foam works well even when there are other things in water, like soil,
heavy metals, or tiny living things.
Deng Hongbing, one of the researchers, says that these particles will keep increasing in our environment
because of all the plastic waste. However, the team believe that using natural materials like this foam could be a
smart and low - cost way to solve the problem of harmful particles in water.
They hope to use this technology in real - world water treatment or home water cleaning machines in the near
future.
70 Which of the following can be put in in Paragraph 2
A. Scientists are trying hard to solve this serious problem.
B. The study has recently been published in Science Advances.
C. Small plastic particles in water are harmful to human health.
D. Some people take no notice of small plastic particles in water.
71. What does the underlined word "assess" in Paragraph 4 mean
A. Improve. B. Correct. C. Accept. D. Test.
72. How do the team feel about the use of the foam
A. Doubtful. B. Hopeful. C. Careful. D. Surprised
第二节阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。
F
On a sunny morning, Meg and her mum led their little donkey(驴) to the town market, planning to sell a basket
of fresh carrots. "The road is long, dear. Sit on the donkey!" Mum said softly, touching the donkey's back. Just
then, an old man passed by and said angrily, "What a lazy girl! Let your tired mum ride instead!" he said. Feeling
uncomfortable, Meg climbed down at once, and Mum sat on the donkey.
After a short walk, a villager waved and laughed. "That strong donkey can carry two people easily! Why make
one walk " Hearing this, Mum pulled Meg up to sit beside her. But soon, a woman shook her head sadly. "How
mean you are! Look at the poor donkey, suffering under your weight!" she said.
Feeling sorry about making the donkey suffer, they got off quickly and carried the donkey on their backs. Soon
they were tired out and rested under a tree. Just then, the donkey took the chance and escaped fast. Looking at the
empty road, Mum said to Meg, "We shouldn't listen to others without thinking. Instead, ______________."
73. How many times did Meg and her mom accept others' advice (不超过 5个单词)
______________________________________________________.
74. Why did Meg and her mom carry the donkey on their backs (不超过 10个单词)
______________________________________________________
75. What would Mom say at the end of the story (不超过 10单词)
______________________________________________________.
第四部分写（共两大题，满分 25分）
Ⅸ.单词拼写（共 5小题；每小题 1分，满分 5分）
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
76. My little brother likes drawing cars and planes in a small n____(笔记本).
77. The little girl c____(哭) when she saw her mother at the school gate yesterday afternoon.
78. Please open the window and let in some clean a____(空气).
79. The teacher lets the students l____(列出)their favorite sports on the paper.
80. It's a f____(公平的) result, and everyone accepts it.
Ⅹ.书面表达（共 1小题；满分 20分）
81.科学研究发现，快乐有益健康，而微笑、赞扬、分享等行为都能传递快乐。班级英语角将举办以“传递
快乐”为主题的故事分享会，请你讲述生活中用快乐感染他人的小故事。
注意：
1.词数 80-100；
2.文中不能出现自己的姓名和所在学校的名称；
3.开头已为你写好，不计入总词数。
Studies show that being happy helps us stay healthy. It's meaningful to spread happiness in daily
life._____________________________________
试卷答案
================================================
第一部分听力（共四大题，满分 20分）略，无答案
第二部分语言知识运用（共三大题，满分 35分）
V.单项填空（共 10小题；每小题 1分，满分 10分）
21.D 22.B 23.A 24.C 25.A
26.B 27.D 28.C 29.A 30.B
VI.完形填空（共 20小题；每小题 1分，满分 20分）
31.A 32.B 33.C 34.A 35.D36.A 37.B 38.A 39.C 40.D
41.D 42.B 43.A 44.C 45.D
46.A 47.C 48.B 49.B 50.D
VII.补全对话（共 5小题；每小题 1分，满分 5分）
51.D 52.B 53.E 54.A 55.F
第三部分阅读理解（共 20小题；每小题 2分，满分 40分）
第一节
56.D 57.D 58.A 59.A 60.B
61.C 62.B 63.B 64.C 65.A
66.C 67.D 68.B 69.A 70.A
71.D 72.B
第二节（每小题 2分，满分 6分，表意准确、符合字数要求即可得分）
73. Three times.
74. To stop the donkey from suffering.
75. We should have our own ideas.
第四部分写（共两大题，满分 25分）
IX.单词拼写（共 5小题；每小题 1分，满分 5分，拼写正确、形式准确即可得分）
76. notebook
77. cried
78. air
79. list
80. fair
X.书面表达（共 1小题；满分 20分）
参考范文：
Studies show that being happy helps us stay healthy. It's meaningful to
spread happiness in daily life.
Last month, my deskmate Lily failed her math exam and felt very upset. I
decided to cheer her up. I sat beside her, explained her mistakes
patiently and told her interesting jokes to help her relax. With my encouragement and help, she made rapid
progress in math and became confident and happy again. Seeing her bright smile, I felt a strong sense of happiness.
Spreading warmth to others can bring us more joy. I will keep passing positive energy to people around me.
分值要点：
1. 1720分：内容紧扣主题，结构清晰，语言流畅，语法错误极少，符合字数要求，表达真情实感；
2. 1316分：内容基本贴合主题，语言较通顺，有少量语法错误，不影响整体理解，字数达标；
3. 912分：内容不够完整，语言错误较多，部分语句表意不清，字数基本达标；
4. 08分：内容严重偏离主题，语言错误极多，难以读懂，字数严重不足。

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