山西省2026届高三年级四月阶段练习英语试卷(含解析,无听力音频无听力原文)

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山西省2026届高三年级四月阶段练习英语试卷(含解析,无听力音频无听力原文)

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山西省2026届高三年级四月阶段练习英语试卷
(满分:150分 用时:120分钟)
注意事项:
1.答题前,请将自己的学校、姓名等填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
例: How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. What is the man going to do next
A. Repair his suitcase. B. Claim his lost luggage. C. Fill out a damage report.
2. What does Lisa pursue as a career
A. Be a doctor. B. Work as a teacher. C. Become a designer.
3. What are the speakers talking about
A. Visiting the park.
B. Complaining to the neighbor.
C. Looking for a new apartment.
4. What does the man think of the mountain
A. It's worth climbing.
B. It's easy to climb.
C. It's beyond his expectation.
5. Where are the speakers going
A. The coffee shop. B. The library. C. The bookstore.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. Why does the officer ask the woman to pull over
A. Her rear license plate light is not on.
B. She forgot to bring her driver's license.
C. She didn't renew her vehicle registration.
7. What will the woman do tomorrow"
A. Pay a fine.
B. Renew her vehicle registration.
C. Take her insurance card to the police station.
听第7段材料,回答第 8 至 10题。
8. Where does the conversation most probably take place
A. In a tea house. B. At a company party. C. In a restaurant.
9. What do we know about Emma
A. She has just got a promotion.
B. She is interested in photography.
C. She is good at graphic design.
10. Why does Lily refuse Tom's invitation
A. She is in a hurry to leave.
B. She doesn't like afternoon tea.
C. She is waiting for her friend.
听第8段材料,回答第11 至 13题。
11. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Benefits of watching TV.
B. The quality of TV shows.
C. Ways to relax after work.
12. What kind of TV shows does the woman like
A. Drama series. B. Talent shows. C. Cooking competitions.
13. What does the man think TV is mainly for
A. Education. B. Entertainment. C. Skill-learning.
听第9段材料,回答第14 至 17题。
14. Who is probably Maria
A. A hostess. B. A teacher. C. A community member.
15. What do students do every Friday afternoon in the project
A. They visit workplaces like hospitals.
B. They give talks to community members.
C. They help with tasks in the neighborhood.
16. What do community members do for the project every month
A. They clean the school campus.
B. They give career talks to students.
C. They organize outdoor activities.
17. What is the purpose of the school s community project
A. To connect students with the community.
B. To develop students independence.
C. To get students ready for part time jobs.
听第10段材料,回答第18 至 20题
18. What does the speaker want to raise awariness about
A. Rising sea levels.
B. Sculpture courses.
C. Plastic pollution in oceans.
19. What did the speaker do in the“Ocean Treasures” project
A. Painting sea animals on plastic bottles.
B. Selling reusable bags to protect marine life.
C. Collecting plastic waste to make sculptures.
20. What effect has the project brought
A. Local shops no longer sell plastic bottles.
B. More people use reusable items at the beach.
C. Schools begin to teach ocean lessons.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Tech-enabled Monitoring: Safeguarding Biodiversity
Protecting biodiversity has become a global task, and technology is playing an increasingly important role in saving endangered species. Traditional ways of monitoring wildlife, which mainly depend on manual patrols(巡逻), often face problems like terrible environment, long distances and low efficiency, making it hard to protect rare animals in time and completely.
A“sky-earth-space” monitoring system has emerged to solve these problems. It has three main parts and can track wild animal groups all-round and in real time. Its structure can be shown clearly by a simple diagram, which displays how the three monitoring layers connect and work together:
Structure Diagram of“Sky-Earth-Space” Monitoring System
The diagram takes the central database as the core. The three monitoring layers(aerial, terrestrial, space-based) are connected to it. Each layer collects data on its own and sends it to the database for analysis, forming a complete monitoring cycle.
Monitoring Layer Core Equipment Main Function
Aerial 的) cameras UAVs with thermal(热 (cover large wild areas fast;de tect activities in darkness
Terrestrial Infrared(红外的) came..、 Monitor water sources/ corridors 24/7;11: word natural behaviors without disturb. incl
Space-based Satellite navigation C.positioning collars Track long-distance migration of lingc mammals
In practice, the aerial layer uses UAVs to scan large areas, while the ground layer sets infrared cameras at key spots. The space layer helps track long distance migration. All data go to the central database.
This tech system greatly improves the efficiency and accuracy of biodiversity protection. It reduces the need for manual work, thus reducing human influence on wildlife and helping endangered species recover better.
21. What is a disadvantage of traditional wildlife monitoring methods
A. They are too human dependent.
B. They fail to cover long distances.
C. They can't save endangered species.
D. They require complex technical operation.
22. What is the main function of the aerial monitoring layer
A. To track long-distance animal migration.
B. To quickly scan and detect large wild areas.
C. To build and update the central database.
D. To record animals' natural behaviors non-stop.
23. What can we learn about the“sky-earth-space” monitoring system
A. It primarily needs manual data collection.
B. It totally removes human influence on wildlife.
C. It has fully replaced traditional protection ways.
D. It highly contributes to biodiversity preservation.
B
At a party I encountered a museum director, who would soon be leaving on an African safari(观兽旅行). Feeling fascinated, my partner Hugh and I enthusiastically booked one,the sort where you shoot wildlife with a camera rather than a gun.
A month later at Maasai Mara, a 583-square-mile nature reserve, we were in a vehicle surrounded by seven lions, none of which seemed to care about us. On the drive to our camp, we saw every animal that was in the lion king. But a herd of eight elephants eating grass stole the show. Despite their impressive size, what surprised me, and was so magnificent, was the sound of the tall grass being torn with their trunks. I closed my eyes to listen, imagining creating a best selling perfume that would smell the way grass being ripped from the ground by elephants.
The world can be a wild place, but that's not the lesson you want to carry home with you. Yes, we humans are cruel and often dangerous, but there's still nature, and before it's too late we need to appreciate it. Admittedly, not everyone can hang out with elephants, but look at that bird landing on your feeder, and at that squirrel chasing the bird away from the feeder. Look at the rats slipping before you on a city street, at the spider that somehow got smashed in your elevator.
We' re all on a safari of one kind or another-it's just that some of us aren't returning with two brilliant souvenirs of Maasai and a bacteria infection.
24. What can we learn about the safari the author booked
A. It involved photographing wild animals.
B. It was recommended by the museum director.
C. It required the author to carry a gun for safety.
D. It was a last-minute booking due to excitement.
25. What can be inferred from paragraph 2
A. Lions were the most impressive animals they saw.
B. They spotted a great variety of classic wild animals.
C. The author recommended the movie The Lion King.
D. Maasai Mara was the filming location of The Lion King.
26. What does the underlined phrase“stole the show” in paragraph 2 probably mean
A. Failed to meet expectations.
B. Caused a sudden disturbance.
C. Created a dangerous situation.
D. Became the most attractive part.
27. What is the author's main purpose of writing the text
A. To call for timely appreciation of nature.
B. To share an unforgettable safari experience.
C. To remind readers of the cruelty of humans.
D. To describe the beauty of wildlife in African.
C
Adults typically have 206 bones and 350 joints, which are made of bones plus the tissues that hold the bones together: cartilage(软骨), tendons(腱), ligaments(韧带), and nerves. With so many moving parts working hard every day, it's no wonder that many people experience pain, stillness(僵硬) or soreness in one or more of these connections.
The smallest joint in the body is in the ear, and while it plays a crucial role in hearing,most of us don't even realize it's there. The largest joint is the knee. Knees and other large joints like hips, shoulders and elbows are the ones that tend to become painful. We' re often quick to blame joint pain or stiffness on getting older. But it's not just older folks who experience joint pain. Athletes and just plain everyday active people experience joint pain too. Besides aging, causes include overuse, inflammation(炎症), injury, and genetic or autoimmune conditions.
“It's perfectly normal for people to have occasional aches and pains in their joints,”says Kyle Ruygrok, a physical therapist with Memorial Hermann Sports Medicine &Rehabilitation in Houston.“Most problems in the joints are either from injury or overuse.”And, he adds, many of those problems can be relieved simply by resting the following day to allow for recovery.
When pain lasts longer, doctors have a variety of ways to treat it, depending on where and why it occurs and how severe it is. The first recommendations may be supportive tools like canes, braces and splints(夹板) to help reduce strain and prevent falls from achy knees and hips. Smaller aids—— for arthritic finger joints, for instance—— can include special jar openers, ring splints or voice-to-text software to avoid typing. Your doctor may also recommend anti-inflammatory medications(NSAIDs) or an injection to help relieve pain.
Physical therapy is another valuable option for rebuilding strength and mobility,particularly after an injury or arthritis diagnosis. Ruygrok recommends considering it if your joint pain hasn't improved after four to six weeks.
“When these measures no longer provide relief, and joint pain begins to significantly impact your daily activities, that's when we typically start discussing surgical options,”says Nicolas Noiseux, MD, an orthopedic surgeon at University of Iowa Health Care.
28. What is the function of the first 2 paragraphs
A. To explain how joints are formed.
B. To describe the structure of bones in detail.
C. To list all the possible treatments for joint inflammation.
D. To compare different joints and challenge a common misconception about pain.
29. According to Kyle Ruygrok, when should one consider physical therapy
A. Immediately after the pain starts.
B. Only after an injection has failed.
C. When surgery is not an available option.
D. If the pain hasn't improved after 4 6 weeks.
30. What can we learn about surgical treatment for joint pain from the text
A. It is the first option doctors will recommend.
B. It is mainly used to treat occasional joint aches.
C. It is considered when other treatments are ineffective.
D. It is only applicable to large joints like knees and hips.
31. What does the text try to convey
A. The knee is the most important joint in the human body.
B. Joint pain has diverse causes and a graduated way to treat.
C. Daily activities can not significantly influenced by joint pain.
D. Surgery is the only effective way to relieve long-time joint pain.
D
This weekend I had the pleasure of seeing the Latvian animated film Flow in the theater. I'd never heard of it, but all of the other options were sequels(续集) or Christmas movies. Flow had a great trailer(预告片), excellent reviews, and won many awards. I was sold.
It is about the adventures of a black cat, a yellow dog, and several other animals that band together to survive a catastrophic flood. There are no people in the film. In fact, there is no dialogue at all in the hour and a half.
You would think that a movie without any human characters or dialogue would be boring. Well, Flow is anything BUT. On the contrary, I was often on the edge of my seat,terrified for the danger these little guys faced. They' re constantly escaping enemies and rising water. Eventually, our black cat finds himself in a new land. At the start of the movie he is alone, but by the end he is surrounded by new friends.
What, if anything, does this movie“mean” Clearly, one of the basic themes is unity— different species that initially don't get along eventually learn to help each other survive. But I think the fact that humans are completely absent seems intentional. The animals pass through run-down, abandoned towns, implying that humanity may have been wiped out by a bined with the flood, this suggests a metaphor about climate change and sea level rise. The movie's metaphors are subtle: water is an ever-present symbol in the film, and it is constantly flowing forward, pushing the action and our characters. With the title literally named FLOW, temporariness seems to be the main message: things constantly changing, the world moves on. We often can't control storms of life. What we can control are our own actions. You can choose to fight the current or go with it and make the best of what you find down river.
Or it could mean something else completely different to you! Like the best poems,this movie is open to multiple interpretations.
32. What initially motivated the author to watch the film Flow
A. Recommendations from strangers.
B. Curiosity about an unknown movie.
C. Its positive reception and many awards.
D. Its unique theme concerning animals.
33. Which of the following is a distinctive feature of Flow
A. It contains no spoken dialogue.
B. It involves more than human characters.
C. It is a short animation within 90 minutes.
D. It is primarily a Christmas-themed story.
34. In the author's opinion, what does humans' absence from the film imply
A. The difficulty of survival. B. The loss of humanity.
C. The unpredictability of life. D. The unity of diverse species.
35. Where is the text probably from
A. A textbook on animation. B. An eco-tour journal.
C. An entertainment website. D. An editorial on global warming.
第二节(共5 小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
You may have already noticed the nights getting darker, quicker and the days getting shorter, colder and darker. 36 However, stress management expert Sam Wones has shared some top tips for staying sharp-minded.
37 A 20-minute nap is the best because anything past 30 minutes risks waking up
in a deep sleep. Afternoon decline in energy and focus (1-3 p. m., or 7 hours after waking)is normal, a natural feature of circadian rhythm(昼夜节律). Napping is frowned upon in a productivity-driven society, but it's how we' re hardwired. 38 For non-nappers, just be gentle with yourself, take a lunch break, step outside for fresh air or a walk, or focus on less taxing work. Moreover, Wones recommended prioritizing 7.5 hours of nightly sleep. Alack of sleep causes countless health risks beyond brain fog(脑雾). Research found sleeping over 9 hours can have similar harmful effects.
He also suggested high-protein meals with slow-release carbs to stabilize energy. 39 Dates with butter and salt, for instance, help sustain blood sugar while satisfying a sweet tooth. Dehydration(脱水), even mild, can severely disrupts cognitive function, so try to introduce electrolytes(电解质) and minerals to your daytime water. Screens drain energy too, so it's important to move away from your screen from time to time. Suggested work-and-rest ratios are 25:5, 50:10, or 90:15. For your breaks, look away from a screen, move your head, eyes, and stretch. 40
A. Breaks are a tool, not something to avoid.
B. One of the most effective is taking a strategic short nap.
C. Blood sugar levels influence focus, attention and output.
D. Use it strategically to increase your capacity and productivity.
E. Irregular sleep patterns often harm concentration during the day.
F. These food choices keep blood sugar stable, preventing energy drops.
G. As winter comes, it is hard to keep your energy levels up in the day.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I can't remember exactly how the story was told, but it sounded like a fairy tale. The people celebrated with drums, but cruel rulers banned the instruments, wanting them to work day and night. Not 41 , the people found old, rusty oil drums by the sea, heated them with fire, and 42 them with hammers.“Ping-pong, ping-pong”, the sounds 43 music. They played together in the streets, and the rulers couldn't stop them.
I learned to play the Trinidadian steel pan when I was 12. Most kids at my Toronto middle school, like me, were immigrants. Our teacher Pat McNeilly told us the pan was invented in the 1930s from oil drums 44 by the US military, with deep roots in African culture. The pan brought me joy and 45 my life choices. But public music education—especially about non-Western 46 , is often at risk of cancellation. This affects lower-income 47 neighborhoods, as families can't afford private lessons. More than a 48 of music, it's silencing an already hushed(低声的), united history.
In my twenties, I learned the steel pan was a symbol of colonial(殖民的) 49 . The pan is an innovation born from a 50 to create art even in hard times. On Toronto streets, pan players' melodies still 51 something in me. Music like this should be 52 to every student, as it can change lives.
Now in my forties, I see how connected our histories are and how our survival depends on embracing this 53 . The pan's magic 54 listeners and we might find ourselves 55 in to its sound like a magnet to metal.
41. A. giving up B. turning up C. calming down D. showing off
42. A. dug B. held C. covered D. beat
43. A. drowned B. promised C. polished D. ruined
44. A. sold B. donated C. left D. repaired
45. A. shaped B. limited C. broke D. recorded
46. A. musicians B. instruments C. toys D. entertainments
47. A. resident B. native C. immigrant D. foreigner
48. A. shift B. boom C. shortage D. loss
49. A. ignorance B. resistance C. cooperation D. acceptance
50. A. curiosity B. habit C. chance D. desire
51. A. stir B. disturb C. save D. amuse
52. A. convenient B. accessible C. familiar D. foreign
53. A. relation B. origin C. connection D. history
54. A. confuses B. encourages C. worries D. attracts
55. A. looking B. turning C. tuning D. breaking
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式
This year, I decided to take a course called AP Seminar to improve my research,presentation and teamwork skills. To help us, Ms. Maxson divided us into groups. At first, I thought she would assign them 56 (random), but she used a more creative method.
First, she gave us a lecture on the Myers Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI), 57 system that divides people into 16 personality types based on a questionnaire. According to this system, everyone is either introverted(内向的) 58 extroverted(外向的); intuitive or sensing; thinking or feeling; and prospecting or judging. Then, we each took the test to discover our type. I turned out to be an INTP———— the 59 (logic). This means I have 60 (analyse) and curious mind, often drawn to difficult ideas and theories, 61 Ithought was quite accurate.
However, I noted the test's limitations. While 62 (identify) me as an introvert, I believe my behavior, as well as 63 (my), is context-dependent. Furthermore, the questions seemed transparent and easily manipulated(操控) to achieve a desired outcome.
64 its imperfections, the MBTI offered valuable insights into our collaborative styles. Finally, Ms. Maxson formed groups considering personality compatibility. Since extroverts were the majority, each team 65 (consist) of one introvert and three extroverts. So far, my group has been functioning effectively, and I am optimistic about our project.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
假定你是高中生李华,你班计划举办一场英语演讲比赛。外教 Jenny 提供了“TheBeauty of Art”和“The Charm of Sports”两个话题,征求大家的意见。请给她写一封邮件,内容包括:
1.说明你支持的话题;
2.阐述理由。
注意:
1.写作词数应为80个左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答
Dear Jenny, Yours, Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
On a cold, damp evening in mid-November, a sharp wind cut through the streets, butJack paid little attention to the chill. As a delivery rider, he had just finished a few smooth orders, his hands warm from the hot milk tea cups he'd been carrying, and his spirits fairly good. Stepping out of a milk tea shop, he found the spot where his second-hand electric bike had been parked now empty. In an instant, his heart sank, and a wave of hopelessness swept over him, turning his calm evening into a nightmare. That bike was far more than
just a vehicle; it was his lifeline, the only way for him to earn daily income and cover his living expenses.
Panic set in as he remembered the undelivered orders— especially a cup of hot milk tea for Ms. White, a regular customer. His hand trembled as he pressed the voice button, his words laced with sorrow and anxiety as he apologized repeatedly, offering to pay for the undelivered drink. To his great surprise, Ms. White did not respond with anger or complaint, but with gentle kindness. Ms. White told him not to worry and to take his time finding his bike.
Her understanding words calmed him but also deepened his sense of responsibility.“She is so kind. I cannot let her down,” he thought. For nearly two hours, he searched every nearby street, but there was no sign of his bike. As night grew darker and the wind bit harder, Jack clenched his fists and made a firm decision. He took out his poor savings,bought a bag of fresh apples and a new cup of hot milk tea, then set off on foot to Ms.White's apartment, several kilometers away. The wind bit into his thin jacket, and his old shoes grew heavy with mud, but the thought of keeping his promise and maintaining his integrity kept him moving forward through the dimly lit urban landscape.
注意:
1.续写词数应为 100个左右,
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Finally, breathless. Jack reached Ms. White's doorstep and rang the bell. Deeply moved by Jack's action, Ms. White decided to share the story online that night.
参考答案及多维细目表
第一部分 听力
1——5 CACAB 6—10 ACABC
11—15 BABAC 16——20 BACCB
第二部分 阅读
第一节
21—23 ABD 24——27 ABDA
28—31 DDCB 32—35 CABC
【A篇大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了“天——地——空”监测系统在生物多样性保护中的应用。该系统以中央数据库为核心,由空中、地面、大空三个监测层构成。各层通过特定的设备收集野生动物相关数据并传输至数据库以供分析。该系统解决了传统人工巡逻监测存在的环境恶劣、距离远、效率低等问题,显著提升了生物多样性保护的效率与准确性。
21. A 【解析】细节理解题。根据第 一段中的“Traditional ways of monitoring wildlife,which mainly depend on manual patrols ...”可知,传统方法依赖人工巡逻,即过于依赖人力。B选项“不能覆盖长距离”表述绝对,原文仅提及面临长距离的问题,并非传统方法无法覆盖长距离;C选项“不能拯救濒危物种”表述绝对;D选项“需要复杂的技术操作”与原文不符,传统方法依赖人工而非复杂技术。
22. B【解析】细节理解题。根据表格中 Aerial部分中的“Cover large wild areas fast; detectactivities in darkness”及后文中的“in practice,the aerial layer uses UAVs to scan large areas”可知,空中监测层的核心功能是快速扫描野生区域以实现探测。A选项“追踪长距离迁徙路线”是太空层的核心功能;C选项“建立、更新中央数据库”是各层的共同作用,并非空中层的专属;D选项“持续记录动物行为”是地面层的核心功能。
23. D【解析】推理判断题。根据最后一段中的“This tech system greatly improves the efficiency and accuracy of biodiversity protection ... helping endangered species recover better.”可知,该系统对生物多样性保护有重要贡献。A选项“主要需要人工收集数据”与原文中的“reduces theneed for manual work”矛盾;B选项“完全消除人类对野生动物的影响”表述过于绝对,原文表述是“reducing human influence”;C选项“已完全取代传统保护方式”原文中未提及,无中生有。
【B篇大意】本文是一篇记叙文。在派对上,作者结识一位即将前往非洲进行野外观兽旅行的博物馆馆长,并且对此非常感兴趣。于是与伴侣一起预订了一场用相机拍摄野生动物的旅行。在马赛马拉自然保护区,他们见到了《狮子王》中的多种经典野生动物。其中八头大象吃草的场景尤为震撼。作者由此感慨,尽管人类存在残酷之处,但自然依然美好,并呼吁人们及时欣赏自然。
24. A 【解析】细节理解题。根据第一段中的“thesort where you shoot wildlife with a camerarather than a gun”可知,该旅行的特点是用相机近距离拍摄野生动物。作者是通过一位博物馆馆长了解到旅行,并非馆长推荐,B选项“由博物馆馆长推荐”错误;C选项“要求携带枪支防身” j原文中的“shoot wildlife with a camerarather than a gun”矛盾;原文中的“enthusiasticallybooked one”未体现“last-minute(最后一分钟的)”,D选项“因兴奋临时预订”错误。
25. B 【解析】推理判断题。根据第二段中的“wesaw every animal that was in The Lion King”可知,他们见到了《狮子王》中的各类动物,即多种经典野生动物。原文中的“a herd of eightelephants ... stole the show”表明大象更引人注目,A选项“狮子是最令人印象深刻的动物”错误;C选项“作者推荐电影《狮子王》”文中没有提及,无中生有;D选项“马赛马拉是《狮子王》的拍摄地”未提及,原文仅说见到了电影里的动物。
26. D【解析】词义猜测题。前文提到见到狮子等多种动物,后文强调大象吃草的声音令人震撼可知,大象吃草的场景最吸引人。因此,D选项“成为最吸引人的部分”符合语境。A选项“未达预期”、B选项“造成突然干扰”、C选项“制造危险情境”均与语境不符。
27. A【解析】写作意图题。通读全文尤其是第三段中的“before it's too late we need toappreciate it”可知,作者通过分享旅行经历,目的是呼吁人们及时欣赏自然。B选项“分享难忘的旅行经历”是表层内容,并非主要目的;C选项“提醒读者人类的残酷”是铺垫,不是重点;D选项“描述非洲野生动物的美丽”是为了引出呼吁。
【C篇大意】本文是一篇说明文。人体关节众多,出现关节疼痛也不足为怀。导致关节痛的原因有很多,如衰老、过度使用、炎症、受伤等。作者通过引用专业医师的建议,介绍了关节痛的分级应对方案,从简单休息、使用辅助工具、药物治疗,到物理治疗,并提及了手术治疗的适用情况。
28. D【解析】推理判断题。通读前两段的内容可知,第一段介绍了人体关节的构成,说明关节易出现疼痛、僵硬等不适的客观原因;第二段对比了人体最小关节(在耳部)和最大关节(膝关节)的特点,同时指出“关节痛并非老年人专属”,纠正了人们对关节痛的常见误解。A选项“解释关节的形成方式”,原文仅提及关节的组成成分,未讲解形成过程,表述错误;B选项“详细描述骨骼的结构”,前两段核心围绕“关节”展开,并非骨骼结构,偏离主题;C选项“列出关节炎的所有治疗方法”,治疗方法是后文内容,前两段未涉及,无中生有;D选项“对比不同关节并质疑关于关节痛的常见误解”,契合前两段的核心内容,表述正确。
29. D 【解析】细节理解题。根据第五段中的“Ruygrok recommends considering it if your joint pain hasn't improved after four to six weeks”可知, Ruygrok 建议若关节痛在4 至6周内仍未好转,可考虑物理治疗。A选项“疼痛一开始就立即进行”,与原文建议的时间节点不符;B选项“仅在注射治疗无效后进行”,原文未提及将注射治疗作为物理治疗,无中生有;C选项“在手术不可行时进行”,手术是物理治疗无效后的后续方案。
30. C【解析】推理判断题。根据文章最后一段中的 Nicolas Noiseux 医生的表述可知,当休息、辅助工具、药物、物理治疗等常规手段无法再缓解疼痛,且关节疼痛严重影响日常活动时,医生才会开始讨论手术治疗方案。由此可推知,手术治疗是在其他治疗手段无效时的考量选项。A项“是医生首先推荐的方案”与原文相悖,原文指出手术是后期考量的方案,初期会推荐辅助工具、药物等;B项“主要用于治疗偶尔的关节酸痛”错误,偶尔的关节酸痛可通过休息缓解,无需手术;D项“仅适用于膝盖、髋部等大关节”在原文中无依据。
31. B【解析】主旨大意题。通读全文可知,文章先介绍关节的基础信息,指出导致关节痛的原因有多种,如衰老、过度使用、炎症、受伤等;然后以专业医师的建议为依据,介绍了从休息、辅助工具、药物,到物理治疗、手术的分级治疗方式。文章的核心是围绕“导致关节痛的原因”和“梯度化治疗方案”展开。A选项“膝关节是人体最重要的关节”,原文仅提及膝关节是最大的关节,未提及“最重要”,无中生有;C选项“日常活动不会受关节痛显著影响”与原文“when jointpain begins to significantly impact your dailyactivities”相悖;D 选项“手术是缓解长期关节痛的唯一有效方法”,原文明确手术是其他方法无效后的选择,并非“唯一有效方法”,表述绝对且错误。
【D篇大意】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了拉脱维亚动画电影 Flow。影片讲述了黑猫、黄狗等动物在洪水中团结求生的故事,蕴含团结、气候变化、世事无常等多重隐喻,具有开放性解读空间。
32. C 【解析】细节理解题。根据第一段中的“Flow had a great trailer, excellent reviews,and won many awards. I was sold.”可知, Flow的良好口碑和获得众多奖项是促使作者看这部电影的动机。A选项“陌生人的推荐”、B选项“对未知电影的好奇”、D选项“独特的动物主题”均未提及。
33. A 【解析】细节理解题。根据第二段中的“Infact, there is no dialogue at all in the hour anda half.”可知,影片没有对白,这是其独特之处。B选项“涉及人类角色以外的更多角色”表述模糊,且与原文中的“There are no people in thefilm.”信息不符;C选项“90分钟内的短动画”,原文虽提及时长1.5小时,但“短动画”并非其显著特点;D选项“主要是圣诞主题故事”与原文“all of the other options were sequels orChristmas movies”信息不符。
34. B 【解析】推理判断题。根据第四段中的“Theanimals pass through run-down, abandonedtowns, implying that humanity may have beenwiped out by a disaster.”可知,动物经过废弃城镇,暗示人类可能因灾难而灭绝了,即人类的消失。A选项“生存的艰难”、C选项“生活的不可预测性”、D选项“不同物种的团结”均与动画片中没有人类角色的暗示无关。
35. C【解析】推理判断题。通读全文可知,文章为作者对动画电影 Flow的观看体验和解读,属于娱乐类内容。因此,本文最可能来自娱乐网站。A选项“动画教材”、B选项“一篇生态旅游日志”、D选项“关于全球变暖的社论”均与文本性质不符,文本并非学术、专业研究或环保主题报道。
第二节
36-40 GBDFA
【文章大意】本文是一篇说明文。针对冬季白天精力不足、思维迟钝的问题,文章分享了压力管理专家山姆·沃恩斯的实用建议,包括战略小憩、保证充足睡眠、食用高蛋白配缓释碳水化合物的食物、补充水分、合理安排工作与休息时间等。
36. G【解析】考查上下文衔接。前文提到“夜晚变黑更快,白天变短、变冷、变暗”,后文转折提到“分享保持思维敏锐的技巧”。G选项“随着冬天到来,白天很难保持精力充沛”承接前文季节变化的背景,自然引出后文的解决办法,符合语境。
37. B【解析】考查段落主旨。后文围绕“20分钟小睡是最佳选择”“午睡的好处”“不午睡者的应对方式”展开。B选项“最有效的方法之一是进行战略小憩”作为段落主旨句,能统领该段内容,符合语境。
38. D【解析】考查上下文衔接。前文提到“在注重效率的社会中,午睡不受认可,但这是我们的本能”。D选项“战略性地利用它来提高你的能力和效率”承接前文,说明应合理利用午睡的价值,与后文“不午睡者的应对方式”形成对比,衔接自然,符合语境。
39. F【解析】考查上下文衔接。前文提到“推荐高蛋白配缓释碳水化合物的餐食以稳定能量”,后文举例“黄油盐渍椰枣能维持血糖并满足甜食需求”。F选项“这些食物选择能保持血糖稳定,防止能量下降”承上启下,解释了前文食物选择的作用,与后文例子呼应,逻辑通顺,符合语境。
40. A【解析】考查段落总结。前文提到“电子产品会消耗能量,应不时远离,建议工作与休息保持适当的比例,并说明休息时的做法”。A选项“休息是一种工具,而非需要避免的事情”总结前文,强调休息的重要性,符合语境。
第三部分 语言运用
第一节
41——45 ADHCA 46—50 BCDBD
51—55 ABCDC
【文章大意】本文是一篇记叙文。作者讲述了特立尼达钢鼓的起源————殖民时期统治者禁止鼓类乐器,人们用海边废弃的油桶制作钢鼓演奏音乐。作者12岁时学习钢鼓。这个给他带来了快乐并影响了他的人生选择。作者认为这类承载着文化联结的音乐应让每个学生都能接触到。
41. A【解析】考查动词短语。前文提到统治者禁止鼓类乐器,后文提到“人们找到海边生锈的油桶,用火加热并用锤子敲击”,说明人们没有放弃(give up)。
42. D 【解析】考查动词。根据后文的“… themwith hammers.‘Ping-pong, ping-pong’”可知.人们是用锤子敲击(beat)油桶。
43. B 【解析】考查动词。敲击油桶的声音构成了音乐,B选项“promised(预示)”符合语境,此处指的是敲击钢鼓的声音有望成为音乐,描述的是旧物改造,偶然发明一种乐器的过程。A选项“drowned(淹没)”、C 选项“polished(打磨)”、D选项“ruined(破坏)”均不符合句意。
44. C【解析】考查动词。根据语境可知,油桶是美国军队留下(leave)的废弃物品。
45. A【解析】考查动词。钢鼓给了作者快乐,并影响了他的人生选择,A选项“shaped(塑造,影响)”符合语境,侧重长期的、潜移默化的影响。B选项“limited(限制)”、C 选项“broke(打破)”、D选项“recorded(记录)”均不符合句意。
46. B【解析】考查名词。前文提到钢鼓是乐器,此处指非西方乐器(instrument)。
47. C【解析】考查形容词。前文提到“作者所在的多伦多中学大多是移民孩子”。因此,此处指低收入的移民(immigrant)社区。
48. D【解析】考查名词。根据语境可知,非西方乐器的公共音乐教育被取消,不仅仅是音乐的缺失(loss),更是正在悄然消逝的、原本就十分低沉且团结的过往历史的终结。
49. B【解析】考查名词。根据语境可知,钢鼓是殖民时期人们反抗统治者禁令的产物,是殖民抵抗(resistance)的象征。
50. D【解析】考查名词。根据语境可知,钢鼓是人们在艰难时期渴望(desire)创造艺术的创新产物。
51. A【解析】考查动词。根据语境可知,多伦多街头钢鼓演奏者的旋律仍能激起(stir)作者内心的某种东西。
52. B【解析】考查形容词。根据语境可知,作者认为,这类音乐应让每个学生都能接触到。beaccessible to sb 意为“某人可接触到的”,为固定搭配。
53. C【解析】考查名词。前文提到“我们的历史是相互联结的”。因此,此处指拥抱这种联结(connection)。
54. D【解析】考查动词。根据语境可知,钢鼓的魔力吸引(attract)着听众。
55. C【解析】考查动词。根据语境可知,听众会像磁铁吸引金属一样沉浸在钢鼓的声音中,tunein to为固定搭配,表示“收听(收音机广播节目):收看(电视节目);使调整频率;使适应”,在此处意译为“沉浸”,符合语境。A选项“looking(看)”、B 选项“turning(转向)”、D 选项“breaking(打破)”均不符合搭配和句意。
第二节
【文章大意】本文是一篇记叙文。作者为提升研究、演讲和团队合作技能,选修了 AP 研讨会课程。老师马克森女士没有随机分组,而是通过MBTI人格测试了解学生的人格类型,再根据人格兼容性分组。虽然作者认为 MBTI人格测试有局限性,但该测试仍为团队协作提供了有价值的见解。
56. randomly 【解析】考查副词。分析句子结构可知,设空处所填词修饰动词 assign,应用副词形式。故填 randomly。
57. a【解析】考查冠词。分析句意可知,此处泛指一种系统,应用不定冠词;system的发音以辅音音素开头,应用不定冠词a。故填a。
58. or 【解析】考查固定搭配。 either … or …是固定结构,表示“要么……要么……”,此处指“每个人要么内向,要么外向”。故填 or。
59. logician 【解析】考查名词。考查名词的拼写。作者通过测试,发现自己属于 an INTP,即一名逻辑学家。故填 logician。
60. analytical/ analytic 【解析】考查形容词。分析句子结构可知,设空处所填词与 curious 并列,作定语,应用形容词形式。analyse 的形容词形式为 analytical/ analytic.意为“分析的”。故填analytical/ analytic。
61. which 【解析】考查定语从句。分析句子结构可知,设空处所填词引导非限制性定语从句,指代前文整个句子的内容,且在从句中作主语,应用 which。故填 which。
62. identifying 【解析】考查非谓语动词。分析句子结构可知,while引导的是时间状语从句的省略形式,从句主语与主句主语一致,且主语Ⅰ与identify之间为逻辑上的主谓关系,应用现在分词形式。故填 identifying。
63. myself 【解析】考查代词。分析句子结构可知,设空处所填词与 my behavior 并列,作 aswell as的宾语,应用反身代词 myself,表示“我自己”。故填 myself。
64. Despite 【解析】考查介词。分析句子结构可知,此处表示“尽管存在缺陷”, its imperfections是名词短语,应用介词 despite,相当于“although/ though it has imperfections”,设空处所填词位于句首,首字母需要大写。故填Despite。
65. consisted 【解析】考查动词的时态。根据空前的“since extrovert were the majority”可知,应用一般过去时。 consist of …意为“由……组成”,为固定搭配。故填 consisted。
第四部分 写作
第一节
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为15分,按5个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3.词数少于60词或多于100词的,从总分中减去2分。
4.评分时,应注意的主要内容为:时态、人称、内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性、上下文的连贯性、语言的得体性及应用文体裁格式。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6.如书写较差,以致影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求第五档(13——15分)
1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。
2.覆盖所有内容要点。
3.应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
4.语法或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或词汇所致。
5.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
6.完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档(10—12分)
1.完成了试题规定的任务。
2.虽漏掉一两个次要点,但覆盖所有主要内容。
3.应用的语法结构和词汇方面能满足任务的要求。
4.语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
6.达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档(7——9分)
1.基本完成了试题规定的任务。
2.虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。
3.应用的语法结构和词汇方面基本能满足任务的要求。
4.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。
5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
6.整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档(4——6分)
1.未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
2.漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。
3.语法结构单调,词汇知识有限。
4.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。
5.较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。
6.信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档(1——3分)
1.未完成试题规定的任务。
2.明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。
3.语法结构单调,词汇知识很有限。
4.较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。
5.缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。
6.信息未能传达给读者。
不得分(0分)
未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少,无法评判。所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。

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