资源简介

高一英语参考答案
听力（共 20小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 30分）
1—5 BCCAC 6—10 ABCCA 11—15 ABACB 16—20 BACCA
阅读（共 20小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 50分）
21—23 CDA
24—27 BDBA
28—31 ACDC
32—35 BBDA
36—40 CGFAD
语言运用第一节（共 15小题；每小题 1分，满分 15分）
41—45 ACBDA 46—50 BCDAD 51—55 BCBAD
第二节（共 10小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 15分）
56. which 57. has experienced 58. basically 59. setting 60. the
61. reaction 62. to prevent 63. as 64. advantages 65. Polluted
评分原则：
1．铅笔作答不给分。
2．有拼写或大小写错误的作答不给分。
3．所填词汇正确，但有形式错误的不给分。
4．英式、美式拼写均可给分。
5．除所列答案外，若试评过程中发现其他可接受答案，经评卷专家组讨论确认后也可给分。
写作：
第一节（满分 15分）
参考范文：
Dear Emily,
How is it going I’d like to tell you about the English song sharing and communication activity organised by
our school English Club in the lecture hall last Friday afternoon.
During the event, some students shared their favorite English songs and explained the stories behind them.
Others sang English songs together and talked about how music influences our daily life. We also discussed
different styles of music and enjoyed beautiful melodies together.
The activity was well-received by students. Many said they discovered new music and learned about different
cultures through songs. Everyone was already looking forward to the next one!
Have you ever attended a similar event I’d love to hear about your experiences.
Yours,
Li Hua
一、写作要点
学生在写这封给外国朋友 Emily的邮件时，要注意以下写作要点：
首先是活动基本信息交代清晰完整。学生应准确说明活动的名称、举办时间、地点及主办方，信息完整无
遗漏，表达简洁规范。
建议该部分满分计 4分，若学生答到其他言之成理的方面，也可酌情给分。
其次是活动内容的具体描述。学生应合理介绍英文歌曲分享与交流活动的主要环节，如分享英文歌曲、讲
述其背后的故事、共同演唱、交流感受等，内容贴合主题，语句通顺。
建议该部分满分计 6分，若学生答到其他言之成理的方面，也可酌情给分。
最后是活动反响表达真实自然。学生应写出同学们对活动的正面评价、收获与期待，体现活动意义，语气
符合与朋友交流的语境，逻辑合理。
建议该部分满分计 5分，若学生答到其他言之成理的方面，也可酌情给分。
二、评分原则
1．本题总分为 15分，按五个档次进行评分。
2．评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性。
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档
次，最后给分。
4．评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于 60个的，酌情扣分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写
及词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
三、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（13—15分）
——覆盖了所有内容要点，表述清楚、合理。
——使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。
——有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（10—12分）
——覆盖了所有内容要点，表述比较清楚、合理。
——使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档（7—9分）
——覆盖了大部分内容要点，有个别地方表述不够清楚、合理。
——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
——基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（4—6分）
——遗漏或未清楚表述一些内容要点，或一些内容与写作目的不相关。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
——几乎不能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
未能达到预期的写作目的。
第一档（1—3分）
——遗漏或未清楚表述大部分内容要点，或大部分内容与写作目的不相关。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
完全未达到预期的写作目的。
零分
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容与题目要求完全不相关。
第二节（满分 25分）
参考范文：
But when I felt too confused to keep going, I turned to Alex once again. Instead of criticizing me, he
encouraged me to take short breaks and reminded me why I loved drawing in the first place. He even sat with me
after school, quietly working on his own projects while I sketched. His calm presence made the task feel less
stressful. When I doubted myself, he pointed out small improvements in my lines and colors, helping me realize
that progress mattered more than perfection. Gradually, my fear was replaced by confidence and curiosity.
As the competition day approached, I felt proud of my progress. My final design was not flawless, but it was
truly mine. Walking into the exhibition hall, I no longer compared myself with others. Instead, I felt grateful for the
journey I had taken. Although I didn’t know the result yet, I had already won something more valuable: face fear
with courage, start small, and keep going with the support of a true friend. And I would carry this treasure with me
for the rest of my creative journey.
一、写作要点
第一段：
核心内容：描写自己在创作中遇到困难、内心迷茫困惑时，向朋友 Alex求助的过程，突出朋友的陪伴、鼓
励与引导，体现主人公从自我怀疑到重拾信心的心理转变。
可展开方向：描写自身创作受阻、内心焦虑不安的状态；描写 Alex耐心安慰、陪伴画画的细节；描写 Alex
肯定作品中的进步、引导重视主人公重视过程而非追求完美结果；体现主人公压力缓解、恐惧逐渐消散、
重新燃气创作热情，为下文完成作品、实现成长作铺垫。
建议该部分满分计 13分，若学生答到其他言之成理的方面，也可酌情给分。
第二段：
核心内容：描写自己比赛临近时的心情与作品完成情况，升华友谊、勇气与面对恐惧的主题，使故事结构
完整。
可展开方向：描写对自身创作过程的自豪与满足；描写作品虽不完美但真实独特；描写不再与他人比较、
内心从容自信的状态；点明从这段经历中收获比奖项更珍贵的勇气、坚持与友谊，突出直面恐惧、从小事
开始的意义。
建议该部分满分计 12分，若学生答到其他言之成理的方面，也可酌情给分。
二、评分原则
1．本题总分为 25分，按五个档次进行评分。
2．评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）创造内容的质量，续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档
次，最后给分。
4．评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于 120个的，酌情扣分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写
及词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
三、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（21—25分）
——创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。
——使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。
——有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
第四档（16—20分）
——创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高。
——使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档（11—15分）
——创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。
——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
——基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档（6—10分）
——内容或逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文情境有一定程度脱节。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
——未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第一档（1—5分）
——内容或逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
零分
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。高一英语
注意事项：
1．答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改
动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在
本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂
到答题卡上。
第一节（共 5小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 7.5分）
听下面 5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是 C。
1. When did Peter join a swimming club
A. In 1980. B. In 1982. C. In 1997.
2. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Interviewer and Interviewee. B. Teacher and student. C. Co-workers.
3. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a restaurant. B. In an office. C. At the Ocean Park.
4. What does the woman mean
A. Amy always keeps her word.
B. Amy doesn’t really want to come.
C. Amy always fails to keep her promise.
5. What happened to John
A. His car didn’t break down.
B. He died in the car accident.
C. He survived the car accident.
第二节（共 15小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 22.5分）
听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中
选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟；听完后，
各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6段材料，回答第 6、7题。
6. When will the speakers meet Mr. Peterson in their college
A. Next week. B. Next month. C. Next year.
7. What does the man think of Mr. Peterson’s lecture
A. Useful. B. Hard. C. Interesting.
听第 7段材料，回答第 8、9题。
8. What color is the woman’s new car
A. Cream. B. White. C. Blue.
9. How often does the man wash his car
A. Every five years.
B. Every two years.
C. Every year.
听第 8段材料，回答第 10至 12题。
10. What department does the man work in
A. The marketing department.
B. The production department.
C. The human resources department.
11. What does the man say about the work in the new company
A. It is done in teams.
B. It is done by oneself.
C. It is done all by machines.
12. What does the man think about his new boss
A. He is difficult to get along with.
B. He treats everyone with respect.
C. He doesn’t care about his employees.
听第 9段材料，回答第 13至 16题。
13. In which season did the man visit Japan
A. Summer. B. Autumn. C. Winter.
14. What is the man’s view on Tokyo
A. It is small and less crowded.
B. It is full of beautiful buildings.
C. It is exciting but not very pretty.
15. What did the man find attractive about Kyoto
A. The modern architecture.
B. The beautiful temples and gardens.
C. The old palace and the affordability.
16. What does the man mean about shopping in Tokyo
A. It offers the cheapest cameras.
B. It has a wide selection of cameras.
C. It is known for the price for goods.
听第 10段材料，回答第 17至 20题。
17. How old was the speaker when her grandfather had a heart attack
A. 14. B. 15. C. 16.
18. Why did the speaker decide to take a first aid course
A. To become a doctor.
B. To help with schoolwork.
C. To help others in emergencies.
19. What happened to the speaker’s friend
A. She breathed too fast.
B. She made a chocolate cake.
C. She was sick after eating a cake with nuts.
20. What did the speaker do to help her friend
A. She gave her first aid.
B. She taught her first aid.
C. She called for help loudly.
第二部分阅读（共两节，满分 50分）
第一节（共 15小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
London Cross-Cultural Leadership and Public Speaking Summit
Program overview
The London Cross-Cultural Leadership and Public Speaking Summit 2026 is an international youth leadership
development program, jointly organized by International Kingdom and Speak Up London, and held in London,
United Kingdom.
One of the organizers
Speak Up London is a modern English language institute located in the heart of London, specializing in
practical, conversation-based English learning. The school offers a variety of courses designed to help international
students improve their speaking, listening, and overall communication skills for daily life, study, and work. With
experienced teachers, interactive classes, and a diverse international student community, Speak Up London
provides a supportive environment that helps learners build confidence and fluency in English.
Qualifications for applicants
·Be aged 18-35 years old
·Able to communicate in English
· In good physical health, with a positive mindset, a commitment to self-devotion, and a strong interest in
learning about diverse cultures
·Responsible, adaptable, and open to new experiences
·No criminal record
·Willing to comply (遵从 ) with all UK immigration (移民 ) requirements and strictly adhere to the laws,
customs, and social norms of the United Kingdom
·Must not have previously received a full scholarship from the government of the United Kingdom
Program duration
Application Period (January-February)
Confirmation Deadline: 2-7 February 2026
Prepare required documents and apply for a UK visa
On-site program in London (27 April-7 May 2026)
On-site learning activities at Speak Up London, including academic visits and experiential learning such as the
Houses of Parliament and other key learning sites as outlined by the program.
21. What benefit can students gain from Speak Up London
A. Getting paid work experience.
B. Earning enough academic credits.
C. Improving English language skills.
D. Having a deeper understanding of British history.
22. Which of the following is a requirement for applicants to the program
A. Having British nationality.
B. Being younger than 18 years old.
C. Speaking English and French fluently.
D. Being healthy and willing to try new things.
23. What is the purpose of the text
A. To introduce a program.
B. To point out the role of Speak Up London.
C. To inform students of the importance of learning English.
D. To attract students to on-site learning activities at Speak Up London.
B
Scott Behringer, George Gilbert and Tim Korber first met on vacation many years ago. In 1994, they took a
beach photo in Cabo San Lucas, Mexico. In the picture, the three men stood side by side with their arms crossed
and their baseball caps turned backward. They wore bright swim shorts and looked relaxed and happy. They later
called it their “iconic photo”.
Their friendship began in 1986. Tim and his wife Patty met Scott and his wife Cheree in Cancun, Mexico.
They quickly became close friends and kept traveling together. Later, on a flight, they met another couple, George
and Debbie. By chance, all three couples were from California. Soon, the six of them became close friends. They
supported each other in daily life and shared many trips around the world.
Over the years, they traveled to many places, including the Sierra Nevada mountains, Hawaii and even South
Africa. They celebrated weddings, birthdays and other important moments together. Their children grew up
together, and now they are proud grandparents. They often say they are more than friends — they are like family.
The 1994 beach photo became a symbol of their strong friendship. During later trips, the three men often
copied the same pose for fun.
In 2024, they had a special chance to recreate the photo. George and Debbie’s son was getting married in Cabo,
the same place where the original picture was taken. The three men brought clothes like those they wore in the
1990s and returned to the same beach. Although the background had changed because of a hurricane, they stood in
the same spot and struck the same pose.
When they compared the old and new photos, they felt proud. The picture was not just about the past. It
showed a friendship that had lasted for over thirty years.
24. When did the three men’s friendship begin
A. During a visit to a local school.
B. During a holiday abroad.
C. During a family party.
D. During a business meeting.
25. Why did the three men revisit Cabo in 2024
A. For a fashion show. B. For a class reunion.
C. For a sports meet. D. For a wedding.
26. What can be learned about the three couples
A. They were business teammates.
B. They formed a family-like relationship.
C. They came from the same baseball team.
D. They were all professional photographers.
27. Which is the most suitable title for the text
A. A Photo That Lasted 30 Years B. Amazing Attractions in Mexico
C. Adventures Around the World D. A Beach Changed by a Disaster
C
Scientists have reported the first known case of a cow using a tool. Veronika, a pet cow in Austria, was studied
as she used a broom (扫帚) to scratch (挠) different parts of her body.
Veronika is not an ordinary cow. That’s because she’s not a farm animal — she’s a pet. That allows her to do
what she wants when she wants to. But Veronika often has itchy spots on her skin because of bites from horseflies.
Her owner says that for years, Veronika has picked up sticks with her mouth and used them to scratch herself. She
wasn’t taught to do this — she just figured it out.
Dr. Alice Auersperg, a scientist who studies how animals solve problems, became curious after watching a
video of Veronika. Tool use had never been observed in cows before.
Dr. Auersperg and her team decided to run an experiment to see if Veronika could use a broom to scratch
herself. Since one end of the broom had stiff bristles, they thought Veronika might use that end to scratch herself.
Over several days, the scientists offered Veronika the broom by putting it on the ground in front of her. Veronika
lifted the broom by wrapping her tongue around the handle, and then grabbing the handle with her teeth. Then she
began to use the broom to scratch.
At first, the researchers thought Veronika overlooked (忽视) that end and was making a mistake. But then,
they realized she was choosing the best part of the broom to use on each part of her body. The bristles of the broom
might have been too rough for the soft, sensitive skin lower down.
The researchers call this “multi-purpose tool use”. Until now, this ability had only been seen in chimpanzees.
However, the researchers believe many cows may be so smart but do not have the chance to show it.
Veronika’s long and interesting life may have helped her develop the ability. Veronika is 13 years old. And, as
a pet, she’s had many chances to learn and grow.
28. How does Veronika differ from most cows
A. She lives freely as a pet. B. She stays mostly on a farm.
C. She works daily for people. D. She grows up with farmers.
29. Why did the researchers place a broom in front of Veronika
A. To check if she could carry it across fields.
B. To see if she would lift it for food rewards.
C. To test if she could use it to relieve discomfort.
D. To watch whether she might pay attention to it.
30. What can be inferred about cows from the experiment
A. They hardly change habits in daily life.
B. They need special training to show skills.
C. They show intelligence only under pressure.
D. They may have abilities that are often overlooked.
31. What do the researchers intend to express in the last paragraph
A. Veronika’s future life is uncertain.
B. Cows should be kept as pets by more families.
C. A friendly environment may help animals grow.
D. A farm life always ensures animals’ better behavior.
D
Scientists in Australia have found strong evidence that long-term insomnia (失眠) may be caused by problems
in the brain’s natural 24-hour rhythm (节奏). This rhythm controls how active our minds are during the day and
night. The discovery helps explain why some people cannot “switch off” at night, even when their bodies feel tired.
In a study published in Sleep Medicine, researchers from the University of South Australia studied how
thinking changes over a whole day. They compared 16 older adults with insomnia to 16 healthy sleepers. This was
the first time scientists carefully recorded daily changes in mental activity in this way.
Insomnia affects about 10% of people and is even more common among older adults. Many patients say their
minds feel too active at night. Doctors often call this “mental overactivity”, but the exact reason has not been clear.
To find answers, the researchers carried out a 24-hour lab experiment. All 32 volunteers stayed awake in bed
under soft light. Food, movement, and outside time signals were strictly controlled. This allowed scientists to study
specifically the brain’s natural rhythm.
Every hour, the participants described their thoughts, including how clear, emotional, or controllable they
were. Results showed that both groups had natural daily patterns: thinking was strongest in the afternoon and
weakest in the early morning.
However, people with insomnia showed important differences. Unlike healthy sleepers, their thinking did not
slow down strongly at night. Their thought patterns stayed more daytime-like in the nighttime hours when the brain
should be quietening. Their cognitive (认知的) peaks were also deferred by around six and a half hours, suggesting
that their internal (内在的) clocks may encourage attentive thinking well into the night.
The researchers say that current treatments only focus on behavioral strategies, but these findings suggest that
tailored approaches addressing circadian and cognitive factors could offer a solution.
32. What was the purpose of the lab experiment
A. To explore the harms of insomnia in the elderly.
B. To study people’s internal daily brain rhythm.
C. To track emotional changes over time.
D. To measure light effects on sleep.
33. What were the participants required to do every hour
A. Rate light levels. B. Report their ideas. C. Record sleep length. D. Measure brain waves.
34. What does the underlined word “deferred” in paragraph 6 mean
A. Examined. B. Removed. C. Given up. D. Put off.
35. What do the researchers expect of the findings
A. They will play a role in treating insomnia.
B. They will be applied to new medical fields.
C. They will help patients improve their lives.
D. They will bring about the change of traditional medicine.
第二节（共 5小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How to Build Healthier Online Habits
Building a healthier digital life starts with a personalized schedule that fits your daily routine. 36 . You
are not supposed to check them casually. For example, limiting social platforms to 30 minutes in the morning and
evening can prevent endless scrolling (滚屏) and reduce digital tiredness. Planned use of technology helps you stay
focused on work, study, and real-life activities. Review your schedule regularly and adjust it as your needs change.
37 .
Another useful strategy is creating tech-free areas at home. Choose areas such as the dining room or bedroom
where phones and other devices are not allowed. 38 . Without continuous notice, you can relax and think
more clearly. Tech-free areas also show family members that quality time matters.
39 . Many phones and apps include screen-time tracking and reminder tools. You can set daily limits
for certain apps and receive warnings when you reach them. Parental control systems allow families to manage
usage together and set shared screen-free periods. Some Wi-Fi tools can pause Internet access during meals or
bedtime. These features make it easier to build healthy habits and reduce unnecessary distractions (分心的事务).
Limiting screen time works best when you replace it with meaningful offline activities. Try hobbies that
encourage creativity and movement, such as sports, painting, cooking, reading, or outdoor activities. These
experiences reduce reliance on screens. 40 . When you see offline time as a positive choice, you naturally
create a more satisfying lifestyle.
A. Technology itself can help control overuse
B. Recognizing the signs of digital overload is a key step to help
C. Set specific time blocks for social media, email, and other online tasks
D. They can also help you reconnect with people and the world around you
E. You are expected to reduce turning to various social media updates by design
F. These spaces promote better conversations, deeper connections, and improved sleep
G. An adaptable and purposeful plan can make a significant difference in your well-being
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 30分）
第一节（共 15小题；每小题 1分，满分 15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Keeping a dog may be the only time when one chooses a family member. Ophelia, our German Shepherd (德
国牧羊犬), was the one we almost 41 , because my son Barrett, stuck in tough times, had to give her up.
Eventually, we 42 took her in to be honest, but we still prepared for 43 — chewing furniture (咬家
具) and hair everywhere. Yet this shy puppy gradually 44 our hearts, splitting life into “Before” Ophelia
and “After” Ophelia. We soon 45 our initial expectations of trouble were far from the truth.
To our surprise, Ophelia had a natural gift for pet therapy (疗法). At a care residence interview, she 46
the interviewers and was praised. Her first visit with Torin, who’d lost his German Shepherd, was 47 : She
jumped into his hospital bed, lay down beside him and even made sad Torin 48 . Ophelia was always gentle
with residents, displayed tricks, helped the lonely, and brought them joy.
Now we join the St. John Ambulance Therapy Dog Program, having met all 49 and gained
permission. The program 50 Ophelia as a fit member. She is energetic yet tender, turning each visit into
an 51 gift. She 52 our family, turning challenges into blessings.
We don’t choose a (n) 53 ; it chooses us. Ophelia taught us life’s unplanned joys are the most precious,
and we 54 this fully from the experience. Her presence is a living 55 of accepting the unexpected,
for life’s best moments sometimes arrives unplanned.
41. A. refused B. cured C. believed D. helped
42. A. proudly B. naturally C. unwillingly D. impolitely
43. A. explanations B. challenges C. limitations D. differences
44. A. broke B. tore C. hardened D. stole
45. A. realized B. imagined C. remembered D. promised
46. A. ran at B. won over C. looked for D. turned to
47. A. simple B. doubtful C. magical D. disappointing
48. A. regret B. complain C. shout D. laugh
49. A. requirements B. theories C. descriptions D. difficulties
50. A. mistook B. stopped C. defended D. recognized
51. A. uncertain B. unexpected C. untrue D. unsuitable
52. A. forgot B. visited C. connected D. left
53. A. parent B. animal C. neighbour D. colleague
54. A. understood B. protested C. created D. changed
55. A. test B. trick C. skill D. example
第二节（共 10小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Yangtze River was once a symbol of the environmental damage， 56 was caused by rapid
industrialization and resulted in wildlife numbers falling sharply. Over the past 10 years, however, China’s longest
river 57 (experience) a steady change, becoming increasingly connected with clearer waters, recovering
wildlife and greener development.
This change is 58 (basic) the result of long-term efforts under the Yangtze River Economic Belt to
apply the simple principle: rank protection first and avoid unreasonable development. By sticking to 59
(set) ecological limits in economic development, the area has reshaped the development along the river.
One clear example is the Yangtze knifefish. Around 2012, overfishing and pollution pushed 60
species close to disappearance. In 61 (react) to this, authorities started a 10-year fishing ban (禁令) in 2021
as part of a broader restoration (修复) plan 62 (prevent) illegal fishing and cross-border pollution. In some
cities, former fishermen now serve 63 river guardians, showing how environmental protection and social
stability can advance together.
Restoration work has brought wider 64 (advantage). Planting trees and restoring shoreline have
reduced soil loss. 65 (pollute) industrial areas have been turned into ecological corridors (走廊), where
endangered species are returning. At the same time, green policies have supported economic upgrading. Outdated
and high-pollution industries have been replaced by cleaner production, and new sectors such as new-energy
vehicles and renewable energy are expanding along the river.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 40分）
第一节（满分 15分）
假定你是李华，你校英语俱乐部上个星期举办了英文歌曲分享与交流活动。请给你的外国朋友 Emily
写一封邮件介绍此次活动，内容包括：
（1）活动时间和地点；
（2）活动内容；
（3）活动的反响。
注意：
（1）写作词数应为 80个左右；
（2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Emily,
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分 25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
There was a time when procrastination (拖延) nearly stopped me from joining my school’s annual art design
competition. As a teenager who loved drawing, I had dreamed of entering the competition for years. Yet when the
announcement was finally posted on the notice board, I froze. Every afternoon, I would sit at my desk with a blank
sketchbook (空白的素描簿) in front of me, telling myself I would start designing in a few minutes. Those minutes
slipped (溜) away as I cleaned my pencils, adjusted my table light, or stared at other students’ impressive designs
online. I kept on putting it off, not because I lacked ideas, but because I was afraid. I worried that my design
wouldn’t be original enough or that others would do better. The closer the deadline came, the heavier that fear
became. Instead of drawing, I avoided the sketchbook altogether.
My friend Alex noticed my struggle one day after school. He saw my untouched sketchbook and asked why I
hadn’t started yet. At first, I made excuses, saying I was waiting for inspiration. But Alex didn’t push. He simply
sat beside me and said he used to feel the same pressure when preparing for competitions. His honesty made me
feel less alone, and I finally admitted that I was scared of failing. A few days later, Alex shared something he had
learned from an online course. He explained that procrastination wasn’t laziness but a natural response of the brain
when facing discomfort. According to him, my brain was avoiding the fear of imperfection. Understanding this
helped me see my problem more clearly and stop blaming (责备) myself.
With Alex’s help, I began preparing for the competition step by step. He suggested the two-minute rule:
Instead of finishing the whole design, I should just draw for two minutes. That small action felt safe. Once I started,
those two minutes often turned into ten. Soon, my blank pages were slowly filled with rough ideas and shapes.
注意：
（1）续写词数应为 150个左右；
（2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
But when I felt too confused to keep going, I turned to Alex once again.
As the competition day approached, I felt proud of my progress.

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