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英语试题答案详解
第一部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分 50分）
第一节（共 15小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 37.5分）
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. C
12. D 13. A 14. D 15. C
第二节（共 5小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 12.5分）
16. E 17. F 18. G 19. A 20. D
第二部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 30分）
第一节 完形填空（共 15小题；每小题 1分，满分 15分）
21. C 22. B 23. A 24. B 25. C 26. B
27. D 28. A 29. C 30. B 31. D 32. A
33. D 34. A 35. C
第二节 语法填空（共 10小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 15分）
36. consists 37. which 38. and 39. length 40. has become
41. if 42. to make 43. a 44. knowing 45. for
第三部分 写作（共三节，满分 50分）
第一节 单词拼写（共 10小题，满分 10分）
46. relief 47. satisfaction 48. various / varied 49. represented 50. guaranteed / ensured
51. equipment 52. assume 53. featured 54. reflected 55. enable
第二节 完成句子（每空 1分，满分 15分）
56. broke 57. away 58. from 59. which 60. Moved
61. by 62. seeing 63. get 64. through 65. in
66. spite 67. of 68. falls 69. on 70. lasting
第三节 应用文（满分 25分）
Music Beautifies Our Life
Music is an essential part of our life. It has the power to touch our souls and uplift our spirits. As a student, I
firmly believe that music beautifies our life in countless ways.
Firstly, music has the ability to create a sense of harmony within us, especially when we are heavily burdened
with our study. Besides, music provides a form of escape from the stresses and challenges of everyday life.
In conclusion, music is a powerful tool that beautifies our life by inspiring emotions and providing a source of
comfort and relaxation.广州市南武中学 2025-2026学年第二学期高一综合测试（一）
英语试题
（考试时间：120分钟 满分 130分）
注意事项：
1．答题前填写好自己的姓名、班级、考号等信息
2．请将答案正确填写在答题卡上
第一部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分 50分）
第一节（共 15小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C和 D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题纸上将该
项涂黑。
A
Talylyn Driver Experiences are EXCLUSIVE — the whole trip is yours!
You blow the whistle, release the brakes and open the regulator, a hiss of steam and the train starts to move —
the start of the journey and the start of an experience of a lifetime.
Driver Experience: 600
Driver Experience Overview:
The small size of our narrow gauge locos (火车头) means that only one visitor can be on the loco at a time, so
our Driver Experience trains really are EXCLUSIVE — the whole trip is yours, only carrying your guests.
During the breaks it will be possible to discuss the history of the line, its operation and is continued
development — the questions are yours to ask.
Driver Experience Booking Information:
The cost of up to 3 guests accompanying the driver travelling on the train is included in the package. Any
further guests (up to a maximum of 15) may enjoy the trip at a price of 10 each.
As the railway is operated by volunteers, please give us at least 4 weeks’ notice of your preferred date to
ensure that we have a volunteer crew available for the event.
Other Requirements:
A simple Medical Questionnaire will need to be satisfactorily completed. Good eyesight (with glasses if
required) and hearing are obviously important, as is the ability to climb into and out of the cab. We regret that these
Experiences are not suitable for disabled persons.
If you are interested and would like further information, please click here to contact us or
emailde@talyllyn.co.uk.
1. What feature is included in Talyllyn Driver Experience
A. Tailored activities for disabled visitors.
B. Lectures on the development of the line.
C. A range of train sizes for participants.
D. A hands-on train driving opportunity.
2. What is the minimum cost for 18 guests and a driver to enjoy a Driver Experience trip
A. 600. B. 710. C. 750. D. 780.
3. Which is a requirement for those going for the Experience
A. Volunteering to drive. B. Making a reservation beforehand.
C. Taking a physical check. D. Learning the history of the train line.
B
Lila Marquez gently places a tiny wild goose with an injured wing into a soft cotton box. “Take it easy, little
Dewdrop,” she whispers, adjusting the warm lamp above the box. For the past eight years, the retired biology
teacher’s balcony in Buenos Aires has been a safe haven for injured or abandoned wild geese. With her careful care,
more than 200 geese have regained strength and returned to the nearby wetlands.
Lila’s journey with wild geese began in 2015, two years after her husband passed away: She felt lost and
lonely until one rainy afternoon. when she found a weak gosling trembling under a tree — its wing broken by a
stray cat. “I couldn’t leave it there,” Lila recalls. She named the gosling Dewdrop and spent weeks nursing it back
to health: feeding it nutrient-rich goose feed, cleaning its wound daily, and teaching it to swim in a small basin. As
Dewdrop grew stronger, Lila found joy she hadn’t felt in years. “That little goose gave me a reason to get up every
morning,” she says.
Soon, neighbors and passersby started bringing her injured wild geese — some with broken legs, others
weakened by pollution or hunger. Lila dug into her old biology textbooks and searched online for goose care tips. A
local vet even offered free advice to help her improve her nursing skills. Last year, a student posted a video of Lila
feeding the geese on Instagram, and it quickly went viral with over 800,000 views. People from nearby areas began
donating goose feed and medical supplies.
Yet the wild geese still face great plight in the city. The wetlands they depend on are shrinking due to urban
construction; stray animals and water pollution pose constant risks. But Lila never loses hope. She has started a
small community group to plant native water plants and advocate for wetland protection. “Caring for these geese
isn’t just about saving them,” she says. “It’s about reminding people that we share this city with all living things.”
Every time a healed goose flies off to the wetlands, Lila stands on her balcony, watching proudly. For her,
these geese are more than just rescued creatures — they are symbols of comfort, hope, and the power of small acts
of kindness.
4. What can we learn about Dewdrop from the text
A. It stayed with Lila for eight years. B. It was the reason Lila retired from teaching.
C. It helped Lila get out of loneliness. D. It became famous on social media for its story.
5. What does the underlined word “plight” in Paragraph 4 probably mean
A. Difficulty. B. Noise. C. Competition. D. Change.
6. Which words best describe Lila according to the text
A. Kind-hearted and determined. B. Humorous and creative
C. Brave and ambitious. D. Honest and outgoing.
7. What is the best title for the text
A. Lila and Wild Geese: Protection and Research
B. Lila and Wild Geese: Rescue and Comfort
C. Lila and Wild Geese: Friendship and Adventure
D. Lila and Wild Geese: Survival and Success
C
As we age, changes often occur in our sense of smell and brainpower. But new research shows a simple way
that possibly strengthens brainpower as we get older — by getting scent (香味) through the air at night.
In a recent study, researchers at the UCI Center for the Neurobiology of Learning and Memory had adults
aged 60-85 use a special machine next to their bed every night. This machine gently spread nice smells into the air.
Each night, one of seven different pleasant smells was given off during the first two hours of sleep. The scents
included various joyful options like rose, lemon and orange. Subjects in the study got a different smell every night,
enjoying a fresh new scent before bed.
The results were truly striking. Older adults exposed (暴露) to the nightly scents showed a 226 percent greater
improvement on a word memory test compared to control subjects. Brain imaging also showed improved
conditions in the memory-related brain pathway that typically weakens with age. Unlike signals from your eyes,
ears and other senses, information from your nose travels directly to areas related to memory and emotion. This
allows smell to activate (激活) memories and connections in ways sight and sound can’t.
According to Michael Leon, “The reality is that over the age of 60, the smell sense and brainpower start to
drop sharply.” This encouraging research suggests regular smell exposure at night could provide a simple way to
keep that drop at bay.
Unlike unrealistic brain games or scent programs, this approach effectively builds a bridge between smell and
memory through easy nightly exposure during sleep. Instead of demanding hard brain exercises, it offers regular
effortless sensory support to improve memory. Most importantly, you receive these brain benefits without doing
anything but falling asleep with pleasant scents.
8. What did the subjects do in the study
A. They were connected to a scent machine.
B. They recognized different smells before sleep.
C. They were nightly exposed to a scent during sleep.
D. They trapped pleasant smells from flowers and fruits.
9. Why are other senses mentioned in paragraph 3
A. To compare how different senses work. B. To stress smell is directly related to memory.
C. To explain how sensory signals are processed. D. To suggest sight and sound are not important.
10. What does the underlined part in paragraph 4 mean
A. Forget about the drop. B. Stop or slow down the drop.
C. Figure out why the drop happens. D. Accept the drop as a natural stage.
11. What is the main advantage of the research-confirmed method
A. It has clear steps to follow. B. It helps maintain mental health.
C. It is simple and convenient to use. D. It is effective in improving sleep quality.
D
People often grumble that plastics are too durable. Water bottles, shopping bags, and other trash litter the
planet because plastics are everywhere and don’t break down easily. But some plastic materials change over time.
They crack and melt into sludge, all of which creates huge headaches for institutions, such as museums, trying to
preserve culturally important objects.
Until recently, museums only have to worry about traditional materials. “We know how to approach the
restoration of paintings, books, and materials like wood, metals, and glass,” says Anna Laganà, a research specialist
at the Getty Conservation Institute. “But for plastics, our knowledge is still limited.” Tonkin, now a doctoral
researcher in fashion conservation at Nottingham Trent University, agrees. “We’re now trying to figure out how to
conserve plastics,” she says.
Nearly every museum in the world has plastic items, and even well-cared-for objects can fall apart alarmingly
quickly. Museums are doing everything they can to save culturally important items from similar fates. But
preservation of plastics will likely get harder. Old objects continue to decline. Worse, biodegradable plastics,
designed to fall apart easily, are increasingly common.
We now live in an age of plastic, and what we decide to collect today, and what we decide to preserve, will
have a strong impact on how we’ll be seen in the future. Future archaeologists looking at what’s left from the 21st
century will probably find lots of poisonous waste, along with plenty of plastic trash. But if museum preservation
efforts succeed, maybe those scholars will also see that plastic items today can be culturally meaningful — and
even cherished.
12. What are two totally different features of plastics mentioned in Paragraph 1
A. Popular but rarely recycled. B. Harmless to nature but harmful to humans.
C. Easy to make but hard to clean. D. Some long-lasting but others easy-to-degrade.
13. What can we infer from Anna Laganà and Tonkin’s words
A. Museums lack expertise in plastic preservation.
B. Traditional restoration makes plastic conservation needless.
C. Plastic conservation in fashion is completely solved.
D. The Getty Institute leads plastic preservation research.
14. What is the main role of Paragraph 3
A. Explain why plastic preservation is harder than traditional ones.
B. List ways museums protect plastic cultural objects.
C. Show plastic items are common in global museums.
D. Stress the growing challenges of plastic preservation.
15. Where can this passage be found
A. In a travel brochure. B. In a fashion magazine.
C. In a science report. D. In a science fiction book.
第二节（共 5小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
As December starts, so does party season. Whether it’s the office Christmas party or New Year’s Eve,
socializing fills many people with fear. If all the parties over the festive period stressed you out, the first thing to
say is you’re not alone. 16
The reason for this is the way we evolved. 17 That’s why we have developed instincts (本能) to care
a lot about social stuff, are so concerned about things like reputation and status, and are afraid of making a fool of
ourselves or being left out.
But don’t forget, social occasions are an opportunity, not just a threat. 18 So as an initial step towards
reducing your anxiety, try boosting your hopefulness about these events. For example, remind yourself of occasions
— however rare they might be — when things went well and you had a fun time or you made new friends.
19 Rather than waiting for the obligations (义务) to roll in and hang over you like a dark cloud, be
clear about which ones you really want. If there are friends you’d love to go with, don’t wait for them to ask you
— reach out and make it happen.
Indeed, excessive self-focus is one of the main drivers of social anxiety. Constantly monitoring your own
behaviour and words will fuel your nerves and lead you to act more awkwardly. 20 You can even give
yourself another if-then plan to help with it: if I find myself being self-focused, then I’ll make a conscious effort to
focus on what someone is saying or wearing. Like all challenges in life we find difficult, socializing gets easier
with practice.
A. Next, be a little strategic and active.
B. Don’t overestimate how people judge you.
C. Your friends probably like you more than you realize.
D. You can focus your attention outwards to reduce anxiety.
E. Actually, feeling nervous about socializing is incredibly common.
F. Throughout history, humans needed to work in groups to stay alive.
G. They’re a chance to create shared memories, bond and have fun together.
第二部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 30分）
第一节 完形填空（共 15小题；每小题 1分，满分 15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Like most teenagers growing up in the digital age, I relied on my phone for photos — quick snaps (快照) that
were 21 but rarely revisited. My profile on Instagram was a polished collection of such photos intended to
22 my peers.
The transition from sharing images to 23 memories for myself wasn’t immediate. It began with a
simple 24 flipping (翻 ) through family photo albums. I was attracted by the images from my family’s
25 . They weren’t polished, but they held stories that words often couldn’t 26 — of birthdays,
ceremonies and family portraits. In those photographs, I saw 27 . I realized that every image was a piece of
something 28 : a history that had been passed down.
It was this 29 that led me to pick up my film camera. With just 36 exposures per roll, each photo
required 30 , a slowing down to see the world around me. I now take photos of the things that matter most:
friends’ weddings, holidays and small moments of joy. If a picture didn’t turn out as I had hoped, it didn’t matter.
The 31 became part of the story. They weren’t meant for 32 or comments — they were meant for
me, for family and friends.
There’s a sense of 33 when I finally open an envelope of developed prints. I’m 34 back to
those moments. And in that sense, my 35 to film photography feels like a desire to regain the permanence
and closeness that comes with holding a memory in your hands.
21. A. copied B. printed C. shared D. downloaded
22. A. change B. impress C. support D. instruct
23. A. capturing B. recalling C. organizing D. sharpening
24. A. fact B. act C. task D. rule
25. A. duty B. business C. past D. goal
26. A. prove B. convey C. mask D. continue
27. A. hope B. trust C. ambition D. connection
28. A. larger B. stranger C. simpler D. fresher
29. A. appreciation B. observation C. realization D. prediction
30. A. improvement B. intention C. background D. teamwork
31. A. colors B. inconveniences C. patterns D. imperfections
32. A. likes B. jokes C. deals D. games
33. A. safety B. emptiness C. relief D. rediscovery
34. A. transported B. forced C. withdrawn D. kicked
35. A. claim B. response C. shift D. shortcut
第二节 语法填空（共 10小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Rickshaw (人力车) Run is one of the world’s most unusual races. It lasts for two weeks and takes place in
India. Each team 36 (consist) of one rickshaw and one to four drivers. The Rickshaw is designed to
transport light loads in short distances, 37 makes the event such a challenge.
The race takes place twice a year: once in the summer 38 once in the winter. The route is different,
but the 39 (long) is always about 2,500 km long. The race is a lot of fun, but it also has a serious side for
all participants. They should raise at least one thousand pounds for charity.
The first race took place in 2006 with 34 teams. Since then, the Rickshaw Run 40 (become) famous
around the world. A few days before the race, 41 participants don’t know how to drive a rickshaw, they
will receive a crash course 42 (make) sure they can control it during the race. They can also use the
pre-race time to decorate their rickshaws and ask any last-minute questions.
“The adventure really starts when things go wrong,” said one participant. “We blew 43 hole in our
rickshaw, but I saw the most beautiful town in India!” said another. And as the organizers say on their website,
“There’s no set route, no back-up, no way of 44 (know) if you’re going to make it. The only certainty is
that you will get lost, you will get stuck and you will break down.”
Are you ready 45 some real adventure
第三部分 写作（共三节，满分 50分）
第一节 单词拼写（共 10小题，满分 10分）
根据汉语意思填写单词，每空只填一个单词。【用 Unit4（必修 2）~Unit1（必修 3）单词】
46. It was a great ________ (宽慰) to him when she returned safely.
47. She didn’t want to give him the ________ (满足) of seeing her cry.
48. One had better see life in its ________ (各种各样的) aspects when young.
49. To the Egyptians, green was a color that ________________ (代表) the hope and joy of spring.
50. With food and accommodations ________ (保证), his cousin signed up for the program without hesitation.
51. The money will be spent on new ________ (装备).
52. We must ________ (认为) him to be innocent until he is proved guilty.
53. In ancient Egypt, the harvest festival ________ (以……为特色) a great feast.
54. A person’s personality can be ________ (反映) in many aspects.
55. The new chairs will ________ (使能够) the audience to sit in comfort while watching the shows.
第二节 完成句子（每空 1分，满分 15分）
1. Finally, in the 20th century, the southern part of Ireland 56 57 58 the UK, 59
resulted in the full name we have today: the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.
最后，在二十世纪时，爱尔兰南部脱离了联合王国，形成了今天的英国全称：大不列颠及北爱尔兰联合王
国。
2. 60 61 this music, he said, “It was like 62 color for the first time.”
他被这段音乐打动了，他说：“那种（兴奋）的感觉就如同第一次看见色彩一样。”
3. It was the rock I leaned on to become strong and to 63 64 those hard times.
音乐是岩石，让我倚靠，变得坚强，度过那些艰难的日子。
4. Another example is Halloween, which slowly became an exciting festival for children, 65 66
67 its religious origins.
另一个例子是万圣节，虽然起源于宗教，万圣节渐渐成了孩子们纵情玩乐的一个节日。
5. The festival 68 69 the fourth day of the sixth month of the lunar calendar, usually 70
for three days.
该节日于每年农历六月初四开始的，通常为期 3天。
第三节 应用文（满分 25分）
你校英文报社正在以_________Beautifies Our Life为题征稿，请你写一篇短文，内容包括：
1．简单介绍；
2．说明理由。
注意：
1．将标题补充完整，写作词数应为 80左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
______ Beautifies Our Life
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________

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