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2025-2026学年第二学期3月份质量检测
九年级英语试题
（考试时间：120分钟 满分：120分）
注意事项：
1．本试题分第I卷和第II卷两部分。第I卷为选择题，65分；第II卷为非选择题，55分；共120分。
2．答题前请务必将姓名、准考证号和座号填写在试卷和答题卡相应位置，考试结束后，答题卡收回。
3．答题前请务必认真阅读答题卡上的注意事项，试题答案必须项填涂或填写在答题卡上相应位置。
第I卷 选择题（共65分）
一、听力选择（共15小题，计15分；每小题约有8秒钟的答题时间）
（一）录音中有五个句子，每个句子听两遍，然后从每小题A、B、C中选出能对每个句子做出适当反应的答语。
1. A. Thank you. B. The same to you. C. I’m happy, too.
2. A. Hurry up. B. Don’t worry. C. Of course.
3. A. Good luck. B. Good idea. C. Never mind.
4. A. Yes, please. B. Not at all. C. Good idea.
5. A. Sorry about it. B. You’d better not. C. It’s nothing.
（二）录音中有五组对话，听对话两遍后，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。
6. What did the man choose to be
A. A doctor. B. A policeman. C. An engineer.
7. Who will the woman spend the Mid-Autumn Day with
A. Her family. B. Her friends. C. Her teachers.
8. How will the man help the woman
A. By carrying the bag. B. By looking for the key. C. By opening the door.
9. How did the woman tell Jim about the travel plan
A. By making a phone call. B. By sending an email. C. By texting a message.
10. What’s the probable relationship between the two speakers
A. Waitress and customer. B. Teacher and student. C. Doctor and patient.
（三）录音中有一段长对话，听对话两遍后，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。（录音播放前你有30秒钟的读题时间）
11. How was Bob’s trip
A. Terrible. B. Exciting. C. Busy.
12. Who did Jenny cheer up in the hospital
A. Her sister. B. The old patients. C. The sick kids.
13. What did Jenny want to be before
A. A doctor. B. A volunteer. C. A dancer.
14. Why did Jenny change her dream
A. To live a good life. B. To thank the doctors. C. To help others like doctors.
15. Where is Jenny going to study medicine
A. In the hospital. B. At a university. C. In Chengdu.
（注意：请同学们翻到第Ⅱ卷第四大题，继续做听力填表题。）
二、单项选择（共10小题，计10分）
从每小题A、B、C、D中选出一个能填入句中空白处的最佳答案。
16. — Have you ever seen __________ film Ne Zha
— Yes, I have. It tells us ________ different story of Ne Zha.
A. a; an B. an; the C. a; the D. the; a
17. — It’s very important for us to keep ______.
— You are right. We should learn how to protect ourselves when we’re in trouble.
A. rapid B. safe C. lucky D. social
18. — Tom, it smells so terrible here.
— Sorry, Mum. I will ___________ my socks and wash them right away.
A. put off B. take off C. turn off D. cut off
19. — On my way to the bookstore, I saw Mary hanging out with her friends.
— It __________ be her. She has gone to Beijing.
A. can’t B. mustn’t C. might D. could
20. — Mum, must I be a teacher like you when I grow up
— No, you needn’t. You can make your own ___________.
A. difference B. discussion C. discovery D. decision
21. When Anna opened her wallet, she was surprised to find ______. It was empty.
A. nothing B. anything C. something D. everything
22. Lily looks down these days. She has lost a watch which is ________ for her.
A. enjoyable B valuable C. available D. comfortable.
23. — What happened to you
— I was waiting for the bus when it began to rain ______.
A. mostly B. widely C. cheaply D. heavily
24. — Mr. Wang, can I go to play football with my classmates as soon as school is over
— __________ We have to prepare for the coming Art Festival together.
A. Why not B. I hope so. C. I’m afraid not. D. Of course.
25. — What will you remember most after leaving junior high school
— I will always remember ___________.
A. how my friends and teachers used to help me
B. when did my friends and teachers arrive
C. where could my friends and teachers meet
D. what did the teachers say to me
三、阅读理解（共20小题，计40分）
阅读下列短文，从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能回答所提问题的最佳答案。
A
Abu Dhabi, the capital of the United Arab Emirates (UAE), wowed the world with a stunning New Year’s Eve celebration featuring record-breaking fireworks and drone (无人机) shows.
Abu Dhabi had an exciting New Year’s Eve celebration. The city held a big fireworks show at the Sheikh Zayed Festival, which was so amazing that it set new world records!
The fireworks lasted 50 minutes and were full of bright colors and fun designs. People couldn’t stop watching! One special part of the show was a light display with 6,000 drones. For 20 minutes, the drones made cool shapes and pictures in the sky. Everyone loved the “Happy New Year” message created by 3,000 drones.
The festival made six Guinness World Records! Some of the records were: the biggest drone display ever, with 6,000 drones flying together; a “Happy New Year” sign made with 3,000 drones; the largest fan-shaped firework in the sky. The fireworks also set records for having the most fireworks in one minute and the most in 24 hours. Small shows started every hour before the big finale (终场) at midnight.
Videos of the event showed the beautiful scenes as fireworks exploded all night. This celebration showed how much Abu Dhabi wanted to show its past successes again. In 2023, the Sheikh Zayed Festival had a 40-minute fireworks display that gained international praise and set three Guinness World Records for time, formation, and number of fireworks.
Many people enjoyed the show, but some had concerns (担心). They said the fireworks were loud and might scare animals. Others worried about air pollution and how it could hurt people’s health.
26. The fireworks show in Abu Dhabi ______.
A. was not well-organized B. broke several world records
C. was watched by a few people D. lasted for only 20 minutes
27. What is the main idea of Paragraph 4
A. The world records set by the festival.
B. The process of the Sheikh Zayed Festival.
C. The preparation for the fireworks show.
D. The number of drones used at the festival.
28. Why did Abu Dhabi hold such a great fireworks show
A. To celebrate the end of a war.
B. To attract tourists to the city.
C. To repeat its past successes.
D. To set the world records for fun.
29. How is the passage mainly developed
A. By comparing and contrasting different events.
B. By giving examples of the fireworks and drone shows.
C. By following a time order of the events.
D. By describing the event and then discussing people’s reactions (反应).
30. What is the passage mainly about
A. The history of the big fireworks shows in Abu Dhabi.
B. Abu Dhabi’s efforts to amaze the world on New Year’s Eve.
C. Abu Dhabi’s New Year’s Eve celebration with fireworks and drone shows.
D. Public concerns about the environmental problems of fireworks.
B
Is there a Pastry (甜点) World Cup Yes, there is! The Pastry World Cup is a fun competition where the best pastry chefs (厨师) show their amazing pastry skills. The competition takes place every two years. Teams from all over the world join. The pastry chefs make special desserts like frozen treats, fancy dishes, and chocolate sculptures (雕塑).
This year, the Pastry World Cup was in Lyon, France. However, France was beaten to the crown of the 2025 Pastry World Cup by Japan! It defended (捍卫) its title at the competition over the weekend, despite the French home crowd.
Japan won first place! Their desserts were inspired by Japanese traditions. They used special ingredients (原料) like Kiyomi orange and rice wafers (薄饼). One dessert looked like a spinning (旋转的) top toy, and another looked like a pretty leaf! The second-place team was France, and Malaysia came third.
As you can imagine, making so much food is not a piece of cake — it’s a very difficult and tiring competition. And it took place on the sidelines of the SIRHA Food Exhibition. The stands were full of fans who were waving flags and shouting their teams’ names.
Each team which included a chocolatier, a sugar expert and an ice master was challenged with making a frozen dessert, a restaurant dessert, an ice sculpture and a beautiful display of sugar and chocolate centerpieces (中心装饰品). They show great respect to their home country in their desserts’ taste and appearance. ______ These teams also wore clothes from their countries. They also served small finger foods from a food truck for one challenge.
The Pastry World Cup is not just a contest. It’s a big celebration of food, art, and culture. Everyone had a great time watching and tasting the amazing desserts!
31. What can we infer about the Pastry World Cup from the first paragraph
A. It only takes place in Lyon, France.
B. France has never won the competition.
C. The winning team will get a lot of money.
D. It is a competition full of challenges and creativity.
32. Why did Japan win the 2025 Pastry World Cup
A. Because they had more fans than France.
B. Because Japanese traditions provided inspiration for the team.
C. Because they used the most expensive ingredients.
D. Because they had the best chocolatiers and sugar experts.
33. How did the fans feel during the competition
A. They were a little bored.
B. They were quiet and respectful.
C. They were excited and supportive.
D. They left early because the food wasn’t good.
34. Which of the following can be put into “______” in Paragraph 5
A. The challenges aimed to test their teamwork.
B. The food truck provided desserts for the teams.
C. The centerpieces were made only of chocolate.
D. All the teams came from different parts of the world.
35. Where might this passage come from
A. A science magazine. B. A food and culture magazine.
C. A sports news website. D. A travel guidebook.
C
Police doubted someone was stealing shoes from a children’s school in southwestern Japan. But a security camera caught the thief in action. Is it a naughty child, the school bus driver or an adult
After the children’s shoes began disappearing, police put in place three security cameras in the school in Fukuoka in southwestern Japan. Soon after, the recorded video showed a weasel (黄鼠狼) with a small shoe in its mouth. The small animal with a long body and short legs usually hunts for rats and rabbits. But this one was hunting for children’s shoes.
“It’s great it turned out not to be a human being,” the police told a reporter recently.
Teachers and parents had thought the thief could be a person with mental health problems, which made them uneasy.
Japanese often take their shoes off before entering homes. The shoes that disappeared were all slip-ons the children wore indoors, stored in special spaces near the door. Weasels are known to hide things. People who keep weasels as pets give them toys so they can hide them. The weasel moved shoes around and took 15 of them before police were called. Six more were taken the following day.
The weasel returned to steal one more shoe. The video of that theft was seen the next day. The shoe-loving weasel only took the white indoor shoes made of canvas (帆布), likely because they are light to carry.
“We were so relieved (放心的),” the school’s kindergarten director Yoshihide Saito said.
The children got a good laugh when they saw the weasel in the video. Although the stolen shoes were never found, the remaining shoes are now safely behind the netting that covers the storage spaces. The weasel, which is believed to be wild, is still on the loose, getting away from the cage.
36. The children’s shoes were stolen by ______
A. a naughty child B. a weasel with short legs
C. the school bus driver D. an adult with mental health problems
37. How might teachers feel about the missing of the shoes
A. They didn’t care about it. B. They felt a little angry.
C. They were worried about it. D. They were surprised at it.
38. To keep children’s shoes safe, the school ______.
A. only had a good laugh B. put many cameras near the door
C. covered the shoes with a net D. asked children not to wear white shoes
39. If a person is “on the loose”, he or she ______.
A. is sleeping in the bed B. hasn’t been caught
C. is well-known by us D. has been put in prison
40. What does the passage mainly talk about
A. A mystery. B. An accident. C. A school report. D. A celebration.
D
Chinese shooter Huang Yuting has made history recently. She became the number one in the women’s 10-meter air rifle (10米气步枪) world rankings with 6,136 points, according to the latest update from the International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF).
Huang Yuting was born in 2006 in Huangyan District, Taizhou City, Zhejiang Province. Huang’s parents are both ordinary workers. Her father works at a local factory, and her mother works at a kindergarten. They played an important role in her success.
Huang started training in shooting when she was just 10 years old, and she worked very hard with great discipline (自律). Every day after school, she went to the sports school to train for nearly an hour, and then returned home to complete her homework. On weekends, she spent more time on intense training.
Her first coach, Lin Kehan, began working with her in 2017 and described Huang as a quiet and hard-working student. “She was always serious and dedicated, never missing a training class,” he said. Huang also showed great independence. Her father said, “She organizes her activities and studies carefully, needing very little help from us.”
Her hard work quickly paid off. Over the years, she achieved impressive results in many competitions:
·In 2019, she won gold medals in the individual, team, and mixed team events at the National U18Shooting Championships in Nanjing.
·In 2020, she joined the Zhejiang Provincial Shooting Team. During the Paris Olympic cycle, she quickly became a top shooter in the women’s 10 m air rifle event.
·At the 2022 Shooting World Championships, at only 16 years old, Huang won two gold medals and one silver medal.
·On July 27, 2024, she won the gold medal in the mixed team 10 m air rifle event at the Paris Olympic Games, which was the first gold medal for the Chinese delegation at the Olympic Games. Two days later, on July 29, she won second place in the women’s 10 m air rifle event.
·On October 15, 2024, Huang won the gold medal in the women’s 10m air rifle event at the International Shooting World Cup Finals. She also broke the world record, making her one of the best shooters in the world.
41. What can we know about Huang’s parents according to the passage
A. They are both factory workers in Huangyan District.
B. They supported her very much in becoming a shooter.
C. They stopped her from training because of their busy work.
D. They were born in Taizhou City, Zhejiang Province.
42. From the passage, we can infer that Huang Yuting ______.
A. was not serious about training when she was young
B. gave up her studies to focus on practicing shooting
C. didn’t achieve any results in competitions until 2025
D. worked hard to balance schoolwork and shooting practice
43. What does the underlined word “dedicated” mean in Paragraph 4
A. 骄傲的 B. 懒惰的 C. 专注的 D. 粗心的
44. How does the writer support the idea that Huang Yuting is a successful shooter
A. By focusing on her personal life.
B. By comparing her with other shooters.
C. By describing her coach’s training methods.
D. By listing her achievements in different competitions.
45. What’s the passage mainly about
A. The journey of a world-class shooter.
B. The way to become a famous shooter.
C. The history of shooting sports in China.
D. The importance of hard work in shooting.
四、听力填表（共5小题，计5分）
录音中有一篇短文，听录音两遍后，根据所听到的内容完成下面的表格（每空不多于三个词）。（录音播放前你有30秒钟的读题时间）
The art of what you say
Dos Don’ts
Take time to think before you (46) _________. Don’t just say it right away.
Make sure your words are (47) _________. Don’t share wrong information.
Try your best to be kind. Don’t (48) ___________ others.
Say what is necessary. Don’t make problems for (49) _________.
Think about other people’s feelings. Don’t use (50) ___________.
五、动词填空（共10空，计10分）
阅读下面短文，用括号内所给动词的适当形式填空（必要时可加情态动词或助动词）。
A Warm Experience in Our Community
I often 51. ________ (believe) that kindness is like sunshine. It can light up the heart of anyone who feels lonely, and it makes our world warmer and more beautiful. As a middle school student, I always want to do something helpful for the people around me. Last Sunday, I 52. ________ (join) a special volunteer program to care for the elderly in our community, and it became one of the most meaningful experiences in my life.
Early in the morning, the weather was clear and mild. When I arrived at the community center, some other volunteers 53. ________ (prepare) small gifts, fresh fruits and handwritten cards for the elderly quietly. They were making everything perfect to give the old people a big surprise. “We should let them feel that they are not alone,” one volunteer whispered to me. Right now, more and more young people 54. ________ (show) great interest in such volunteer work because they gradually realize that respecting and caring for the elderly is a traditional virtue.
We walked into the elderly apartments one by one. An old grandma named Mrs. Zhang held my hand gently and said happily, “Kids like you always bring me so much joy. I used to feel bored every day, but now I look forward to your visits!” I sat beside her, read the latest newspaper for her and helped her clean the windows. Another grandpa told us stories about his youth, and we all listened carefully with smiles. We 55. ________ (visit) more than 30 elderly families since this volunteer program started. Every time we come, we chat with them, wash their clothes, tidy up their rooms and listen to their wishes patiently.
Next month, we 56. ________ (organize) a special spring party for the elderly in the community hall. We are going to sing songs, perform short plays and share delicious snacks with them. All the activities 57. ________ (plan) carefully by our volunteer team every time. We 58. ________ (try) our best to make every old person feel loved, warm and respected.
59. ________ (bring) happiness and warmth to the elderly has become the biggest hope of our volunteer team. We also decide 60. ________ (keep) doing this kind of volunteer work in the future, and we hope to influence more people around us to join in.
This experience teaches me a lot. Helping others is not only a kind action but also a way to grow up. Even the smallest act of kindness can make a big difference. I will keep this warm memory in my heart forever and continue to pass kindness around.
六、综合填空（共10空，计10分）
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容及首字母提示，在空白处填入一个适当的单词。
Last Friday, I had an unforgettable experience on my 61.w______ home after school. The sky suddenly turned dark and it began to 62.r______ heavily. I had to take out my umbrella and walk quickly. However, I saw an old woman standing at the street corner without any rain gear. She looked worried and tried to cover her head with a thin bag.
I thought for a moment and then walked 63.t______ her. She was old and her legs looked weak. I asked her if she needed any 64.h______. She nodded and told me that she wanted to cross the street to buy some medicine for her sick husband, but the heavy rain made it 65.d______ for her to walk safely.
I decided to help her. I held my umbrella over her head and helped her 66.c______ the street carefully. We walked 67.s______ step by step. On the way, she thanked me again and again and said I was a 68.k______ boy. I felt a little shy but really happy.
After we got to the medicine shop, I said goodbye to her. She smiled at me and her warm smile made my heart full of sunshine. Although I got wet a little, I never felt so glad. This small thing taught me a valuable 69.l______ in my life. We should always be ready to help people in need. Kindness is the most beautiful sunshine in the world, and it will stay in our 70.h______ forever.
From that day on, I try my best to help others whenever I can. Helping others is not only good for them but also brings us joy and warmth. It makes the world a better and warmer place to live in. Even small acts of kindness can make a big difference to someone’s life.
七、阅读表达（共5小题，计10分）
阅读短文，根据要求完成下面各小题。
There is a Chinese saying: Time and tidy wait for no man. Have too many things to do in too little time Well, (73) if you make a good plan, everything will be in order. The following will certainly help. If you can do all this, every your single day will be productive (高效率的).
·Make a list
It all begins with listing. If you don’t have a list, create one.
·Worst first
We often have one thing on the list, which is hanging over our heads and makes us worried. Work on it first and make the rest of your day easier.
·Just do it
Those small things are easier to deal plete them and cross them off the list.
·Make things enjoyable
Have small breaks, enjoy music, or even a snack when you are tired. Life is short. Enjoy your work.
·Pack times
Which part of your time is most productive When this time comes around, close your door so that it is just you and your work.
·Re-list
a. Sometimes you will not complete everything on your list. This is okay. Add them to tomorrow’s list with a star so that you will know they should be done first next day.
b. (74) By the day’s end you will have a rough (粗略的) idea of things you need to do tomorrow. Go ahead and list them. Tomorrow when you start fresh, you will not forget to do them.
（一）根据短文内容简要回答问题。
71. What should you do if you are tired according to the passage
__________________________________________________________________________
72. What should you do if you can not finish today’s work
__________________________________________________________________________
（二）将短文中划线的句子译成汉语。
73. __________________________________________________________________________
74. __________________________________________________________________________
（三）请给短文拟一个适当的题目。
75. __________________________________________________________________________
八、书面表达（共1题，计20分）
76．假定你是李华，你的美国朋友Peter因要参加高中入学考试（SSAT）而感到焦虑，来信向你倾诉。请你根据以下提示用英语写一封邮件，提出建议。
1．考试态度（放松心情、无需焦虑……）；2．功课准备（用心做功课、学习方法恰当……）；
3．减压方式（……）；4．表达祝愿。
要求：1．根据提示内容，不要逐字翻译；2．文中不能出现真实的人名和校名；3．词数100左右。
Dear Peter,
I have learned you are worried about the coming SSAT. ___________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
2025-2026学年第二学期3月质量检测
九年级英语
参考答案及评分说明
第Ⅰ卷 选择题（共65分）
一 ～ 三题答案：
（一）答案：
一、1-5 ACBBA 6-10 ACABA 11-15 BCCCB
二、16-20 DBBAD 21-25 ABDCA
三、26-30 BACDC 31-35 DBCDB 36-40 BCCBA 41-45 BDCDA
（二）评分说明：
1、1-25题，每小题1分;
2、26-45题，每小题2分；
与答案不符, 不得分。
第 II 卷 （非选择题, 共55分）
听力填表
(一) 答案：
46. speak 47. true 48. hurt 49. yourself 50. bad words
（二）评分说明:
1. 本题共 5 分，每小题 1 分；
2. 与所给答案不符，只要语法、意义、拼写（含大小写）正确，符合逻辑及英语表达习惯也可得分；
3. 若每个题有大小写错误都扣0.5分。
五、动词填空
(一) 答案：
51. believe 52. joined 53. were preparing 54. are showing
55. have visited 56. will organize 57.are planned 58.should try
59. Bringing 60. to keep
(二) 评分说明：
1、本题共10分，每空1分;
2、未用所给动词者，不得分；
3、与所给答案不同，只要语法正确，也可得分。
六、综合填空
(一)答案:
61. way 62. rain 63. towards 64. help 65. difficult 66. cross
67. slowly 68. kind 69. lesson 70. heart
(二) 评分说明：
1、本题共10分，每空1分;
2、与所给答案不符，只要语法、意义、拼写正确，符合逻辑及英语表达习惯也可得分。
七、阅读表达
(一) 答案：
71.Have small breaks,enjoy music,or even a snack.
72. Add them to tomorrow's list with a star(so that we will know they should be done first next day).
73.如果你做好计划，那么所有的事情都会井井有条/井然有序。
74.在一天结束的时候你会有一个关于明天需要做的事情的粗略的想法。
75. How to make your work in order/productive
Making a good plan makes your work in order/productive
A good plan makes your work in order/productive
（二）评分说明：
1、本题共10分，每小题2分；
2、第73、74小题，若与答案表达方式不同，但与所给参考答案意思一致，符合汉语表达习惯，也可得分；
3、第75小题，若与答案表达方式不同，但与所给参考答案意思一致，无语言错误，符合英语表达习惯，也可酌情得分。
八、书面表达
One possible version
Dear Peter,
I have learned that you're worried about the coming SSAT. My suggestions are as follows:
First, please keep an optimistic attitude. There is need to worry about it. You see, too much anxiety will have a bad effect on your health. Second, you should also make a proper plan and stick to it. Besides, you should adopt the right way of learning and do your homework carefully. Third, when tired, you can do some sports or listen to music to relax yourself. In a word, work hard, and you'll become confident to pass the exam.
I hope these tips are useful for you and you'll achieve your goal.
Best wishes.
Yours, Li Hua
评分说明：
评分时，要从内容与结构、表达的逻辑性、层次性、连贯性和创造性、语法运用的恰当程度、单词拼写、标点符号的使用等方面综合考虑。本题共20分，分四档评分：
１、短文通顺完整，表达清楚, 语言基本无误，17－20分；
２、短文较通顺完整，表达基本清楚，语言有少量错误，12－16分；
３、能写明基本要点，短文不够通顺完整，语言有较多错误，但尚能达意，6－11分；
４、仅能写明部分要点，短文不完整，语言错误多，影响意思表达，0－5分。
听力材料
一、听力选择
（一）录音中有五个句子，每个句子听两遍，然后从每小题A、B、C中选出能对每个句子做出适当反应的答语。
1. Happy birthday, my dear friend!
2. May I use your dictionary
3. How about seeing a film tonight
4. Would you mind my opening the window
5. Tony, please don’t speak so loudly in the hospital.
（二）录音中有五组对话，听对话两遍后，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。
6. W:Why did you choose to be a doctor,not a policeman or an engineer
M:Well,helping patients makes me feel happy.
7. M:Will you spend the Mid-Autumn Day with your family or friends
W:Neither.It is also Teachers’ Day this year,so I’ll spend it with my teachers.
8. W:I am looking for the key to the door.Could you please carry the bag for me
M:OK.No problem.
9. M:Helen,have you called to tell Jim about our travel plan
W:No,but I sent him an email and have got his text message.He will join us.
10. M:Excuse me.Would you please bring me the soup
W:Usually we serve the main course first,but we’ll bring you the soup first if you like,sir.
（三）录音中有一段对话，听对话两遍后，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。（录音播放前你有30秒钟的读题时间）
W: Hey, Bob. What did you do last summer vacation
M: I went to Chengdu to see the lovely pandas with my friends. Though the weather was terrible,we had an exciting trip. How about you, Jenny
W: I had a busy vacation. I volunteered in a hospital to help the patients with my sister.
M: Wonderful. Did you help the old lonely patients
W: No,we just cheer up the sick kids.
M:Great. And how did you come up with this idea
W: I want to be a doctor when I grow up. Volunteering there can help me learn more about the job.
M: I remember you dreamed to be a dancer before.
W: Yes, but I have changed my dream.
M: Really Why
W: In the past three years,I've seen many doctors save lives without thinking about themselves. And I hope to be like them.
M: It's really nice of you! What will you do for your dream
W: I am going to study medicine at a university in the future.
M: That sounds great. I think you'll be a good doctor!
（注意：请同学们翻到第Ⅱ卷第四大题，继续做听力填表题。）
四、听力填表
录音中有一篇广播稿，听广播两遍后，根据所听到的短文内容完成下面的表格(每空不多于三个词)。（录音播放前你有30秒钟的读题时间）
When you have something to say,you should take time to think before you speak.Don’t just say it right away.You need to make sure your words are true.Never share wrong information.You should also try your best to be kind and not to hurt others.What’s more,say what is necessary and you won’t make problems for yourself. When communicating,think about other people’s feelings.It’s also important not to use bad words,for nobody likes hearing them.If you don’t like your words,then keep quiet! Remember,once you say something,you can’t take it back.

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