资源简介

2025~2026学年佛山市普通高中高三教学质量检测(二)
参考答案与评分标准
第二部分(共20小题，每小题2.5分)
21B 22A 23C 24D 25C 26A 27B 28D 29B 30C
31A 32D 33C 34A 35D 36D 37G 38A 39E 40F
第三部分
第一节：(共15小题，每小题1分)
41B 42A 43C 44D 45B 46A 47C 48C 49A 50C
51D 52A 53B 54D 55D
第二节：(共10小题，每小题1.5分)
56 opportunities 57 to 58 it 59 were limited 60 the
61 to recreate 62 technological 63 which
64 combination65 showing
第四部分
第一节(满分 15 分)
一、参考范文：
Dear Alex,
I hope you are doing well. I am writing to thank you for your mental health lesson last Friday,which was so interesting and meaningful. It helped me understand the importance of taking care of our mental well-being.
It was from your lesson that I learned it is normal to experience pressure in daily life. Thanks to your advice, such as sharing our feelings with friends and developing healthy habits, I now know how to deal with stress. I also enjoyed the relaxed atmosphere during the lesson, in which we felt encouraged and understood.
For future classes like this one, I hope we can have more discussions so that everyone can share their practical ways to manage negative emotions.
Thank you again for the wonderful time! I can't wait for your next class.
Yours,
Li Hua
二、评分原则
本题总分为 15 分，按五个档次进行评分。
2.评分时，应主要从内容组织、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
(1)对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性；
(2)使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性；
(3)上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3. 评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4.评分时还应注意：
(1) 单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(2)书写较差以致影响交际的，将分数降低一个档次。
三、内容要点
1.表达感谢；
2.对心理健康课的评价及你的收获和感想；
3.对未来类似课堂的期望或者建议。
四、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档(13-15 分)：能与明全部要点；语言基本无误；行文连贯，表达清楚；
第四档 (10-12 分)： 能写明全部或绝大部分要点；语言有少量错误；行文不够连贯，表达基本清楚；
第三档(7-9分)：能写明基本要点；语言虽有较多错误，但能基本达意；
第二档(4-6分)：能写出部分要点，语言错误多，影响意思表达；
第一档(1-3分)：只能写出一两个要点；语言错误很多，只有个别句子正确。
第二节(满分 25 分)
一、参考范文
Gathering courage, Mark announced,“I don't want to play basketball anymore.” The smiles on his parents' faces froze instantly.“What do you mean ” his father asked in surprise. Taking a deep breath, Mark explained that his true passion was cheerleading although he was good at basketball. The room fell silent. His parents exchanged confused looks, struggling to understand.Mark felt his heart pounding but continued, saying he had been training for months. Just when the tension seemed unbearable, his mother finally spoke gently,“If this is what you really love, you deserve a chance-and we' ll always stand by you.” His father hesitated, then nodded slowly.
A week later, it was time for the cheerleader audition. Standing on the field, Mark felt a mix of nervousness and excitement. Remembering the countless hours of practice, he pushed aside his doubts and focused on every move. When the music started, he jumped, turned and lifted with confidence. His strength and determination impressed the judges and the crowd. When the results were announced, Mark heard his name among those selected. At that moment, he spotted his parents in the stands, clapping proudly. He realized that by following his heart, he had finally stepped out of his brother's shadow and started his own journey.
二、评分原则
1.本题总分为 25 分，按五个档次进行评分。
2.评分时，应主要从内容、语言表达和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
()续写内容的质量、完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度；1
()所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性；2
(3)上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3. 评分时，应先根据作答的整体情况确定其所属的档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4.评分时还应注意：
(1)词数少于 120的，酌情扣分；
(2)书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分；
(3)单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑，英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
三、各档次的给分范围和要求
档次 描述
第五档 (21-25 分) —创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高； ——使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达流畅，语言错误很少，且完全不影响理解： —自然有效地使用了段落间、语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，前后呼应，意义连贯。
第四档 (16-20 分) —创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高； ——使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达比较流畅，有个别错误，但不影响理解； —比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档 (11——15 分) ——创造了基本合理且完整的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境基本相关： ——使用了比较恰当的词汇，语法结构简单，表达方式不够多样性，有部分语言错误和不恰当之处，个别部分影响理解； ——使用了部分语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档 (6——10 分) ——内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文有一定程度脱节； ——所用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多且比较低级，影响理解； ——未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义欠连贯。
第一档 (1——5 分) —内容和逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节：——所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构单调，错误极多，严重影响理解； —几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
(0 分) ——未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判； ——所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。2025～2026学年佛山市普通高中教学质量检测（二）
高三英语
本试卷共8页，满分120分，考试用时120分钟。
注意事项：
1．答题前，考生务必用黑色钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名和考生号填写在答题卡上，将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。因本次笔试不包含听力测试，选择题从第二部分的“阅读”开始，试题序号从“21”开始。
2．作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Stanford CARE Explorers: AI × Precision Health High School Program
The program is a dynamic two-week in-person summer experience designed for high school students passionate about improving health outcomes in Asian and Asian American communities and beyond. It is open to applicants of all backgrounds.
Session Dates
·Session One: July 15-26
·Session Two: August 6-17
·Application Deadline: May 23
Curriculum
Our lecturers are field-leading experts and researchers in AI, medicine, and precision health who bring a wealth of knowledge and real-world experience to the program. The curriculum includes:
·Critical health topics impacting Asian communities. Previous topics addressed include lung cancer, cardiovascular disease, digestive cancers, and more.
·Using AI to improve understanding of precision health data.
·Basics of statistical data analysis.
·Leadership and teamwork skills. Previous topics addressed include team building activities and group project work.
Application and qualification
To participate in the program, students must:
·Be a rising high school sophomore, junior, or senior.
·Be 14 years old or older.
Fees and Costs
·Application Fee: $49
·Program Fee: $3,200 (Housing and transportation not included)
A limited pool of need-based financial aid is available to help cover the program fee. To be considered, applicants must demonstrate financial need by submitting a brief letter from a high school administrator or community leader. Detailed instructions will be provided on the program application. All applications for financial aid are subject to assessment. Submitting a financial aid request will not impact an applicant’s admission decision.
21. What does the text aim to do
A. To promote teaching. B. To attract participants.
C. To support a proposal. D. To address health issues.
22. Which is one competence the program is designed to develop
A. Collaboration abilities. B. Language fluency.
C. Healthcare management. D. AI programming skills.
23. What can be learned about the program fee
A. It should be paid before applying.
B. It covers accommodation and travel.
C. It can be reduced under certain conditions.
D. It is returnable in case of early withdrawal.
B
In 1975, five-year-old Jeff, in a wheelchair, asked his parents if he could meet Fred Rogers of the Neighborhood rather than going to Disneyland. It was the family’s own version of “Make-A-Wish,” proposed on the eve of Jeff’s major spinal (脊椎的) surgery. Jeff said Mr. Rogers told him that he was special and that he was just fine the way he was, and it gave him confidence and made him feel good.
Jeff’s parents wrote a letter to the television star about the boy’s desire to meet him, and they got a handwritten answer that led to a breakfast meeting at a hotel. Later they continued to correspond; Rogers wrote to say how glad he was that Jeff’s surgery had gone well. Then in 1980, Rogers decided he wanted to have a child in a wheelchair on his show for a theme week on all things mechanical. He remembered Jeff and insisted it had to be Jeff.
On the Neighborhood, Rogers asked Jeff straightforwardly about the mechanics of his wheelchair, and how he wound up in it. Producer Margy Whitmer recalled Jeff’s appearance on the show: “It was one of the most impressive moments... Here’s this child who has multiple disabilities, and Fred said, ‘Talk to me about that wheelchair. Talk to me about what’s wrong with you.’ And this extraordinary kid talked about his medical condition (resulting from spinal tumor) in a matter-of-fact way. Fred presented it to kids watching the show, as ‘this is just the way he is.’”
This was the philosophy of Fred Rogers’s complete acceptance: There was no topic he wouldn’t address on air, no matter how difficult. “We don’t fudge things,” he said once when asked about the sources of the show’s popularity. “People long to be in touch with honesty.”
Jeff and Rogers didn’t meet again until 1999, when Rogers was being honored with a place in the Television Hall of Fame. When Jeff rolled onstage to surprise him, Rogers ran up to the stage and hugged him as if they were the only two people in the auditorium. “On behalf of millions of children and grown-ups,” said Jeff, “It’s you I like.”
There wasn’t a dry eye in the well-dressed house.
24. What inspired Jeff to meet Fred Rogers
A. His eagerness to seek praise. B. His need for Rogers’s advice.
C. His worries about his surgery. D. His fondness for Rogers’s show.
25. What do Rogers’s words to Jeff on the show illustrate
A. His desire to impress the audience.
B. His effort to make people feel special.
C. His openness in discussing children’s disability.
D. His concern about the child’s medical condition.
26. What does the underlined word “fudge” in paragraph 4 mean
A. Avoid. B. Challenge. C. Mess up. D. Comment on.
27. What can be a suitable title for the text
A. An Excellent Neighbor B. The Power of Acceptance
C. The Value of Friendship D. A Special Wheelchair Boy
C
Imagine scrolling (滚屏) through social media late at night and suddenly seeing photos of your friends having fun without you. You may begin to wonder why you were not invited or what you did wrong. Soon, feelings of sadness or disappointment appear. This experience is commonly known as FOMO, or the fear of missing out. It is the anxiety and unease about how others might be having more rewarding experiences than you are.
FOMO can be a passing thought that enters your mind after seeing something you wish you were a part of–a video of a concert, for example, or a picture of a graduation party. Or it can appear as an urge to check your phone for messages and updates. You might sit alone, feeling envious about how much fun others are having as you scroll through your feed, only to later realize how much time has passed you by.
This fear can affect your behavior by creating a cycle of unhealthy habits that worsen your emotional well-being. Maybe you end up agreeing to every invitation that comes your way out of fear that you’ll miss out on some magical moments, thus overcommitting yourself to events and feeling exhausted. If you’re constantly checking your phone, you’ll have a harder time focusing on tasks in front of you and may end up making more mistakes. Also, being glued to your phone late at night can make it harder to fall asleep and harm your physical and mental well-being.
If it feels like FOMO and social media have taken over your life, know that there are ways to regain control. It starts with developing a better understanding of yourself, including your feelings, motives, and values. Then, you can cut down on worry by developing mindfulness, managing anxiety, and limiting your social media usage. Besides, building self-respect and establishing genuine relationships will allow you to better appreciate your own experiences.
While you experience FOMO, the things you’re “missing out on” might be right in front of you. You can pull yourself back to the present moment, appreciate what’s happening in your life, and build a better sense of well-being.
28. Why does the text begin with a situation related to social media
A. To present a typical social activity.
B. To criticize a common online habit.
C. To explain the impact of social media.
D. To introduce a psychological concept.
29. What can be inferred about FOMO according to paragraph 2
A. It lasts only for a short time. B. It shows up in different ways.
C. It decreases work efficiency. D. It weakens one’s ties with friends.
30. Which can be a behavioral impact of FOMO according to the text
A. Calling friends for help late at night.
B. Giving a like to a friend’s social post.
C. Attending all available social activities.
D. Handling multiple tasks at the same time.
31. What does the author think of FOMO
A. Harmful but manageable. B. Common but overlooked.
C. Interrupting but educational. D. Underestimated but avoidable.
D
If time outdoors in nature were a pill you could take, the label would read “take as needed”. A dose (剂量) of nature, whether it’s a short walk or a weeklong camping trip, reliably improves human well-being. But a new study found that the relationship between indoor nature and well-being is more complex.
Past research has confirmed that indoor nature, including potted plants and natural materials, reduces stress and increases feelings of restoration and belonging. But these studies either test people’s response to nature versus no nature or use subjective levels of greenery, such as small, medium, and large amounts of plants. “There’s a huge body of literature, but we can’t refer to it because no one’s using the same methods,” explained Eva Bianchi, a Stanford PhD graduate.
Bianchi’s team developed software called the Nature View Potential tool, which precisely calculates how much nature you see from a given point in a room. Using this tool along with 3D modeling, the researchers designed 11 virtual conference rooms with varying levels of nature views. They then assigned 412 participants randomly to these digital offices and measured their stress and restoration levels before and after completing challenging tasks under pressure.
A greenery dose of about 20%-meaning plants are visible about 20% of the time as one looks around–had the strongest response in restoration and sense of belonging for participants, the researchers found. However, when greenery increased to 60%, stress levels rose.
Plus, the study highlighted the significance of connection to nature. If participants reported an increased feeling of connection to nature, they harvested more well-being benefits. But without that connection, the greenery had little effect on them. “You don’t just put a bunch of nature inside the space,” said Bianchi. “You make sure that it will successfully make the occupants feel connected.”
Bianchi’s team are also looking closer at what nature means to individuals and how that might vary. The ultimate goal is to find ways for people to maintain the restorative qualities of nature even amid increasing urbanization. “How do you get the feeling of nature indoors ” she said. “That’s why it’s so important to have some kind of standard... so we can compare across studies and make progress faster.”
32. What was the main limitation of previous studies on indoor nature
A. They used insufficient samples. B. They drew misleading conclusions.
C. They used wrong research procedures. D. They lacked a consistent measurement.
33. Why did the team assign the participants to virtual rooms
A. To protect the participants’ privacy. B. To simplify the research procedure.
C. To examine the participants’ responses. D. To minimize the participants’ mental stress.
34. What is one implication of the study’s findings
A. Getting greenery levels right.
B. Keeping nature views maximal.
C. Ensuring the diversity of indoor plants.
D. Filling rooms with indoor-friendly plants.
35. What does the last paragraph emphasize about the current research
A. The potential applications. B. The anticipated difficulties.
C. The achievement of the goal. D. The significance of standards.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Running behind my home is a 2-meter-wide and 80-meter-long stoned alleyway (小巷). A couple of neighbors and I tried to clear the fly-tipped (非法倾倒) chairs, fridges, and bin bags. The next thing I knew, we were building raised beds, buying organic fertilizer and planting food and flowers.
Although everyone involved has different preferences about what and how to grow, we don’t separate our plots. 36 We ask people to tend to the alley in whatever way they can. This gives everyone ownership of the space, whether they’re permanent residents or short-time renters.
To get our community involved, one person knocked on doors to let everyone know about the plan, and to ask if they’d be willing to help. 37 Eventually, we all started meeting each other and seeing how much each of us was able to achieve. I created an online chat group so we could communicate easily and organize days when we could all garden together.
It hasn’t always been smooth sailing. There has been willful damage and theft, although it doesn’t happen often. 38 Consequently, there’s certainly less fly-tipping and antisocial behavior than before.
Warm summer afternoons when we all come out to tidy, garden, or socialize fill me with happiness. 39 This atmosphere really demonstrates how community gardens can change neighborhoods for the better.
40 Now that fly-tipping is a rare occurrence, we focus on growing food for insects and people. In the summer, we now have bees, butterflies, moths, and more. We’ve even seen a fox walking along the street. This fills me with pride because it shows our work really benefits our entire area and everyone-and everything-in it.
A. Still, we try to solve these issues together.
B. Every one of us was amazed at our own hard work.
C. The community has learned a lot from the cooperation.
D. We grow plants together to bring the community closer.
E. And these gatherings usually turn into an evening hang out.
F. The biggest achievement has been seeing an increase in biodiversity.
G. In the meantime, we individually worked on little bits of the alleyway.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I was watching Portrait Artist of the Year when I first heard the expression “tinker time”. In case you’ve not seen this 41 , each week a group of artists have to paint a portrait in four hours. They are divided into three groups, each having a different celebrity 42 for them.
It was getting to the 43 moments. The camera focused on one of the artists. I can’t remember his name or which celebrity he was painting, I do remember thinking his painting looked 44 but he was still adding tiny touches to it. He said it was tinker time. I 45 wrote down those two words in my notebook.
Tinker time, I think, is what we do when writing, or what we should do. I finish a short story. I leave it until the next day and 46 it again to edit and do some 47 . That’s the main part over with.
The following day I take another look at the 48 . I check all my punctuation (标点) and spellings. I read each sentence 49 , and out loud. Reading aloud makes such a difference. It’s easier to spot 50 that way.
A few days later I 51 the story and I guess this is when I spend some tinker time on it. It seems fully done but, if I tinker a little more, could I 52 it This is when I might decide a word could be 53 . For instance, is fear the word I want or would terror be more powerful 54 , there is nearly always a little something that can be improved on, just like those final tiny touches in the 55 .
I shall leave this now and come back in a few days to spend some tinker time on it.
41. A. picture B. program C. expression D. competition
42. A. posing B. voting C. speaking D. drawing
43. A. embarrassing B. precious C. final D. magical
44. A. unique B. realistic C. damaged D. finished
45. A. unwillingly B. immediately C. nervously D. secretly
46. A. go through B. come across C. refer to D. forget about
47. A. outlining B. reading C. rewriting D. brainstorming
48. A. show B. portrait C. work D. quote
49. A. slowly B. smoothly C. eagerly D. proudly
50. A. ideas B. risks C. mistakes D. clues
51. A. make up B. hand in C. pass on D. return to
52. A. enhance B. illustrate C. popularize D. repeat
53. A. understood B. changed C. remembered D. crafted
54. A. Relatively B. Fortunately C. Unexpectedly D. Normally
55. A. notebook B. story C. speech D. painting
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In recent years, China has made great efforts to integrate technology into the cultural industry. Digital tools like big data and artificial intelligence have created new 56 (opportunity) for museums to engage the public. Traditional exhibitions are being reimagined through interactive and visually striking digital methods that appeal especially 57 young audiences.
One example is the Palace Museum. Home to over a million artworks, 58 used to display only a small part of its treasures. At present, advanced technology allows the museum to offer virtual tours and extensive digital collections. During the COVID-19 outbreak, when physical visits 59 (limit), the museum sped up 60 digitization of its collection. Since then, 3D modeling, cloud platforms and other technologies have been employed 61 (recreate) the palace online.
These 62 (technology) initiatives have increased public interest in cultural heritage. Millions of visitors can now explore the museum online, 63 makes history more accessible to people worldwide. Through the 64 (combine) of culture and technology, China is inspiring young people to appreciate traditional arts in innovative ways.
Through these efforts, museums are not only safeguarding history but also educating the public creatively, 65 (show) how digital development can give cultural treasures new life.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是李华。上周五，你校外教Alex给你所在班级上了一节心理健康主题课。请你给Alex写一封邮件，内容包括：
1. 你听课后的收获和感想；
2. 你对Alex未来主题课的期望或建议。
注意：
1. 写作词数应为80左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Alex, I hope you are doing well. Yours, Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Sweat poured down Mark’s face. He had just finished trying out for Oakwood High School’s basketball team, and he knew making it to the team was a pretty sure thing. After all, he wasn’t just good–he was excellent.
Basketball ran in the family–his older brother Reggie was now playing at a top college, and Mark was expected to follow in his brother’s footsteps. But Mark had a secret: his heart was in another sport.
Wiping the sweat from his forehead, Mark jumped on a bus heading home. Through the window, his eyes were drawn to the field where cheerleaders (啦啦队) danced effortlessly. He couldn’t look away. For months now, cheerleading had been on his mind. Reaching into his bookbag, he pulled out a poster: CHEERLEADER AUDITIONS (选拔). This was what he really wanted.
Mark knew pursuing cheerleading wouldn’t just be a physical challenge. His family had poured so much hope into his basketball future. But he was tired of living in his brother’s shadow. He was ready to carve his own path.
Six months ago, Mark once told his best friend Darren about his dream. “Cheerleading is girly,” Darren said. “You’re so good at basketball. Why throw that away ” Mark stood his ground. “This is where I want to put my strength,” he insisted. Over time, Darren began to understand and support him. Still, Mark kept his passion hidden from his family.
Secretly, Mark trained with two cheerleaders. Cheerleading didn’t come naturally–every move demanded more than basketball ever had. But month by month, he improved. Maybe, just maybe, he stood a chance of making it to the cheerleading team. But right now, after his basketball tryout, he had to face his family.
As soon as Mark arrived home, his parents were at the door.
“So… ” his father asked.
“The tryout It went well.” Mark replied, staring at his feet. Everyone in the family was smiling… except Mark. Still, he knew what had to be done.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为150左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Gathering courage, Mark announced, “I don’t want to play basketball anymore.” A week later, it was time for the cheerleader audition.

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