山东省泰安市2026届高三二轮检测(二模)英语试题(含答案,无听力音频有听力原文)

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山东省泰安市2026届高三二轮检测(二模)英语试题(含答案,无听力音频有听力原文)

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山东省泰安市2026届高三二轮检测(二模)英语试题
注意事项:
1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并收回。
第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
听下面的录音,回答第1小题。
1. What is Alex doing
A. Paying the bill.
B. Watching a game.
C. Checking the electrical system.
听下面的录音,回答第2小题。
2. How will the woman relieve stress
A. By reading a book.
B. By enjoying some music.
C. By lying in until lunchtime.
听下面的录音,回答第3小题。
3. What does the man still need to do
A. Clean the fridge.
B. Wash the dishes.
C. Deal with the rubbish.
听下面的录音,回答第4小题。
4. What are the speakers talking about
A. When to go to the pool.
B. Where to buy some ice cream.
C. How to cool off in hot weather.
听下面的录音,回答第5小题。
5. What does the woman imply
A. She will try eating fruit.
B. She will avoid all sweet foods.
C. She will continue eating chocolate.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. What is the problem with the printer
A. It's out of order.
B. The ink tank is empty.
C. The paper has been used up.
7. What does the woman finally ask the man to do
A. Make a list.
B. Pick her up.
C. Do the shopping.
听第7段录音,回答第8至10题。
8. Who is Jack
A. The speakers’ brother.
B. The speakers’ neighbor.
C. The speakers’ classmate.
9. What does Jack want to be
A. A singer.
B. A composer.
C. A guitar player.
10. What is the woman's attitude toward Jack's decision
A. Supportive.
B. Uncertain.
C. Disapproving.
听第8段录音,回答第11至13题。
11. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Family members.
B. Doctor and patient.
C. Boss and employee.
12. What makes Mr. Johnson's knees more painful
A. Running fast with heavy loads.
B. Standing all day long without breaks.
C. Lifting heavy boxes repeatedly at work.
13. What does the woman suggest Mr. Johnson do
A. Quit his job to avoid further injury.
B. Shift between labor and office tasks.
C. Take some days off and rest at home.
听第9段录音,回答第14至16题。
14. When might the Stubai glacier in Austria and others disappear
A. In about 10 years.
B. In about 20 years.
C. In about 30 years.
15. What is the impact of the melting glaciers
A. It damages sources of water.
B. It makes many plants go extinct.
C. It causes heavy floods in lower areas.
16. What action does the woman emphasize at the end of the conversation
A. Investing in glacier research.
B. Limiting the number of tourists.
C. Cutting carbon emissions immediately.
听第10段录音,回答第17至20题。
17. What is the woman
A. A coach.
B. An athlete.
C. A journalist.
18. What does the speaker advise new runners to do
A. Compete with a friend.
B. Train at a comfortable speed.
C. Run as slowly as possible.
19. Which of the following is more important according to the speaker
A. Choosing the running time.
B. Running at least three times a week.
C. Maintaining a regular training schedule.
20. Why does the speaker mention Ceri
A. To show the benefits of running.
B. To illustrate how the club helps new members.
C. To prove that age is not a barrier to starting running.
第二部分阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
San Francisco Opera is holding auditions (试演) in October/ November 2025 for classically trained singers for its 2026 contract year chorus positions, with full-time and part-time openings across all voice categories. Underrepresented background applicants are especially encouraged. Rehearsals (排练) start in spring 2026, with performances in June (spring/ summer season) and September to late November (fall season). A temporary schedule will be provided to hired singers.
Basic Requirements
· At least 4 years of classical voice training (academic/ private)
· Excellent sight-reading skills in music and languages
· Quick music memorization ability
· Related opera/ symphony chorus or stage experience
· Availability for complex rehearsal and performance schedules
Application Details
Auditions are invitation-only. You need to submit an application form, a singing resume,two music recommendation letters, a professional headshot and your audition date choices toNina Pitts (npitts@ ). The final application deadline is November 1st, 2025. For those who sang with the chorus in the past 5 seasons, only an application form is needed.
Audition Specifics
Qualified applicants will get an email notice (1 week before audition; immediate notice for out-of-town singers). You cannot change your audition time if you ask less than 72 hours before. Auditions are held at War Memorial Opera House, San Francisco.
Core Requirements Key Notes
3 operatic solos (1 Italian required);4th optional(aria/ spiritual) Arias (咏叹调) in original key/ language; programme sheet needed; all selections must be memorized
Sight-reading test (may be required) Audition max 5 minutes; no guests allowed
Sheet music (correct key, plain) for accompanist Opera provides an accompanist; personal accompa-nist allowed (name to be confirmed in advance)
Salary & Wage
· Extra Chorus:$67.23 per rehearsal hour;$311.18 per performance
· Regular Chorus:$2,110.31 weekly (entry-level,35 weeks)
21. What is the purpose of this text
A. To call for audition applications.
B. To explain the opera payment rules.
C. To advertise performance schedules.
D. To introduce chorus training requirements.
22. Which is a must for all audition applicants
A. An application form.
B. A professional headshot.
C. Three audition date choices.
D. Two recommendation letters.
23. What can we learn about the audition
A. The 4th song must be an Italian spiritual.
B. All required songs need to be memorized.
C. Out-of-town singers get notice on audition day.
D. Singers can change dates with 48 hours’ notice.
B
After ten years in London, I recently relocated to Berlin, and as is customary when making new friends, the question“Where are you from ” tends to come up. My honest answer would be,“I don't really know.”
The truth is, most of us TCKs (Third Culture Kids)—— a term coined to describe“children who move between cultures before they have had the opportunity to fully develop their personal and cultural identity”—— had no choice growing up but to follow our parents around the world.We’ d often be told,“Pack your bags, kids. We’ re moving!” and in the blink of an eye,everything would change.
By the time I was 18, I had changed schools 10 times, moved countries at least 6 times,acquired a confusing accent, and developed both a love of travel and a desire for stability. Being an Indonesian-Italian, I often felt an identity crisis weighing on me in my teens.
Moving to a new country after spending ten years in the UK —— the longest I have lived anywhere —— has brought back feelings of this cultural confusion. Growing up as a TCK isn't as charming as many people would expect. It is both a blessing and a curse (诅咒), beautiful but unpredictable, and full of adventures. This lack of roots and stability will likely cause issues later in life.
Yet kids are adaptable. After overcoming culture shock, you start to adjust and see the bigger picture. You learn that the world is much bigger than you, and that your problems are small. You also learn responsibility, respect different beliefs, and form your own opinions.Making friends and then losing touch teaches you that everything is temporary.
Growing up as a TCK, you rarely realize how adaptable you are, until your older friends often comment on how“wise and mature” you are for your age. Travelling from a young age opens your eyes beyond“Hypernormalization”. It teaches that diversity is nothing to be afraid of. Growing up as a TCK was tough, but I wouldn't trade it for anything. It has shaped me to be the person that I am today —— an actual“citizen of the world”.
24. How does the author usually respond to“Where are you from”
A. By stating her nationality directly.
B. By admitting her uncertainty honestly.
C. By explaining the TCK concept briefly.
D. By describing her experiences in detail.
25. What does the author say about TCKs’ childhood
A. They enjoyed planning their moves.
B. They resisted their parents’ decisions.
C. They maintained their personal lifestyle.
D. They were forced to adapt to sudden changes.
26. Which of the following can best describe TCKs’ experiences
A. Tough and confusing.
B. Peaceful and predictable.
C. Routine but eye-opening.
D. Adventurous but beneficial.
27. What can be a suitable title for the text
A. Growing up as a TCK
B. Challenges for Migration
C. How to Become a Global Citizen
D. How to Adapt to Diverse Cultures
C
Doctors in London have taken a major step forward in medical science by helping children born blind to see again through the use of gene therapy. The treatment was designed for a rare inherited eye condition that affects the retina —— the part of the eye responsible for transforming light into signals the brain can understand.
The children in the treatment group suffered from a severe form of retinal dystrophy (营养不良的) caused by a faulty gene. This fault meant that the light-sensing cells in their eyes could not function properly. As a result, these children were legally classified as blind, even though some could still tell light from dark.
In the new procedure, surgeons injected (注射) a healthy copy of the faulty gene into one eye during a keyhole operation that lasted about an hour. The gene was carried safely inside a
harmless virus and placed precisely in the light-sensitive layer of the retina. The goal was to help damaged cells recover their ability to respond to light.
After the operation, researchers monitored the children's progress for several years. The results were published in a respected medical journal. Many families reported remarkable improvements. One parent said that before the treatment, his son could not notice bright objects even when they were held just inches from his face. After the operation, the boy began to reach for toys and recognize people at a short distance. He even reacted to sunlight shining through a window —— the first time he had shown any response to light. According to James Bainbridge, a senior retinal specialist involved in the work, the therapy not only helps the eye cells to work better but also encourages the brain to interpret visual signals more effectively.
Although further research is still needed to confirm long-term safety, the future of gene treatment for visual disorders is bright with the potential to revolutionize treatment options and bring new hope to those living with visual disabilities.
28. What can we learn about the faulty gene
A. It makes the light-sensing cells perform poorly.
B. It prevents people distinguishing light from dark.
C. It affects how the brain transforms the light signals.
D. It causes severe damage to the outer part of the eyes.
29. Why is the treatment described as“a major step forward”
A. It shortens the time needed for eye surgery.
B. It removes a harmful virus from the patients’ eyes.
C. It intends to cure the most common retinal diseases.
D. It helps address a certain eye problem at its root.
30. Why does the author mention the father and his son in paragraph 4
A. To present the fact.
B. To prove the effect.
C. To predict the trend.
D. To explain the theory.
31. What is the author's attitude toward the future of this treatment
A. Favorable. B. Indifferent. C. Doubtful. D. Unclear.
D
Experts have created an app that uses artificial intelligence to identify dinosaurs from the footprints they left behind millions of years ago.
“When we find a dinosaur footprint, we try to do the Cinderella thing, and find the foot that matches the slipper,” said Prof Steve Brusatte.“But it's not so simple, because the shape depends not only on the dinosaur's foot, but also the type of ground it was walking on, and the motion of its foot.”
Previous AI systems based their learning on footprints labelled as having been made by particular dinosaurs. However, if those identifications are incorrect then the AI system will also be problematic.“You never find a footprint and alongside it the dinosaur that made it,” said DrGregor Hartmann.“So most likely, some of these labels are wrong.”
Taking a different approach, the researchers fed their AI system with 2,000 unlabelled footprint shapes. The system then determined how similar the imprints (压痕) were to each other. They discovered eight features that reflected variations in the imprints’ shapes, such as the spread of the toes and heel position.
The team turned the system into a free app called DinoTracker that allows users to upload footprint shapes and explore the footprints most similar to them. The AI system supported what dinosaur experts had noticed: a set of footprints from the Triassic and early Jurassic period were remarkably bird-like, despite being 60 million years older than the oldest bird bones. Brusatte said this showed the similarities were not just wishful thinking.“If these tracks were made by birds, that would mean birds have a much older ancestry than we used to think.”
However, it was far from case closed. Brusatte added,“I suspect it is more likely these tracks were made by other dinosaurs with very bird-like feet.” Dr Jens Ballensack offered another explanation: the features identified by the new system were not necessarily based on the shape of the foot itself and the bird-like shape may result from a regular dinosaur's foot sinking into soft ground.“They are not evidence for an early appearance of birds,” he said.
32. What makes it difficult to identify dinosaur footprints
A. The missing bones alongside footprints.
B. The soft ground where dinosaurs walked.
C. Unpredictable movements of dinosaur feet.
D. Various conditions affecting footprint shapes.
33. Why did the researchers use unlabelled footprint shapes
A. Because most labels were incorrect.
B. To test the similarities of the imprints.
C. To avoid being misled by wrong labels.
D. Because AI works better with unlabelled data.
34. What did the AI discover about the footprints from the Triassic period
A. They had eight new features.
B. They were left by early birds.
C. They were strikingly bird-like.
D. They were 60 million years old.
35. What can be inferred from the last paragraph
A. Experts place full reliance on this app.
B. The footprints were made by early birds.
C. The system of the app has its limitations.
D. The results changed our knowledge of birds.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
For many kids, setting a big goal and achieving it can feel like climbing a slippery hill. 36 Teaching children to create goals that are specific, measurable, achievable, relevant,and time-bound builds a can-do attitude and helps them face obstacles in life.
SMART goals deconstruct larger goals into smaller, actionable steps. They remove guesswork and make goals easier to track. 37 For example, an unclear goal like“do better at math” can be reframed as“practice multiplication tables for 10 minutes after dinner every day”.
When you set SMART goals with kids, the key is to keep them collaborative and simple. 38 They can make kids feel overwhelmed, so it's better to focus on one simple goal at a time until it becomes a habit.
It's also important to avoid common mistakes. 39 Praising only the results instead of the effort will make kids discouraged when they face setbacks. What's more, don't set goals for your kids —— let them take ownership of their own goals.
Setting the goal is just the first step; sticking to it is more important. 40 Regular check-ins, celebrating small progress and adjusting goals when needed can all help kids stay on track with their SMART goals. In the end, SMART goals are not just about achieving something, but about building life skills like time management and self-discipline for kids.
A. Goals should be specific and detailed.
B. One of them is paying no attention to process.
C. Children should be encouraged to set their own goals.
D. First, avoid making goals too big or setting too many of them.
E. There are several tips to help kids stick to their SMART goals.
F. You need to prepare a lot of professional tools to track the goals.
G. But SMART goals can give them the tools to conquer it with confidence.
第三部分语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
It was Thanksgiving Eve 1980. A heavy storm 41 central Missouri, leaving 18-year-oldJohn Morris trapped. His car had just 42 an icy road and into a channel when he was on his way to his grandparents’ home for the holiday. Unharmed but 43 —— with no cell phone to call for help in 1980 —— John 44 central Missourihis car couldn’ t get out without a tow truck(拖车). Dressed only for mild cold, not severe snow, he grew 45 as the weather worsened and darkness fell.
Spotting a light on a hill across the road, John hiked through the wet snow to a 46 . The door was unlocked, and 47 answered his knocks, so he cautiously entered, hoping to use the 48 . The house empty, he dialed the 49 number and was told he had to wait for rescue because of bad weather. He decided to 50 some cash as a thank you and stay in his car for the night.
Just then, the farmhouse owners—— Virgil Schmitz and his wife —— returned. Instead of 51 ,they greeted John with warmth, 52 strawberry pie. Then, they arranged accommodation forJohn in a guest room and served him a hot Thanksgiving breakfast the next morning. John's car was later declared a total loss, but he never forgot their 53 .
Today, John and Virgil remain in touch, 54 seasonal greetings. True affection and great kindness can go beyond time, 55 lives even decades apart.
41. A. missed B. crashed C. surrounded D. blanketed
42. A. cleared up B. laid across C. slid off D. passed by
43. A. helpless B. hopeful C. unexpected D. surprised
44. A. admitted B. memorized C. realized D. recognized
45. A. anxious B. calm C. cautious D. sensitive
46. A. truck B. farmhouse C. hotel D. flat
47. A. someone B. both C. everyone D. nobody
48. A. kit B. phone C. room D. kitchen
49. A. hospital B. long-distance C. emergency D. bank
50. A. leave B. borrow C. contribute D. withdraw
51. A.comfort B. anger C. sympathy D. disappointment
52. A. preparing B. selling C. displaying D. sharing
53. A. generosity B. bravery C. devotion D. courage
54. A. accepting B. drafting C. keeping D. exchanging
55. A. saving B. bridging C. cherishing D. enjoying
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Having a personal plot to grow fresh and pesticide-free vegetables has long been a dream for urban residents. 56 was once a getaway particularly for retirees is even becoming a desirable way for young citizens to escape the busy urban life, step into the farmland and fully bury 57 (they) in the labor of farming.
Nowadays, this dream has been turned into reality with the rise of“shared farms”, a concept that 58 (explode) in popularity across a host of cities throughout China in recent years.
The term refers to a practice where rural landowners rent out their unused plots to urban residents and provide professional 59 (assist) to help them cultivate and manage crops. In return, urban residents assume the daily responsibilities of sowing seeds and caring for the crops, 60 (ultimate) harvesting the produce for their own consumption.
Through shared farms, participants can gain access 61 both material and spiritual abundance. Beyond individual satisfaction, this model holds far 62 (great) significance. As agricultural culture integrates with modern life, shared farms also boost consumption and narrow the urban-rural gap, thus 63 (facilitate) rural revitalization.
By fulfilling people's deeper and more essential needs, brand-new consumption settings and innovative business models are opened up, 64 (root) in the pursuit of sustainable development.
Today, organic living has evolved into a lifestyle philosophy, connecting urban people with nature and promoting 65 more sustainable way of life.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
假如你是李华,你在 https:// 的网页上看到了一幅碳排放数据图片,请发表评论,内容包括:
1.总结图片信息;
2.提出建议。
注意:
1.写作词数应为80个左右;
2.请在答题卡的相应位置作答。
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
After finishing my homework, I stretched slightly and glanced at the warm sunset outside the window, ready to go out for a walk to relax my tired eyes. Just as I put on my shoes, my neighbor Mr. Green called me in anxiety, his voice trembling a little over the phone. He said a small fox had been trapped in the fence of his backyard, and it was crying painfully, making his heart ache. I immediately grabbed a pair of thick cotton gloves and a soft towel from the shelf,then rushed to his house as fast as I could.
When I arrived, I saw the little fox huddled (蜷缩) tightly in the corner of the iron fence,its front paw (爪子) firmly stuck between the cold iron bars. Its reddish-brown fur was messy with some dirt and dry grass, and its big eyes were filled with fear and helplessness. Mr. Green stood beside me, looking worried. He told me he had found the fox ten minutes ago while watering flowers, and he didn’ t dare to move it, for fear of hurting its paw or making it more frightened.
I knelt down gently, keeping my voice soft to calm the fox down. It looked at me with caution, its body trembling slightly and struggling now and then, but it couldn’ t get free at all. Iput on the gloves and checked its paw carefully, finding a small cut with a little blood, but no serious injury. I wanted to free it carefully, but I didn’ t know the best way to avoid hurting it.Mr. Green held a flashlight to help me see clearly, his hands also a little shaky. We both felt anxious— neither of us had dealt with such a situation before, nor did we know anything about the fox's habits. We just hoped we could free the poor little guy safely as soon as possible.
(1)续写词数应为150个左右;
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
“Why not look up the correct way to free a trapped fox online ” suggested Mr. Green.
Several days later, Mr. Green called me excitedly and asked me to go to his backyard.
高三二轮检测
英语试题参考答案及评分标准 2026.04
第一部分听力(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
1~5 BBCCA 6~10 CAABC 11~15 BCBBA 16~20 CABCA
第二部分阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
21~23 AAB 24~27 BDDA 28~31 ADBA 32~35 DCCC
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
36~40GADBE
第三部分语言运用(共两节;满分30分)
第一节完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
41~45 DCACA 46~50 BDBCA 51~55 BDADB
第二节语法填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
56. What 57. themselves 58. has exploded 59. assistance
60. ultimately 61. to 62. greater 63. facilitating
64. rooted 65. a
第四部分写作(共两节,满分40分)
(略)
评分原则:
1.本题总分为15分,按三个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3.评分时应考虑:内容是否完整,条理是否清楚,交际是否得体,语言是否准确。
4.拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时,应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
5.词数少于70,从总分中减去2分。
第三档(11-15分)
·完全完成了试题规定的任务。
·内容完整,条理清楚;
·交际得体,表达时充分考虑到了交际的需求;体现出较强的语言运用能力。完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档(6-10分)
·基本完成了试题规定的任务。
·内容、条理和交际等方面基本符合要求;
·所用语法和词汇满足了任务的要求;
·语法和用词方面有一些错误,但不影响理解。
·基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第一档(1-5分)
·未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
·内容不完整;
·所用词汇有限,语法或用词方面的错误影响了对所写内容的理解。
·未能清楚地传达信息。
0分
·未能传达任何信息;写的内容与要求无关。
第二节(满分25分)
(one possible version)
“Why not look up the correct way to free a trapped fox online ” suggested Mr. Green. He immediately searched the Internet with his phone and found a professional animal rescue guide,who told us to use a soft cloth to cover the fox’ s eyes to calm it, and then gently loosen the iron bars with a tool. I followed his suggestions and pulled fox’ s paw out. Then we cleaned its small wound and wrapped it softly. The fox looked at us gratefully before running into the woods. We breathed a sigh of relief, hoping it would recover soon.
Several days later, Mr Green called me excitedly and asked me to go to his backyard. I went there at once and saw the fox standing there, healthy and lively. Its injury was totally healed. It walked to us gently without fear, as if saying thank you. This silent interaction filled our hearts with endless warmth and joy. We were so touched. This experience made me realize that kindness can bridge hearts between humans and animals, bringing warmth and beauty to the world.
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为25分,按5个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3.词数少于 130的,从总分中减去2分。
4.评分时,应主要从以下四个方面考虑:
(1)与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度;
(2)内容的丰富性;
(3)应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性;
(4)上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
6.如书写较差以致影响交际,可将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档(21-25)
——与所给短文融洽度高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理。
——内容丰富。
——所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达。
——有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档(16-20)
——与所给短文融洽度较高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理。
——内容比较丰富。
——所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但不影响意义表达。
——比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写的短文结构紧凑。
第三档(11-15)
——与所给短文关系较为密切,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
——写出了若干有关内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,虽有一些错误,但不影响意义表达。
——应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
第二档(6-10)
——与所给短文有一定的关系,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
——写出了一些有关内容。
——语法结构单调,词汇项目有限,有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,影响了意义的表达。
——较少使用语句间的连接成分,全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档1-5
——与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差。
——产出内容较少。
录音原文:
Text 1没有交电费推断题——行为动作类
W: Hey, Alex. Have you paid our electricity bill I'm worried we' re going to get cut off.
M: Don't worry, we' ve still got time. I' ll pay as soon as I finish watching this. The forward is about to take a shot at the goal. Oops…
W: Seriously Did you see that The power's actually out now!
Text 2放松方式
W: I' ve been super stressed lately. How do you usually relieve stress
M: After a long day, I turn on the table lamp and relax with a book. Or when I want to relax, Ilove to lie in until lunchtime. Moreover, listening to music is also a good way.
W:I will definitely give the last one a try.
Text 3做家务
W: I have washed the dishes. Now I need to sweep up the dirt. Can you clean out the fridge
M: The fridge has been thoroughly cleaned. All that's left for me to do is take the bins out.
Text 4天气太热
W: The sweltering heat is killing me. Could we possibly go to the pool for some relief
M:I' ve told you that the pool is shut down for a whole week due to repairs.
W: But I'm burning up! How about we go get some ice cream or find another way to cool off
Text 5喜欢吃甜食
M: You' ve eaten half the chocolate bar again! Maybe you should swap it for fruit.
W: That's a good idea. I just need something to satisfy my sweet tooth.
Text 6需采购办公用品
W: I was trying to print out our project reports, but the paper tray is empty again. Do you know if we have more paper in stock
M:I think we used up the last pack yesterday.
W: I'm planning to swing by the supplies store this afternoon, so I can grab some more paper then.
M: Great! While you' re there, could you also get a few other supplies I noticed that our scissors are missing, and we' re also low on sticky notes and highlighters.
W: Of course. Send me a quick list of the things we need in the next hour, and I' ll make sure to pick everything up.
Text 7哥哥不打算上医学院第8题为推断题——身份关系类
W: What's wrong with Mom and Dad They look very upset.
M: Jack just called and said he would like to go to art school instead of medical college.
W: Why He worked hard and stayed up late studying because he wanted to become a doctor in the future.
M: No, he didn't want to do that. It's our parents who have always wanted him to be a doctor.Do you remember the times he played the organ and the guitar
W: Yeah, he always played very well. He could compose a song very quickly with those instruments.
M: That's his actual passion. He doesn't like performing on stage. He only hopes that the songs he creates can be loved by people.
W: But I don't think he should make such a decision. Doesn't he need to consider our parents'feelings
M: He tried to explain this to Mom and Dad last month, but they wouldn't listen. I think everyone has the right to pursue their dreams.
Text 8就医第11题为推断题——身份关系类
W: Alright, Mr. Johnson. What's been bothering you lately
M: My knees have been quite painful, especially during work. I work in a warehouse, and I'm on my feet all day lifting heavy boxes. Sometimes I have to carry up to 50 pounds at a time.
W:I see. Are you experiencing swelling or stiffness
M: Yes, exactly. The knees get swollen by midday, and by the end of my shift, I can barely bend
it. Walking upstairs has become a real challenge. Do you think it's related to my job I' ve never had knee issues before.
W: Very likely. Repetitive lifting like that can put a lot of strain on your joints. I' ll prescribe some medication to reduce the swelling, but it's also important to modify your work routine.Have you talked to your boss about lighter tasks
M: No,I haven't. I'm worried about falling behind on my workload.
W: I understand, but continuing like this could lead to a more serious injury. Maybe you can rotate between heavy lifting and paperwork during your shift. Taking short breaks every hour can also help.
Text 9高山冰川在融化第14题为推断题——数字类
W: Hey, have you read the latest study on Alpine glaciers It's pretty worrying.
M: No,I haven't. What's going on
W: Well, the Stubai glacier in Austria and others are disappearing fast. Scientists say they' ll be gone in about 2046 because of rising temperatures.
M: That's crazy! What does that mean for the area
W: There are so many problems. For one, the melting ice leads to more rockfalls, which makes high mountain paths unsafe. Water from the melting glaciers also carries small pieces of rock,including dangerous materials, which can harm water supplies.
M: Besides this, are there other influences
W: Frozen ground is melting, and this makes rocks fall. Tourists can still visit lower places safely, but it's dangerous to go to higher ones. Oh, and get this: the glaciers are turning green!Plants are growing where there used to be only ice.
M: That's such a huge change. All because of climate change, right
W: Exactly. It's a wake-up call for us to reduce carbon emissions without delay, like switching
to renewable energy sources, upgrading to electric vehicles, or tightening regulations on industrial factories.
Text 10跑步的建议
W: My name's Liz Fuller and I'm a running coach with Compton Park Runners Club. Welcome to my podcast. If you' re thinking about taking up running, I'm here to help.
I have a couple of simple tips I always give to new runners. I suppose you' ve been told to run very slowly until your fitness increases. Well, I find that can prevent progress. You should run at a speed that feels comfortable, but time yourself and try to run a bit faster each time.
Listening to music can be very helpful. I'd say that is better than running with a friend,especially as most people are competitive, and that's not what you want when you' re just starting. I don't think the time of day is especially important. Some people are better in the evening, while others are morning people, but you need to be consistent, so aim to train regularly. Twice a week is enough to begin with.
New members often say to me that they' ve put off running either because they lack confidence,or they don't have time, or they think they dislike running. Ceri, for example, joined the club two years ago at the age of 40. She was worried about being left behind and being the slowest runner. But she said she was made to feel so welcome after she joined the club. The coach went out of his way to chat with her before and after runs, giving tips on pacing and gear that helped ease her nerves.

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