安徽合肥市第六中学2026届高三4月月考英语试题(PDF版,含答案,无听力音频有听力原文)

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安徽合肥市第六中学2026届高三4月月考英语试题(PDF版,含答案,无听力音频有听力原文)

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高三 4月 16—17日英语·答案
第一部分听力(共 20小题;每小题 1.5分,满分 30分)
1—5 BCABA 6—10 CBACB 11—15 ABBCB 16—20 AABCC
第二部分阅读(共 20小题;每小题 2.5分,满分 50分)
21—25 DCCDA 26—30 BABAC 31—35 BBCDD 36—40 EFGBA
第三部分语言运用(共两节,满分 30分)
第一节(共 15小题;每小题 1分,满分 15分)
41—45 BCDCA 46—50 BADCB 51—55 CADBD
第二节(共 10小题;每小题 1.5分,满分 15分)
56. submitted 57. expansion 58. A 59. to meet 60. central
61. creating 62. into 63. are 64. which 65. and
第四部分写作(共两节,满分 40分)
第一节(满分 15分)
One possible version:
Dear James,
I’m glad to hear you plan to visit China during the summer holidays. I’d like to recommend Xi’an to you, whic
h is a perfect choice for your trip.
Xi’an is one of China’s ancient capitals with a history of over 3,000 years. You can visit the Terracotta Army,
a world-famous cultural relic, to feel the charm of ancient Chinese civilization. Besides, the city is full of delicious
local food, such as roujiamo and cold noodles, which are cheap and tasty.
What’s more, the weather in summer is pleasant, neither too hot nor too cold, and there are many beautiful sce
nic spots waiting for you to explore. I’m sure you’ll have a great time there.
Looking forward to your arrival.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分 25分)
One possible version:
When Tom finished school, he found Lily and her grandma waiting for him. The little girl was holding a color
ful drawing in her hand, her eyes bright with excitement. “Thank you so much for helping us this morning!” Lily sa
id loudly, handing him the drawing. It showed a boy fixing a bike under the sun, with a big smile on his face. “My
grandma has a gift for you too,” Lily exclaimed excitedly. Just then, the lady stepped forward, smiling and holding
a brand new tool kit in her hands. “This is for you, in reward to your timely help,” she said softly.
Tom refused the tool kit repeatedly, saying he just did what he should do. But Lily’s grandma insisted, explain
ing that it was a small gift to show their gratitude and a way to “pass the kindness on” as he had said. Finally, Tom
accepted it, holding the tool kit tightly. On his way home, he looked at the drawing and the new tool kit, feeling a w
arm glow in his heart. He realized that a small act of kindness could bring so much warmth to others. Just as he had
helped the old lady, this little gift reminded him that kindness is always mutual and worth passing on forever.
听力原文
Text 1
M: What a beautiful picture! What did Allen write on the card
W: He said he was having a good time in Canada and would bring me a birthday present.
Text 2
W: It takes you a long time to get to the office. Why don’t you come to work by bus or taxi
M: There is always heavy traffic on the roads in the morning. I think it saves time and enables me to get some exerc
ise as well.
Text 3
M: Have you finished the biology project It needs to be handed in this Friday.
W: No. I need to review math first, since we’ll have a test on Wednesday. Anyway, today is only Monday.
Text 4
M: Hello Kathy, this is Mark. We’re thinking of going to the… Would you
W: Hi, Mark. Sorry, can you speak up a bit Hello
M: Sorry, I’m in the subway and the signal’s not so good. Can you hear me right now
W: Ah, yes, that’s better! But please hold on, my battery’s about to die. Can I call you back later
Text 5
M: I’ve been listening to you play the piano for a while. And it’s fine during the weekdays for I get up at 7 a. m. On
the weekends, I’d appreciate it if you could hold off until 9 a. m.
W: No problem. I’ll put it off until 10 a. m.
Text 6
M: Miss, I need to see your driver’s license.
W: Was I doing something wrong
M: You’re driving in a school zone around the time school lets out. The speed limit is 15 miles an hour, and you we
re going 35.
W: But it’s only 4:10 p. m. The students aren’t dismissed until 5:00 p. m.
M: Today is Wednesday. Students are dismissed half an hour earlier on Wednesdays.
W: Oh no, you’re right. I just forgot that.
Text 7
W: Did you see that documentary, Nature Watch, last night
M: I did. I wouldn’t want to miss anything from that series. I don’t think it was as good as last week’s one on eleph
ants, though.
W: I actually find dolphins much more interesting, so I thought last night’s one was better. The next one is about be
ars, which should be great.
M: Yeah, I can’t wait. However, there is one problem with the series.
W: Oh, what’s that
M: I really can’t find any problem with the camera work, but I think whoever wrote the music shouldn’t be asked to
do it
for a nature series again. It’s a bit noisy, especially when I try to focus on the story.
Text 8
M: Hi, Emma, could you do me a favor
W: Sure, what is it
M: I have an important job interview soon, so I’d like to practice answering some questions with you.
W: Sure, I’m happy to help. Please have a seat. First, tell me why you are interested in our company.
M: I’ve researched the market and followed the company for a long time. I’m very impressed by your sales perform
ance and innovative promotion path. I feel my career goals match perfectly with the company’s goals.
W: That’s a good answer. Remember teamwork and commitment to the company are often highly valued.
M: To prove that, I’ll share some examples from both group projects with my classmates and tasks completed on m
y own.
W: Great! Let’s move to the second question.
Text 9
W: Jake, are you joining in the cooking competition organized by the company
M: Yeah, I signed up already.
W: Cool. What are you planning to make
M: A homemade pizza my grandmother taught me. It takes a lot of materials and much time, but it’s totally worth i
t.
W: That sounds delicious. Have you been practicing it lately
M: Definitely. I made it twice last week. I even changed the cooking steps a bit to make it taste better.
W: I’d love to try it sometime.
M: Well, I’m having a dinner party this Friday. Why don’t you and Bob come over I’m planning to make the dish
again and get some suggestions.
W: We’re in. Are there any prizes for the competition I heard there are 30 staff members joining. Sounds tough.
M: Yeah. All the top three will each receive a gift card and the first-place winner will also get a brand-new set of co
oking tools. Everyone else will get a bottle of wine, so it’s not bad.
Text 10
W: Good morning, everyone. It’s time for our weekly health class. How many of you feel tired all the time Raise y
our hands, please. Wow, there are a lot of hands! Doctors recommend that teens get at least 8 — 10 hours of sleep e
ach night. However, in practice, many teens struggle to make it. This is often due to a conflict between nature and
modern life. During our teenage years, our body clocks tend to move forward. This natural change makes us want t
o go to sleep and wake up much later. However, as society usually demands we get up early, the key is to fall aslee
p earlier. Later on in the lesson, we’ll talk about how stress and screen addiction can also impact our sleep. But firs
t, we’re going to study the 10-3-2-1 sleep rule. This means that ten hours before bed, you stop drinking tea, coffee,
and other energy drinks. Your last meal of the day should be at least three hours before bed. Homework and other
work should be completed at least two hours before bed. One hour before bed, you shut off all screens. These tips
will help prepare your body for sleep, and help you drop off to sleep much more quickly.
写作第一节
评分原则
1.本题总分为 15分,按 5个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档
次,最后给分。
3.词数少于 60的,从总分中减去 2分。
4.评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性、上下文的连贯性
及语言的得体性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写
及词汇用法均可接受。
6.如书写较差,以至影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。
7.内容要点可用不同方式表达,对紧扣主题的适当发挥不予扣分。
【各档次的给分范围和要求】
第五档:(13—15分)
1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。
2.覆盖所有内容要点。
3.应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
4.语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致;具备较强的语言运用
能力。
5.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
6.完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档:(10—12分)
1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。
2.虽漏掉 1、2个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。
3.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
4.语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
6.达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档:(7—9分)
1.基本完成了试题规定的任务。
2.虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。
3.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
4.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。
5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
6.整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档:(4—6分)
1.未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
2.漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。
3.语法结构单调、词汇知识有限。
4.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。
5.较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。
6.信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档:(1—3分)
1.未完成试题规定的任务。
2.明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。
3.语法结构单调、词汇知识有限。
4.较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。
5.缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。
6.信息未能传达给读者。
不得分:(0分)
未能传达给读者任何信息;内容太少,无法评判;所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
写作第二节
评分原则
1.本题总分为 25分,按 5个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或
调整档次,最后给分。
3.词数少于 120的,从总分中减去 2分。
4.评分时,应主要从以下四个方面考虑:
(1)与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度;
(2)内容的丰富性;
(3)应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性;
(4)上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
6.如书写较差以致影响交际,可将分数降低一个档次。
【各档次的给分范围和要求】
第五档:(21—25分)
1.与所给短文融洽度高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理。
2.所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达。
3.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档:(16—20分)
1.与所给短文融洽度较高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理。
2.所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但不影响意义表达。
3.比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第三档:(11—15分)
1.与所给短文关系较为密切,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
2.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,虽有一些错误,但不影响意义表达。
3.应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
第二档:(6—10分)
1.与所给短文有一定的关系,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
2.语法结构单调,词汇项目有限,有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,影响了意义的表达。
3.较少使用语句间的连接成分,全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档:(1—5分)
1.与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差。
2.语法结构单调,词汇项目很有限,有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误,严重影响了意义的表达。
3.缺乏语句间的连接成分,全文内容不连贯。
不得分:(0分)
白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。高三 4月 16—17日英语
注意事项:
1.答题前,务必将自己的个人信息填写在答题卡上,并将条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位
置。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改
动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。
第一部分听力(共两节,满分 30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有 2分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂
到答题卡上。
第一节(共 5小题;每小题 1.5分,满分 7.5分)
听下面 5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选
项。听完每段对话后,你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读
两遍。
例:How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是 C。
1. What is the woman probably doing
A. Taking a picture.
B. Looking at a postcard.
C. Preparing a present.
2. How does the man probably go to work
A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. By bike.
3. When will the speakers take a math exam
A. This Wednesday. B. This Friday. C. Next Monday.
4. Why is the woman unable to talk on the phone now
A. It’s noisy around.
B. Her battery is low.
C. The signal is poor.
5. What is the man’s suggestion about
A. Practice timing. B. A healthy lifestyle. C. Weekend plans.
第二节(共 15小题;每小题 1.5分,满分 22.5分)
听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项
中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5秒钟;听完
后,各小题给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6段材料,回答第 6、7题。
6. What did the woman do
A. She drove through a red light.
B. She parked in a school zone.
C. She went over the speed limit.
7. What time does school finish on Wednesdays
A. At 4:00 p.m.
B. At 4:30 p.m.
C. At 5:00 p.m.
听第 7段材料,回答第 8至 10题。
8. What is the man’s opinion about last night’s documentary
A. It was a bit disappointing.
B. It was quite attractive.
C. It was better than the last one.
9. What is last night’s documentary about
A. Elephants. B. Bears. C. Dolphins.
10. What does the man complain about
A. The camera work. B. The music. C. The story.
听第 8段材料,回答第 11至 13题。
11. What is the man doing
A. Preparing for a job interview.
B. Conducting a job market survey.
C. Making a promotion presentation.
12. What abilities does the woman think are important
A. Creativity and commitment. B. Devotion and cooperation. C. Independence and motivation.
13. How will the man prove his teamwork spirit
A. By explaining his career goals.
B. By talking about his own experiences.
C. By comparing himself with his classmates.
听第 9段材料,回答第 14至 17题。
14. What did the man do to improve the taste of his dish
A. He replaced most of the materials.
B. He turned to his family for help.
C. He changed the cooking steps.
15. Why is the man hosting the dinner party on Friday
A. To get relaxed with his friends.
B. To collect some opinions on his food.
C. To test the new cooking tools he bought.
16. What will the top three get in the competition
A. A gift card.
B. A cooking tool.
C. A bottle of wine.
17. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Co-workers. B. Relatives. C. Judge and competitor.
听第 10段材料,回答第 18至 20题。
18. Who is probably the speaker
A. A guide. B. A teacher. C. A writer.
19. What causes long-term tiredness in teens according to the speaker
A. A preference for drinking energy drinks.
B. An addiction to screens and social media.
C. The conflict between body clocks and modern life.
20. What does the speaker tell us in the end
A. How stress affects sleep quality.
B. Why teens have trouble waking up early.
C. How to arrange time properly before bedtime.
第二部分阅读(共两节,满分 50分)
第一节(共 15小题;每小题 2.5分,满分 37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C和 D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将
该项涂黑。
A
The Shanghai Urban Planning Museum has long been a window for citizens and tourists to understand the cit
y’s development. Recently, the museum launched its “Night Exploration of Shanghai” themed night tour activity th
is year.
The night tour focuses on three core exhibition areas: the “Century of Shanghai” themed hall, which shows the
city’s historical changes from a small fishing village to a modern large city through 3D projection and interactive s
creens; the “Future City” experience zone, where visitors can use VR devices to simulate (模拟) walking through S
hanghai’s future landmark buildings; and the “Intangible Cultural Heritage of Urban Life” area, which displays Sha
nghai local crafts such as Shanghai-style woodcarving and cloth-tiger making.
Ticket Information
Tickets for the “Night Exploration of Shanghai” night tour are priced between 200 yuan and 260 yuan. Visitor
s can book tickets through the museum’s official website, official WeChat account, or buy them at the museum’s ti
cket office on the first floor.
For family tours (2 adults + 1 child under 12), a 20% discount is offered. Visitors with disability certificates, s
enior citizen cards (for those aged 70 and above), and student ID cards can enjoy a 30% discount.
Discounted tickets must be presented with identity documents when visitors enter the museum.
Each ticket is valid for the night tour session only and cannot be transferred or reused. Re-entry is not allowed
for the night tour, and visitors need to enter through the north gate of the museum.
Opening Hours
Summer period (June 1st — August 31st): The night tour is available from 18:00 to 22:00 (last entry at 21:0
0); closed on Mondays (except public holidays).
Winter period (September 1st — May 31st of the next year): The night tour is available from 17:30 to 21:30
(last entry at 20:30); closed on Mondays (except public holidays).
21. What is a feature of the “Night Exploration of Shanghai” night tour
A. A visit to a fishing village.
B. An opportunity to try cloth-tiger making.
C. A guided tour of Shanghai’s landmark buildings.
D. An interactive display of Shanghai’s historical changes.
22. What can we know about the ticket policies
A. ID cards must be presented for entry.
B. Tickets can be reused on the same day.
C. Discounted tickets are available for family tours.
D. Visitors can enter through any gate with tickets.
23. When can a visitor enter to enjoy the night tour in July
A. At 17:50 on a Monday. B. At 22:00 on a Tuesday.
C. At 20:50 on a Wednesday. D. At 21:10 on a Friday.
B
Eighteen years ago, Soda Thai had no job, house, or land, and survived only on Cambodia’s government social
assistance. Today, things have totally transformed: She owns a home, 5,000 square meters of farmland and serves
as vice-director of the Sovatepheap Thoamacheat Agricultural Cooperative in Siem Reap Province.
Soda always credits her great transformation to the Sovatepheap Thoamacheat Agricultural Cooperative and th
e PEARL project. Conducted jointly by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) and th
e Cambodian government, with financial support from the Green Climate Fund (GCF), the PEARL project is dedic
ated to improving the livelihoods of Cambodian farmers who are on the frontlines of climate change. The cooperati
ve Soda belongs to is located in the Tonle Sap Basin. Climate change has brought serious impacts there, reducing cr
op yields and causing a surge in pests (害虫) and diseases.
Trained Commune Agriculture officers taught farmers climate-adaptive techniques, such as using natural pest
control methods and organic products to prevent pest outbreaks. They also shared essential business skills: Creating
business plans to meet market demands and applying for loans, which allowed Soda to expand her farm.
In addition to that, the PEARL project has upgraded local weather stations and now issues monthly agrometeo
rological reports tailored to major crops, giving farmers warnings in advance. This support offers clear guidance for
daily planting and effectively lowers risks caused by uncertain weather.
By uniting farmers and connecting them with high-value markets like restaurants and hotels, the cooperative e
nsures fair prices for their chemical-free vegetables. Restaurant owner Leaksrey Ly praises their produce as “first-cl
ass” for its natural quality and reasonable prices. Thanks to PEARL’s training, market links, and teamwork, over 45
0,000 Cambodian farmers like Soda are no longer at the mercy of climate change. They are building lives that withs
tand climate change and moving toward a food-secure future, turning hardship into hope through collective effort.
24. What is the purpose of the PEARL project
A. To provide social assistance to poor Cambodian families.
B. To build more weather stations across the Tonle Sap Basin.
C. To promote Cambodian agricultural products in global markets.
D. To help climate-affected farmers improve their living conditions.
25. What does the text say about the PEARL project’s techniques
A. They stress curing nature with nature.
B. They prioritize expanding farming areas.
C. They rely entirely on government funding to function.
D. They require farmers to purchase advanced equipment.
26. How does the upgraded weather station system benefit farmers
A. By improving their organic produce.
B. By helping them avoid unnecessary losses.
C. By connecting them with consumers.
D. By predicting market demand for their crops.
27. What can be learned from the last paragraph
A. Collective action helps build a hopeful future.
B. Chemical-free produce is well-received worldwide.
C. Individuals have little impact on community development.
D. Reasonable prices are fundamental in winning recognition.
C
Everyone has experienced those moments of brain fog, where your mind feels a little misty and wanders off fo
r a second. Scientists have finally identified the precise cause. During a good night’s sleep, your body “forces” CSF
(脑脊液) out of the brain as a means of washing away waste products that built up over the course of the previous
day. If you do not get enough quality sleep, however, this process can be interrupted and is still incomplete when y
ou get out of bed in the morning.
In an effort to continue with its waste processing, the body tries to force CSF out of the brain while we are still
awake. However, this can have a momentary effect on our ability to concentrate, causing that “foggy” feeling in ou
r brains after a night of interrupted or poor sleep, a study has found.
Researchers gathered 26 volunteers and tested them twice: after a night of insufficient sleep in a laboratory an
d again after a night of sleep that left them feeling well-rested. Using an electroencephalogram (脑电图), they moni
tored several different measures of brain function as the participants performed tasks used to analyse the impact of
poor sleep and used functional magnetic resonance imaging (FMRI) to monitor the flow of CSF in and out of the br
ain.
Sleep-loss participants performed worse than well-rested participants as expected, the study found. Their respo
nse times were longer, and for some stimulants, the participants never registered the change at all. Laura Lewis, a re
searcher, said, “The results suggest that at the moment when attention fails, CSF is actually released from the brain.
And when attention recovers, it’s drawn back in.”
This is all part of the brain’s efforts to maintain cognitive (认知的) function despite the lack of sleep, said Zin
ong Yang, an author of the paper. “When your brain is in need of sleep, it tries its best to enter into a sleep-like stat
e to restore some cognitive functions.”
28. What is a contributor to brain fog
A. Massive pressure. B. Poor sleep. C. Insufficient nutrition. D. Mental disease.
29. What does paragraph 3 mainly focus on
A. The process of the study. B. The selection of the participants.
C. The technology applied in the study. D. The challenges facing the researchers.
30. What is a finding of the study
A. Attention levels lie in the speed of CSF flow.
B. It took well-rested participants longer to make a response.
C. Sleep-loss participants may fail to spot the change in stimulants.
D. Knowledge about the effects of CSF on brain function is far from enough.
31. What can be a suitable title for the text
A. The Secret to Our Brain B. Brain Fog — Brain’s Temporary Repair
C. The Harm of Sleep Loss D. CSF — The Guarantee for Cognitive Functions
D
The precise timing of Earth’s climate tipping points — moments at which human-caused climate change will l
ead to permanent planetary changes — has long been debated. But new evidence suggests they may be closer than
we think. A recent report warns that Earth has already crossed its first critical tipping point.
The study, conducted by the University of Exeter, identifies warm-water coral reefs as the first system to surpa
ss this threshold (阈值) of 1.5 °C. Plagued by a combination of rising ocean temperatures, acidification, overfishin
g, and pollution, corals are experiencing widespread diseases and mass death. A significant loss of these reefs is no
w inescapable unless global temperatures are capped at 1°C or lower.
“We’re in a new climate reality,” said Tim Lenton, the report’s lead author. He confirms that crossing this initi
al tipping point virtually guarantees exceeding the 1.5°C warming threshold, making the planet a “danger zone” for
more severe changes. The World Meteorological Organization predicts this critical threshold will be reached withi
n five years, leading to more intense extreme weather and shortages of food and water.
Beyond this immediate threat, scientists have identified up to 25 other major tipping points. These include the
Amazon rainforest’s potential transition from a carbon sink into a dried-up grassland, and the permanent melting of
polar ice. This darkening surface speeds up warming as dark ocean water absorbs far more heat than reflective ice.
Alarmingly, 80% of coral reefs have already been under severe heat stress. Their death would be disastrous, as
they sustain fisheries and protect coastlines. With one of the lowest temperature thresholds, corals are the first maj
or ecosystem to be compromised.
Coral reefs are not the only victim. The Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC), a crucial ocean
current system, is endangered by warming below 2°C. A collapse here would disturb global weather patterns and a
gricultural systems on a massive scale.
However, despite these serious risks, there is hope in “positive tipping points”, such as the rapid adoption of el
ectric vehicles and solar power. Lenton emphasizes that transformative solutions must be employed urgently to limi
t warming and avoid further shifts.
32. What does the underlined phrase “Plagued by” in paragraph 2 probably mean
A. Resulting in. B. Suffering from. C. Counting on. D. Accounting for.
33. What can be inferred from paragraph 3
A. Not all predictions are reliable.
B. Climate change is no longer a threat.
C. Tougher challenges may be unavoidable.
D. Global warming has been temporarily stopped.
34. Why is the Amazon rainforest mentioned in paragraph 4
A. To highlight forests’ capacity to recover naturally.
B. To compare its carbon absorption with polar ice’s.
C. To emphasize the necessity of protecting biodiversity.
D. To illustrate the severity of threats to major ecosystems.
35. What conclusion can be reached from the last two paragraphs
A. Risks and profits go hand in hand.
B. The collapse of AMOC is predictable.
C. Clean energy have addressed the climate crisis.
D. Immediate action is needed to turn things around.
第二节(共 5小题;每小题 2.5分,满分 12.5分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂
黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Studying abroad has become an increasingly popular choice for senior high school students who seek to explor
e the world beyond their hometowns. It offers unique experiences that can shape one’s personal and academic grow
th, but it also comes with challenges.
One of the main benefits is cultural engagement. 36 They have to communicate with people from different
cultural backgrounds on a daily basis to build meaningful connections, which helps improve their language skills ra
pidly. Moreover, exposure to diverse ways of thinking broadens their horizons and fosters cross-cultural understand
ing.
Another advantage is the access to high-quality education resources. Many foreign universities have advanced
facilities and renowned professors. 37 This not only enhances their academic performance and develops their cr
itical thinking abilities but also equips them with practical skills needed for future careers.
However, studying abroad is not without drawbacks. Emotional stress is common among international student
s who lack prior experience of living independently. Being far away from family and friends, students may feel lon
ely and homesick, especially in the initial stage. They have to handle daily chores on their own. 38
Financial pressure is another major concern. Studying abroad usually costs much more than studying locally, i
ncluding tuition fees, accommodation, and living expenses. 39 Additionally, adapting to a new education syste
m and academic requirements can be stressful. Students may struggle with different teaching methods and assessme
nt standards.
40 It requires careful consideration of one’s financial situation, adaptability, and academic goals before the
final commitment to study overseas is made.
A. Studying abroad is a significant decision.
B. This can be a heavy burden for many families.
C. Students can spread their international experience.
D. Language barriers may cause difficulties in daily life.
E. Living abroad forces students to step out of their comfort zone.
F. Students there can receive more personalized academic guidance.
G. It can be extremely challenging for those who are used to being taken care of.
第三部分语言运用(共两节,满分 30分)
第一节(共 15小题;每小题 1分,满分 15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C和 D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在
答题卡上将该项涂黑。
I used to pride myself on accepting changes and thrills in life. But as my 40s progressed, I found myself more
41 . I started to choose the safer option, always 42 before sending a work email, worried it didn’t sound “righ
t”. I felt anxiety and low moods 43 me more frequently. I desired to change that. So, when I received an email a
sking for volunteers, I 44 myself by responding positively. I was 45 to put myself in a position where I had t
o rely on making friends with other volunteers. Or I would have to spend six days there 46 .
However, what I feared turned out to be 47 . As soon as I arrived, people 48 me. As we all camped toge
ther, it was effortless to make 49 . I even did things I’d normally 50 doing on my own with the encourageme
nt of the new friends.
With the journey progressing, I felt a sense of freedom took the place of intense 51 .
Since then, I’ve treated my work as a career coach 52 . My daily mindset has changed, too. I send emails w
ithout being so nervous, and have renewed 53 in everything I do.
54 this journey, I truly grasp that genuine growth comes from stepping out of our comfort zone. Now, I fac
e challenges with 55 , considering every moment to be a chance to become a better version of myself.
41. A. adventurous B. cautious C. committed D. expressive
42. A. relaxing B. departing C. hesitating D. exercising
43. A. escape B. prove C. cure D. consume
44. A. excused B. entertained C. pushed D. alarmed
45. A. prepared B. surprised C. ashamed D. discouraged
46. A. fine B. alone C. secretly D. safely
47. A. unnecessary B. irresponsible C. practical D. important
48. A. skipped B. judged C. tolerated D. greeted
49. A. differences B. choices C. bonds D. payments
50. A. consider B. avoid C. risk D. miss
51. A. self-improvement B. self-sufficiency C. self-doubt D. self-discipline
52. A. confidently B. awkwardly C. impatiently D. conventionally
53. A. precision B. knowledge C. interest D. courage
54. A. Waiting for B. Reflecting on C. Looking forward to D. Taking charge of
55. A. satisfaction B. flexibility C. care D. resolve
第二节(共 10小题;每小题 1.5分,满分 15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式,并将答案填写在答题卡上。
China has identified urban renewal as a key part of the draft outline of the 15th Five-Year Plan (2026-2030) an
d is ready to launch an ambitious new urban development agenda. The draft outline, recently 56 (submit) to the
fourth session of the 14th National People’s Congress for review, emphasizes shifting urban policy from outward
57 (expand) to intensive inward development, encouraging compact, efficient and eco-friendly redevelopment ins
tead of unchecked spatial growth.
China’s first-tier cities, including Beijing, Shanghai, Guangzhou and Shenzhen, have long been core to its urba
nization. 58 large number of residential and commercial properties built between the late 1980s and early 2000s
are no longer sufficient 59 (meet) modern social, environmental and technological demands in the face of popu
lation shifts.
Aimed at revitalizing aging districts, stabilizing the housing market and promoting affordable housing reform
s, urban renewal will be a 60 (center) driver of China’s economic development over the next five years. It will li
nk the renovation of old neighborhoods, replacement of outdated infrastructure and improvement of inefficient land
use, thus 61 (create) strong redevelopment demand at all levels. These efforts will also boost employment in co
nstruction, renovation and related industries, breathing new life 62 the domestic economy.
At present, pilot programs, including Shanghai’s neighborhood-level “micro-renewal”, Guangzhou’s district-l
evel regeneration, and Beijing’s old-city preservation, 63 (be) under way. Moreover, a strategy, 64 is intend
ed to enhance urban governance, has been introduced. It is in line with national goals of improving government res
ponsiveness, upgrading public services, 65 integrating digital systems, and will reshape China’s society and eco
nomy in the long run.
第四部分写作(共两节,满分 40分)
第一节(满分 15分)
假定你是李华,你的英国好友 James计划暑假来中国旅游,希望你推荐一个城市,请你给他回封邮
件,内容包括:
1.你的推荐;
2.你的理由。
注意:1.写作词数应为 80个左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear James,
_________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分 25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
It was a common weekday. Tom was hurrying to school on his bike, the cool morning wind blowing through h
is hair, when he spotted an old lady and a little girl standing beside a broken bicycle. Their faces were clouded by w
orry. It was exactly 7:30, and class would start in 20 minutes — he knew the bell would ring sharp at 7:50, and he r
eally didn’t want to be late for Mr Brown’s math class, which always started with a quick quiz. But the lady’s helpl
ess expression as she stared at the bike chain on the ground made him hit the brakes and stop without hesitation.
“Excuse me, madam. Do you need help ” Tom asked gently, getting off his bike and walking over. The lady n
odded eagerly, her eyes lighting up with a glimmer of hope as she stepped forward. “The chain suddenly came off
when I was riding, and I don’t know the first thing about fixing it,” she explained. “I’m supposed to take my grandd
aughter, Lily, to school, and I’m afraid she’ll be be late for her class.” Hearing those words, Tom put down his back
pack, opened it, and took out a small, worn tool kit from it, which he kept for emergency. With the basic bike repair
skills his father had taught him during their weekend trips, Tom knelt down to get to work carefully.
Tom’s fingers moved quickly but gently, adjusting the loose chain and tightening a loose screw (螺丝钉) that
had caused the problem. The lady stood by his side, talking softly about her granddaughter, Lily, who was in Grade
3 at Green Primary School and loved drawing colorful pictures of animals and flowers. Tom listened while workin
g, occasionally nodding.
Ten minutes later, the bike was fixed. The lady thanked Tom repeatedly and offered to pay, but Tom shook his
head and refused. “Just pass the kindness on,” he said, and then picked up his backpack and raced to his school, ma
naging to arrive just before the bell rang. He didn’t have time to think about the lady again until after school.
注意:1.续写词数应为 150个左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
When Tom finished school, he found Lily and her grandma waiting for him. ___________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
Tom refused the tool kit repeatedly, saying he just did what he should do. _____________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________

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