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2026年中考模拟训练 英语
题号 一 二 三 四 五 六 七 八 九 总分
得分
注意事项：1．本试卷分听力和笔试两部分。全卷共8页，满分120分，考试时间120分钟（含听力测试20分钟）。
2．答题前，学生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在本试卷相应的位置上。
3．答案全部在答题卡上完成，答在本试卷上无效。
4．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
听力部分（共20分）
一、情景反应（每小题1分，共5分）
本题共有五个小题，每小题你将听到一组对话。请从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图片中，选出与你所听到的信息相关联的一项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
( ) 1. A. B. C.
( ) 2. A. B. C.
( ) 3. A. B. C.
( ) 4. A. B. C.
( ) 5. A. B. C.
二、对话理解（每小题1分，共5分）
本题共有五个小题，每小题你将听到一组对话和一个问题。请从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出一个最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
( ) 6. A. On Monday. B. On Thursday. C. On Friday.
( ) 7. A. To a library. B. To a hospital. C. To a restaurant.
( ) 8. A. Baseball. B. Basketball. C. Volleyball.
( ) 9. A. He is an engineer. B. He is a tour guide. C. He is an English teacher.
( ) 10. A. She has a music lesson every day.
B. She wants to be a professional musician.
C. She loves music more than anything else.
三、语篇理解（每小题1分，共5分）
本题你将听到一个语篇，请根据所听内容和所提出的五个问题，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
( ) 11. What was Amy afraid to do
A. Join the art club.
B. Show her pictures to others.
C. Draw after school.
( ) 12. Where did Amy often draw alone
A. In her room.
B. In the art room.
C. In the classroom.
( ) 13. Why did Amy worry a lot
A. Because she lost her picture.
B. Because she had no time to draw.
C. Because she needed to take part in a competition.
( ) 14. What was Amy’s picture about
A. Her school life. B. Her family. C. Her pet.
( ) 15. What can we learn from the story
A. We should believe in ourselves.
B. Practice makes perfect.
C. Art is everywhere in life.
四、听力填空（每小题1分，共5分）
本题你将听到一个语篇，请根据所听内容，完成下面的句子，并将获取的信息写在答题卡相应的位置上。每空一词。
Tidy-Up Your Town Day
Time From 9:00 a.m. to 16. ________ p.m. next Saturday
Place Green Park
Details You need: ·17. ________ to keep your hands safe. ·Comfortable clothes and shoes. ·Water and some bread to help you stay 18. ________.
We’ll provide: ·Litter pickers. ·Bags: yellow for 19. ________, brown for paper, and black for other waste.
Goal Let’s make our town 20. ________!
笔试部分（共100分）
五、补全对话（每小题2分，共10分）
请根据下面的对话内容，在空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整，并将答案写在答题卡相应的位置上。
21. ________________________________________
22. ________________________________________
23. ________________________________________
24. ________________________________________
25. ________________________________________
六、完形填空（每小题1分，共8分）
请阅读下面语篇，根据其内容，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Every time I walked on the street, I saw people chatting happily around me. But I 26 catch any word they said because of my hearing loss (失去), which always made me feel lonely. For years, I had hoped to 27 with others freely, sharing stories and making friends like others. My life changed greatly 28 I got the chance to try a pair of high-tech AI smart glasses last year.
These amazing glasses could turn others’ voices into clear words on the screen at once. When I wore them for the first time, a stranger said “Hello” to me, and I read the word 29 . Tears of joy filled my eyes at once. It was such a(n) 30 moment that I would never forget it. The glasses also worked well with my smartphone. I could type my ideas and turn them into voice to talk with others easily.
Now I can communicate 31 any trouble. This smart invention helps many people in need and 32 their life easier. As a deaf person, I’m really lucky to live in a time with modern 33 . It lights up my life and makes the world warmer.
( ) 26. A. mustn’t B. couldn’t C. needn’t
( ) 27. A. hang out B. take off C. come up
( ) 28. A. unless B. though C. when
( ) 29. A. clearly B. badly C. carelessly
( ) 30. A. boring B. exciting C. natural
( ) 31. A. without B. with C. for
( ) 32. A. stops B. makes C. finds
( ) 33. A. technology B. information C. culture
七、阅读理解（本题共有五个语篇，每篇后有五个小题，34—57每小题2分，58小题4分，共52分）
(A)
请阅读下面语篇，根据每段内容，从方框内所给的选项中选出适当的小标题，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
In our school life, we have many interesting activities besides study. Among them, school clubs are popular with most students. They bring us joy, help us grow, and make our school life more meaningful.
A. The importance of school clubs B. The skills we gain from club activities C. The kinds of school clubs D. The unforgettable moments in club activities E. The friends we make in school clubs
34. ________
School clubs are very important in our student life. They allow us to explore our hobbies, learn new skills, and meet people with the same interests. Whether you love painting, dancing, or public speaking, there is always a club that fits you well.
35. ________
There are all kinds of clubs in school. Some are about art and culture, such as the drama club and the calligraphy (书法) club. Others focus on science and technology, like the robotics club and environmental protection club. If we have a special interest, we can join one or even start a new club ourselves.
36. ________
Joining a club helps us develop important skills. For example, the debate club (辩论社) improves our speaking and thinking abilities, while the volunteer club teaches us to be responsible and kind. These skills are useful not only in school but also in our future lives.
37. ________
Clubs are great places to make friends. When we work on a project or prepare for a competition together, we learn to trust and support each other. We can also share our joys and worries, which makes our school life more colorful and warm.
38. ________
Taking part in club activities can also make our school life more unforgettable. From performing a play on stage to winning a robot competition, these wonderful moments will become interesting stories we will talk about for years.
(B)
请阅读下面语篇，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
This year, several key terms (术语) stood out, showing China’s attention to innovation (创新), technology, and improving people’s lives.
Low-Altitude Economy (低空经济) The low-altitude economy is a new economic model centered on flight activities below 1,000 meters. It includes drone delivery (无人机配送), air taxis, and sightseeing tours. With government support, this industry is expected to grow quickly, providing services such as medical supply delivery and disaster rescue (营救).
Embodied Intelligence (具身智能) Embodied intelligence means giving AI systems physical bodies to interact with the real world. These are robots that can clean houses, help doctors in hospitals, or play games! Companies are developing human-like robots. In the future, they may care for the elderly, work in factories, or explore dangerous areas.
6G Technology Although 5G is still new, China is already researching 6G. This next-generation network will be faster and more reliable (可靠的), supporting self-driving cars and smart cities. It can also connect faraway places better.
Silver Economy (银发经济) As China’s population ages, the “silver economy” provides services for older people. It includes health care, travel, and products for the elderly. The government encourages businesses to help seniors live independently and happily.
( ) 39. What kind of flight activities does the low-altitude economy focus on
A. Below 1,000 meters. B. Above 1,000 meters. C. At 1,000 meters.
( ) 40. What can the smart robots mentioned in the text do
A. Make planes and cars. B. Help doctors in hospitals. C. Create new key terms.
( ) 41. What can we know about 6G technology from the text
A. It has replaced 5G completely. B. It is slower than 5G. C. China is researching it now.
( ) 42. Who does the “Silver Economy” mainly serve for
A. Little children. B. Young students. C. Older adults.
( ) 43. What is the main purpose of the text
A. To explain some new technologies.
B. To introduce several key terms in China.
C. To talk about services for the elderly.
(C)
请阅读下面语篇，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Have you ever dreamed of traveling at 600 kilometers per hour Liang Jianying, China’s top train scientist, has made this dream come true.
Liang was born into a railway worker’s family. In 1995, she became a train designer. In 2006, when she was 34, she led her team to design China’s first high-speed train. It could run 300 to 350 km per hour. Her team worked hard and solved many hard technical problems. The train was successfully made in December 2007.
In 2008, Liang led her team to work on the CRH380A train. They did thousands of tests. In December 2010, this train set a world record of 486.1 km per hour on the Beijing-Shanghai High-Speed Railway. When making the “Fuxing” train, her team did over 3,000 tests to make it quieter.
In January 2024, Liang received the “National Excellent Engineer” award, China’s highest honor for engineers. In May 2025, she was named a “National Moral Model”. In January 2026, she appeared on CCTV’s program, Role Models 10.
Liang also helps young engineers grow. She has guided more than 100 engineers to become excellent. She has won many important awards for her great work. Her story tells us that with hard work, we can make our dreams come true and help our country become better.
( ) 44. What is Liang Jianying
A. A teacher. B. A boss. C. A scientist.
( ) 45. When did Liang Jianying become a train designer
A. In 1995. B. In 2006. C. In 2007.
( ) 46. What did Liang’s team do to make the “Fuxing” train quieter
A. They studied abroad.
B. They did over 3,000 tests.
C. They designed a new type of track.
( ) 47. What does the underlined word “honor” in Paragraph 4 mean
A. A kind of test.
B. A difficult problem.
C. Great praise or reward.
( ) 48. In which part of a magazine can we probably read this text
A. Music. B. Sport. C. People.
(D)
请阅读下面语篇，根据其内容，从方框内所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有一项为多余项。
Knowing how to give a speech is an important skill. Whether for a class presentation or a debate (辩论), learning to be more comfortable with public speaking will help you build confidence. Here’s how to get started.
Research your topic. Borrow books from the library according to your topic, talk to people who have knowledge about your subject, and information. 49. ________ Numbers help to make a speech easy to remember.
Write your speech. After researching, you can start writing your speech. Writing a speech is different from writing an essay (文章) because people aren’t going to read what you write. They’re going to listen to what you have to say. 50. ________ It’s important to keep it short and conversational. People usually remember one or two main points from a speech.
51. ________ At first, you may read your speech without looking up from your paper. As you practice, try to remember the main points. This will help you speak more naturally.
Practice before others. 52. ________ This helps you with making eye contact, speaking slowly, and pronouncing words clearly. When you’re done, ask their advice on how to improve.
Manage your nerves. 53. ________ Remember: Listeners usually don’t notice when a mistake is made. If you make one, take a breath and keep going.
A. Begin practicing on your own. B. It’s normal to feel nervous before speaking in public. C. Write down interesting facts, especially ones with numbers. D. Read it out to make sure it sounds natural and easy to follow. E. Ask your teacher for help if you don’t know how to make a speech. F. It’s time to practice your speech in front of friends or family members.
(E)
请阅读下面语篇，根据其内容回答问题，并将答案写在答题卡相应的位置上。
In ancient times, there was a great route that connected the East and the West. It was the Silk Road. It first appeared in the Western Han Dynasty (202 BC-8 AD), when Zhang Qian was sent on missions (使命) to the Western Regions (138 BC and 119 BC), which opened the door for this famous trade and cultural route. For centuries, it has played an important role in connecting different civilizations (文明) and promoting (促进) exchanges between countries. It was not just a single path but a valuable link that brought people from different parts of the world closer.
Key Information Details
Origin It started in the Western Han Dynasty, opened by Zhang Qian’s missions to the Western Regions.
Name Named by the German geographer Ferdinand von Richtofen in 1877, because Chinese silk was its most famous product.
Routes A network of land and sea routes, connecting China to Central Asia, West Asia, Europe and even Africa.
World Heritage Listed as a World Heritage Site in 2014 under the name “Silk Roads: the Routes Network of Chang’an-Tianshan Corridor”, together with Kazakhstan and Kyrgyzstan.
The Silk Road was far more than a simple trade route. It carried not only goods but also cultures, technologies and ideas. Chinese silk, porcelain (瓷器) and papermaking technology spread to the West, while Western spices, jewels and fruit were brought to China. Merchants, travelers and diplomats (外交官) exchanged their languages, religions and customs along the way, building a bridge of friendship.
Today, the Silk Road’s spirit of peace, cooperation and mutual (相互的) learning still lives on. It reminds us that different civilizations can coexist (共存) and develop together, making great contributions to human history and the world’s progress. This spirit also encourages us to learn from each other and work hard for a better world.
54. When did the Silk Road first appear
____________________________________________________________________________________________
55. Who helped open the Silk Road
____________________________________________________________________________________________
56. What types of routes made up the Silk Road
____________________________________________________________________________________________
57. What did the Silk Road carry besides goods
____________________________________________________________________________________________
58. As a middle student, what do you think of the Silk Road Why do you think so
____________________________________________________________________________________________
八、词语运用（本题共有两个语篇，A篇有五个小题，B篇有十个小题，每小题1分，共15分）
(A)
请阅读下面语篇，根据其内容，将适当的单词填入空白处，并将答案写在答题卡相应的位置上。每空一词。
Once, a young man took a long train trip. As time went by, he got bored. He took out his travel map and counted all the stops. He was surprised to find there 59. _______ over 60 small stations. Every time the train stopped, he would run to the steward (乘务员) and ask, “Why does it take so long How far is the next station ” The steward, an old man 60. _______ white hair, invited him to his office. The young man said impatiently, “There are so many stops. It’s boring. I just want to get to my destination (目的地) quickly.” The steward smiled and said, “I have been working on this 61. ________ for over many years. However, I never pay attention to those small stations. I only remember where I set off 62. ________ where my journey ends. In between, I just focus on doing my job.” The young man thought quietly and realized: Life is the 63. ________ as the journey. Even though we have many stops along the way, we don’t need to worry about each one. We just need to enjoy the ride and keep moving forward.
(B)
请阅读下面语篇，根据其内容，从方框内选出适当的单词，将其正确形式填入空白处，并将答案写在答题卡相应的位置上。方框内有两个词为多余项。
music young lend month buy praise hold he win they free perform
At the beginning of the year, Lily’s grandpa gave her and her cousins a box of coins as a special gift. Grandpa decided 64. ________ a money-management competition for the children. He said to 65. ________, “At the end of the year, tell me how you used your coins. The one who uses them in the most meaningful way will be the 66. ________.”
Tom, the 67. ________ boy of all the cousins, paid little attention to the competition. He spent all his coins on sweets. Lucy and Mike followed Tom’s example and started spending their coins 68. ________, too.
Lily, however, had no coins left when the year ended. A few 69. ________ earlier, she met a violinist. Lily loved music and dreamt to be a 70. ________. She loved his playing so much that she offered him all her coins to learn to play the violin. Touched by her passion(热情), the violinist agreed to teach her for free. Lily practiced the violin hard every day. Her progress 71. ________ by the violinist. Later, he lent Lily a violin so she could practice at home. They often played music together in a restaurant, and many people enjoyed their 72. ________. With the money she earned from playing, Lily finally 73. ________ her own violin.
Grandpa smiled proudly and said, “Lily is the winner. She didn’t just save or waste her coins. She used them to follow her dream, and that is the most valuable thing.”
九、书面表达（共15分）
请将短文写在答题卡相应的位置上。
“感恩的心，感谢有你，伴我一生，让我有勇气做我自己。”这首歌使我明白我们需要拥有一颗感恩的心。我们要感谢父母一路走来的支持，我们要感谢朋友一路陪伴我们走过风风雨雨，我们要感谢老师的谆谆教诲……某英文期刊正举办以“Be Thankful”为题的征文比赛。请你用英语写一篇短文投稿。
内容提示：1．Who do you want to thank most and why
2．Tell a story about a time when he or she helped you.
3．What do you want to say to him or her
要求：1．词数不少于80；
2．文中不得出现真实的人名、校名。
Be Thankful
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
2026年中考模拟训练·英语
参考答案
听力材料
一、情景反应
本题共有五个小题，每小题你将听到一组对话。请从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图片中，选出与你所听到的信息相关联的一项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
1. W: Why didn’t you go to school yesterday
M: I had a bad fever and had to rest at home.
2. W: Why do you like the panda so much
M: Because they’re cute and they are the national treasure of our country.
3. M: What time will the meeting start
W: At a quarter past nine.
4. W: What subject do you like best
M: I like math best. I think it’s interesting and useful.
5. M: I can’t find your sister. Where is she
W: She is reading a book in her room.
二、对话理解
本题共有五个小题，每小题你将听到一组对话和一个问题。请从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
6. W: When can we have dinner together
M: Well, I’m free on Thursday. Let’s make it that day.
Q: When may the speakers have dinner together
7. W: Bruce, you don’t look well. Let me take you to see a doctor.
M: Thank you, Mom.
Q: Where will the woman take Bruce
8. W: Michael, which sport do you like, baseball or basketball
M: Neither. I like volleyball.
Q: Which sport does Michael like
9. W: What did you do before becoming an engineer, Steven
M: First I was a tour guide, and then an English teacher.
Q: What does Steven do now
10. M: You always listen to music and sing wherever you go.
W: Well, music is my favorite.
Q: What does the girl mean
三、语篇理解
本题你将听到一个语篇，请根据所听内容和所提出的五个问题，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Hello, everyone. I’d like to share a story about my little sister, Amy.
Last term, Amy joined the school art club. She loved drawing, but she was very shy. She was afraid to show her pictures to others. She often drew alone in her room after school.
One day, their teacher told them there would be a class drawing competition. Everyone needed to show their work. Amy worried a lot. She didn’t want to take part in it.
I noticed her feeling and talked with her. I told her that drawing was for fun, not just for winning. I also said her pictures were warm and beautiful.
With my encouragement, Amy decided to have a try. She drew a picture of our family. In the picture, we were laughing happily together.
To her surprise, many students liked her picture. She even got a special prize for “the warmest picture”. From this experience, Amy learned that she should believe in herself. Being brave can make us see what we’re truly able to do.
四、听力填空
本题你将听到一个语篇，请根据所听内容，完成下面的句子，并将获取的信息写在答题卡相应的位置上。每空一词。
Hey everyone! It’s Tidy-Up Your Town Day next Saturday! We need your help to make our town clean and beautiful. It is a one-day-long clean-up, from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
Meet us at 9 a.m. at the gate of Green Park. The Grade 8 and 9 students from Southland School will clean Green Park, but we need more helpers. Ask your friends and neighbors to join, too! It’s fun to work together.
Here’s what you need:
Gloves to keep your hands safe.
Comfortable clothes and shoes.
Water and some bread to help you stay energetic.
We’ll give you litter pickers and bags at 9 a.m. This year there are three kinds of bags: yellow for plastic, brown for paper, and black for other waste.
After the clean-up, there’s a party in Green Park with drinks and cakes. Let’s make our town shine!
本次听力考试已结束。
试题答案
一、情景反应（每小题1分，共5分）
1—5 ABBCA
二、对话理解（每小题1分，共5分）
6—10 BBCAC
三、语篇理解（每小题1分，共5分）
11—15 BACBA
四、听力填空（每小题1分，共5分）
16. 5:00 17. Gloves 18. energetic 19. plastic 20. shine
五、补全对话（每小题2分，共10分）
21. What do you plan to do today / What’s your plan for today / …
22. Yes. / Yes, I’d like to. / Sure. / Of course. / …
23. Maybe we’d better take the bus there. / Maybe it’s better to take the bus there. / …
24. Good idea! / …
25. See you! / …
评分说明：若与以上答案不一致，但内容合理，表达正确，可得2分；内容合理，表达有误，以5个小题为单位，语法错误累计两处扣1分，单词拼写、大小写、标点错误累计三处扣1分；内容不符合上下文，扣2分。
六、完形填空（每小题1分，共8分）
26—30 BACAB 31—33 ABA
七、阅读理解（34—57每小题2分，58小题4分，共52分）
34—38 ACBED 39—43 ABCCB 44—48 CABCC 49—53 CDAFB
54. It first appeared in the Western Han Dynasty.
55. Zhang Qian helped open it.
56. A network of land and sea routes.
57. It also carried cultures, technologies and ideas.
58. I think it is great and important. Because it connected different civilizations, promoted trade and cultural exchanges, and its spirit still influences us today. / …
评分说明：
①在答案符合题意的前提下，以5个小题为单位，语法错误累计两处扣1分；单词拼写（包括大小写）错误累计三处扣1分；
②第58题言之有理且表述无误即可得分；
③与以上答案不一致，但符合题意，且表达正确，均可酌情给分。
八、词语运用（每小题1分，共15分）
59. were 60. with 61. train 62. and 63. same
64. to hold 65. them 66. winner 67. youngest 68. freely
69. months 70. musician 71. was praised 72. performance 73. bought
评分说明：凡是与以上各小题答案不一致的,均不得分。
九、书面表达（共15分）
One Possible Version:
Be Thankful
Among all the people in my life, I want to thank my English teacher, Miss Wang, the most. She is not only a knowledgeable teacher but also a warm-hearted friend to me. Whenever I face difficulties, she is always there to listen and guide me with patience.
I still remember the day when I failed my English exam last term. I felt so upset that I almost wanted to give up. Miss Wang noticed my sadness and asked me to stay after class. Instead of blaming me, she helped me find out my mistakes and encouraged me to keep trying. She said, “Failure is the mother of success.” From that day on, she spent extra time helping me with my English every week. Thanks to her, I finally made great progress and fell in love with English.
Miss Wang, thank you for your patience and kindness. You not only taught me knowledge but also gave me confidence. I will always remember your help and try my best to be a person like you.
评分说明：本题总分为15分，根据内容要点，按所写篇章的语法结构和词汇运用的数量，篇章的准确性、连贯性及得体性，分五个档次给分。评分时，先确定所属档次，然后根据该档次的要求来衡量和确定最终得分；词数少于80的，从总分中扣去1分；书写较差，以致影响理解的，扣去1分。
第五档（13—15分）
涵盖了所有内容要求,运用了较多的语法结构和词汇,有少量错误（1个句子结构、时态、语态等或1—2个名词复数、第三人称单数、拼写、标点符号、大小写等），但是是因为使用了较复杂的表达方式；有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑，内容充实，体现了活跃的思维和清晰的逻辑，具备了较强的语言运用能力，完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（10—12分）
涵盖了所有内容要求，运用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务要求，有一些错误（2个句子结构、时态、语态等或3—4个名词复数、第三人称单数、拼写、标点符号、大小写等），但不影响对所写内容的理解；运用了简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯、完整，表达清楚，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档（7—9分）
漏掉了主要内容要求，运用的语法结构和词汇基本能满足任务要求，有一些错误（3个句子结构、时态、语态等或5—6个名词复数、第三人称单数、拼写、标点符号、大小写等），但不影响对所写内容的理解；运用了简单的语句间的连接成分，内容连贯，信息得到了较为清楚的传达。
第二档（4—6分）
漏掉了主要内容要求，语法结构简单，词汇贫乏，有较多的错误（4个句子结构、时态、语态等或7—8个名词复数、第三人称单数、拼写、标点符号、大小写等），影响了对所写内容的理解；缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯，信息未能清楚地传达。
第一档（0—3分）
明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，有大量的错误（5个以上句子结构、时态，语态等或9个以上名词复数、第三人称单数、拼写、标点符号、大小写等），所写内容无法理解，信息未能传达。

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