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舟山市五校联盟2025学年第二学期高二年级期中调研英语学科试题卷
考生须知：
1.本试题卷共11页，满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前，在答题卷指定区域填写班级、姓名、考场号、座位号及准考证号。
3.所有答案必须写在答题卷上，写在试卷上无效。
4.考试结束后，只需上交答题卷。
第一部分：听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1．Which place do the speakers give up visiting
A．Nanjing Museum. B．Xuanwu Lake Park. C．Hongshan Forest Zoo.
2．Which of the following about America impresses the man most
A．The people. B．The scenery. C．The modern buildings.
3．What are the speakers talking about
A．A city. B．A travel plan. C．A picnic.
4．What is the man probably
A．A tour guide. B．A photographer. C．A shop owner.
5．What does the woman imply about the travel package
A．The advertised price is misleading.
B．The itinerary is too rushed.
C．The hotel ratings are inaccurate.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答以6-7小题。
6．What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A．A couple. B．Neighbors. C．Colleagues.
7．When did Mr. Thompson arrive home today
A．At 6:30 p.m. B．At 6:15 p.m. C．At 5:45 p.m.
听下面一段对话，回答8-10小题。
8．What does the man think of the sleep tracker
A．It is amazing. B．It is useless. C．It is unscientific.
9．What was the woman’s average sleep efficiency last night
A．70%. B．85%. C．90%.
10．What does the man suggest the woman do
A．Ignore the statistics. B．Stop using the tracker. C．Just check sleep patterns.
听下面一段对话，回答11-13小题。
11．What is the matter with the woman
A．She was injured while walking. B．She took the wrong medicine. C．She has got a fever.
12．What does the man do to keep healthy
A．He takes exercise every day. B．He works in a health club. C．He walks to work.
13．According to the man, what is the most important to the woman
A．Joining a health club at once. B．Keeping on doing exercise. C．Having a good rest.
听下面一段独白，回答14-17小题。
14．Who is the speaker talking to
A．Parents. B．Scientists. C．Students.
15．What percentage of people are likely to be short-sighted by 2050
A．25%. B．40%. C．50%.
16．What is the key factor in nearsightedness according to some scientists
A．Gene. B．Lifestyle. C．Wrong glasses.
17．What will the speaker talk about next
A．How to conduct a survey.
B．How to prevent nearsightedness.
C．How to find out nearsightedness early.
听下面一段短文，回答18-20小题。
18．How is the Harvard Study of Adult Development done
A．By studying happy students at young ages.
B．By researching people from young to old.
C．By interviewing 724 adults one by one.
19．Which best describes those who are healthier and happier
A．Dynamic. B．Emotional. C．Sociable.
20．What message does the speech aim to convey
A．Health is the most important of all.
B．People with good habits enjoy long life.
C．A sense of community leads to a good life.
第二部分：阅读理解(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
The City of Burlington public art program is presenting a series of temporary public art signs at the Beachway in conjunction with the Ontario Culture Days. This project will select 10 visual artists and 10 writers to create artwork that will be displayed on temporary signs along the multi-use path. This call is open to Burlington-based artists and is open to all art forms that can be presented in a sign format. This includes, but is not limited to: visual art, graphic art, photography, poetry, short story, non-fiction, etc. Submissions may be from existing or newly created work.
The artist fee for this project is $400. The City of Burlington will pay for all costs related to the production, installation (安装) and maintenance of the signs.Estimated Project Timeline
August 2 Call for Artists responses due
By August 12 Successful artists selected; enter into a contract with the City of Burlington
September 6 Final artwork files due
September 23 — October 13 Artwork displayed for duration of Culture Days celebration
Application Package
Artwork Statement: Please provide a brief statement (maximum 150 words) outlining your artwork concept.
Artwork or Writing Submission:
Visual Art Submission: Please submit an artwork sketch (草图) of your concept. This can be a work in progress rather than a completed piece. If you are proposing to use a completed artwork, please submit it as your “sketch”.
Writing Submission: Submissions must be a maximum of 250 words. It may be a stand-alone piece such as a poem or short story or a part taken from a larger piece.
Artist Biography: Please provide a short introduction (maximum 50 words) to the artist written in the third person.
21．What is the purpose of this text
A．To raise money for local artists. B．To release a collection of artwork.
C．To introduce a cultural festival. D．To call for artworks for a project.
22．How long will the public art signs be on display
A．Ten days. B．Three weeks. C．One month. D．Two months.
23．Which of the following meets the application requirements
A．A 150-word poem. B．A 100-word self-introduction.
C．A 300-word story. D．A 200-word artwork statement.
B
As the saying goes, timing is everything — and that may be true when it comes to eating as much as anything else in life. If you want to feel and function at your best, the timing of your food choices could play a vital role.
Nutrient sequencing isn’t a new concept. This approach is literally about the order in which you eat foods to minimize blood sugar increases and enhance fullness. It’s a very actionable approach and it’s not restrictive. It’s not telling you what to eat. It’s just focused on the order in which you eat foods.
A study in a 2022 issue of the journal Nutrients found that when people with type 2 diabetes (糖尿病) adopted a habit of eating vegetables before carbohydrates (碳水化合物), as recommended by dietitians, they had a significant improvement in their blood sugar control, specifically their hemoglobin (血红蛋白) A1C levels after five years. Another study in a 2024 issue of BMC Nutrition found older adults with diabetes who made a habit of eating vegetables first had greater functionality — meaning a greater ease in their intellectual activities and social abilities.
By eating vegetables and fruits first, you’ll slow down how quickly you eat because these foods require chewing. This is helpful because “it takes about 15 to 20 minutes for your brain to notice you’ve had enough,” Ayoob says, adding that this way, you’ll fill up on lower-calorie foods and “won’t have as much desire for the other calories we tend to overeat”. It can also help fill you up faster because they have much water content, besides fiber.
“Nutrient sequencing is beneficial because it keeps you thinking about what you’re eating and gets you into the mindset of self-monitoring. The hands-on experience may sound tough but it’s not.” says Lawrence Cheskin, an expert on food studies.
24．What is the focus of nutrient sequencing
A．To balance different nutrients. B．To choose eating time wisely.
C．To control blood sugar levels. D．To follow the order of food intake.
25．What can we learn about type 2 diabetes patients in the 2022 study
A．Their A1C levels rose. B．They needed to go on a diet.
C．Their social abilities improved. D．Their conditions got better after treatment.
26．What is the purpose of paragraph 4
A．It gives tips on chewing habits. B．It reveals training ways to select foods.
C．It analyses advantages of low-calorie foods. D．It tells working principles of a healthy eating.
27．What will be discussed about nutrient sequencing in the following paragraphs
A．Its practice. B．Its function. C．Its definition. D．Its complexity.
C
Medical emergencies can happen anywhere, at any time. Having basic first aid knowledge that everyone must have can be the difference between life and death when seconds count. Understanding fundamental emergency response techniques empowers you to provide immediate care while waiting for professional medical help to arrive.
The ability to quickly assess an emergency is the foundation of effective first aid response. Look for signs of severe bleeding, difficulty breathing, unconsciousness (失去知觉), or chest pain, as these symptoms often indicate conditions that require immediate intervention. Training yourself to remain calm under pressure while quickly evaluating the severity of injuries ensures you can provide appropriate care without causing additional harm.
Uncontrolled bleeding represents one of the most common life- threatening emergencies you may encounter.Immediately apply direct pressure to the wound using a clean cloth or bandages to stop most of the bleeding.Elevating the injured area above heart level, when possible, reduces blood flow to the wound and helps control bleeding. Airway obstruction and respiratory block require immediate action to prevent fatal outcomes. The Heimlich maneuver (海姆利克急救法) can remove objects blocking the airway in conscious choking victims when performed correctly. Checking for visible obstructions and performing rescue breathing on unconscious individuals may be necessary.
Developing confidence in emergencies requires practice and preparation. Consider taking certified first aid courses to provide hands-on training. Acquiring some basic first aid knowledge that everyone must have transforms ordinary citizens into potential lifesavers. The skills discussed here represent fundamental techniques that can stabilize victims until advanced medical care becomes available. Remember that your willingness to act,combined with proper training, can be the difference in someone's survival and recovery.
28．What is the significance of first aid knowledge
A．It can lead to life-threatening danger. B．It can equip you with professional skills.
C．It can take the place of medical treatment. D．It can prevent situations from getting worse.
29．Which measure can help control bleeding
A．Keeping the injured area lower than the heart level.
B．Using the Heimlich maneuver on the bleeding victim.
C．Applying direct pressure to the wound with a clean cloth.
D．Ignoring the wound and waiting for professional help directly.
30．What does the underlined word “stabilize” in the last paragraph mean
A．Cure. B．Injure. C．Interrupt. D．Steady.
31．What is the main idea of this passage
A．Some basic first-aid knowledge. B．Some on-line first aid courses.
C．How to acquire first-aid knowledge. D．How to assess medical emergency
D
A new study shows that excessive (过度的) screen time in children is linked to a higher risk of depression, anxiety and ADHD．Traditionally, youth mental health problems were seen as something difficult to change. However, the study reframes the youth mental health crisis as a largely preventable behavioral issue, linking excessive screen use to a sharp rise in psychological disorders.
Drawing on data from more than 50,000 children aged 6 to 17, the research found that spending four or more hours a day on screens is associated with significantly higher rates of mental health issues. Heavy screen users face a 61% higher risk of depression, 45% for anxiety, 24% for behaviour problems, and 21% for ADHD．
Crucially, the study identifies why this relationship exists. Reduced physical activity and disrupted sleep are the main mediating factors that link screen time to mental health problems. Physical activity alone accounts for up to 39% of the link, while irregular bedtimes contribute nearly 24%, and short sleep duration just over 7%.
“What’s most important is that we now know the main determinants of mental health issues in children,” says Dr. Hannah Nearney, a clinical psychiatrist. “The chances can be significantly reduced with adjustments in behaviors such as physical activity.”
The problem is that these unhealthy habits are already common. Nearly one in three children exceeds healthy screen-time limits. Only one in five meets the recommended 60 minutes of daily physical activity, and just one in four maintains a consistent sleep routine.
Clinicians warn that the crisis extends beyond behavioral risks. Children face limited treatment alternatives and frequently use antidepressants (抗抑郁药物) despite safety concerns. Although non-drug technologies such as tDCS are gaining scientific support, pediatric (儿童专家) agreement remains out of reach.
The study’s implications are clear: correcting children’s day-to-day routines and behaviour in relation to screen use, movement, and sleep need to be brought back to dinner-table conversations.
32．What does the underlined word “reframes” probably mean in paragraph 1
A．Selects. B．Redefines. C．Recycles. D．Assumes.
33．How does the author present the issue in the second paragraph
A．By listing causes. B．By using numbers. C．By quoting experts. D．By making comparison.
34．What can we learn from the relationship between physical activity and screen time
A．More screen use improves high sleep quality. B．More screen time leads to more extra exercise.
C．More exercise makes screen time more meaningful. D．More physical activity contributes to a healthy lifestyle.
35．What does the study suggest as a solution to the crisis
A．Using more antidepressants for children. B．Waiting for pediatric agreement of tDCS.
C．Increasing screen time to ease mental pressure. D．Changing children’s daily routines and behaviors.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Mental resilience (韧性) has become a vital skill in today’s fast-paced world. 36 Research indicates that individuals with high resilience levels are 35 % more likely to maintain mental health during long-term stress. Let’s explore scientific ally proven methods to strengthen this ability.
The Main Idea Explained
Resilience is not about reducing stress but managing it effectively. Emerging neurobiological evidence sheds light on this positively adaptive process. 37 Neuroscientists (神经学家) compare it to muscle training: facing proper challenged regularly improved mental ability to adjust. For instance, A 2023 Harvard study showed that proper stress increased brain thickness in areas related to making decisions.
Physical Activity as a Foundation
Exercise is universally recognized as a key resilience-building tool. During aerobic workouts, the body producers BDNF (脑源性神经营养因子), a protein important for brain development. 38 Meanwhile, this chemical process not only improved mood but also strengthens mental abilities. To maximize benefits, experts suggest combining 30 minutes of daily exercise with relaxation methods such as deep breathing.
The Power of Social Bonds
Human beings succeed through meaningful connections. Strong social networks act as psychological safety nets during c rises. 39 A Stanford University study over many years found that people with strong social support recovered 50 % faster from emotional difficulties than those who were isolated. Surprisingly, online communication through video calls was 80 % as effective as face-to-face meetings in recent tests.
Methods to Change Negative Thoughts
How we view difficulties shapes our mental resilience. Psychologists suggest changing extreme negative ideas like “I can’t handle this” into positive views such as “This is hard but possible.” 2022 study found that daily gratitude practice lowers stress hormones by 25 % in three weeks. 40
A．Therefore, building strong connections should be a key goal.
B．Creative activities like painting unexpectedly better stress tolerance.
C．Workplace culture significantly impacts employees’ stress management.
D．This natural process helps maintain stable emotions and enhanced clear thinking.
E．Moreover, actively noticing small daily successes helps develop positive thinking.
F．This psychological training strengthens the brain’s ability to handle future challengers.
G．It refers to the ability to recover from difficulties while keeping basic operations running.
第三部分：语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节：完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Coming from Villa Tesei, one of the neighborhoods in the greater urban region of Buenos Aires, Argentina, muralist (壁画家) Fio Silva adds fantastic effects of brilliant colors and movements to the walls that she touches. Much of her inspiration comes from 41 .
As Silva explains, “I think the idea that 42 me the most is that of movement and strength. I like painting animals, especially birds, in a creative way. I 43 to make something that attracts 44 not only for its colors or size. It is also something that can ‘be 45 ’, and tells you something.”
Silva says that she 46 her job almost by chance. “I began painting murals because a friend 47 me some spray cans (喷漆罐) for my birthday. And with that, I went to paint on the street for the first time, totally out of 48 . People in my neighborhood 49 gave up their walls to let me paint and there I fell in love with painting in the 50 space.”
Silva is particularly careful with the 51 that she chooses to include in an artwork, as certain colors will 52 what she wants to express, producing a power that can 53 the viewers from the city surroundings into the natural world 54 by her.
Beautiful art that brightens cities is the public good, and it’s 55 to see artists passionately believing in this idea and actively working to make it a reality.
41．A．science B．nature C．fashion D．life
42．A．moves B．worries C．frightens D．inspires
43．A．attempt B．offer C．demand D．continue
44．A．talent B．respect C．attention D．wealth
45．A．read B．bought C．found D．measured
46．A．talked about B．took up C．applied for D．held down
47．A．lent B．passed C．sold D．gave
48．A．necessity B．duty C．curiosity D．satisfaction
49．A．warmly B．hopelessly C．officially D．tiredly
50．A．narrow B．green C．public D．digital
51．A．plants B．lines C．animals D．colors
52．A．predict B．strengthen C．challenge D．prevent
53．A．transport B．change C．make D．translate
54．A．visited B．remembered C．created D．recommended
55．A．surprising B．exciting C．discouraging D．disappointing
第二节：语法填空(10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
If you’re wondering why Taylor Swift didn’t respond to your social media post offering congratulations on her engagement, then Cambridge Dictionary has a word for you: parasocial. 56 (define) as involving or relating to a connection that someone feels between themselves and a famous person they do not know, parasocial has been chosen by the dictionary as 57 (it) word of the year, as people turn 58 chatbots and celebrities to feel connection in their online lives. The term first 59 (emerge) in 1956 when University of Chicago sociologists observed TV viewers engaging in parasocial relationships with onscreen personalities, mirroring their bonds with family and 60 (friend) — except this was a one-way attachment. Opportunities for asymmetrical (不对称) relationships 61 (mushroom) in the internet era over the past few years, with social media and now artificial intelligence 62 (take) a niche (小众的) academic term into the mainstream. “Parasocial captures the 2025zeitgeist (时代精神),” said Colin McIntosh, a Cambridge Dictionary editor. Millions of people are engaged in parasocial relationships; many more are 63 (simple) interested in their rise. Simone Schnall, professor of 64 (experiment) social psychology at the University of Cambridge, said parasocial relationships have redefined fandom, celebrity and how ordinary people interact online with AI. People have relied on influencers as trust in mainstream and traditional media breaks down, 65 can lead to unhealthy and intense relationships with social media stars.
第四部分：写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节：应用文(满分15分)
66．假定你是校英语社社长李华，原定于下周举行的英语演讲比赛因故推迟，请给担任评委的外教Mr. Smith写一封邮件，内容包括：
1. 表示歉意；2. 推迟原因及后续调整。
注意：1. 写作词数应为80个左右；2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Mr Smith,
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Best wishes,
Li Hua
第二节：读后续写(满分25分)
67．阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Half a year ago, fat and lazy, I was in low spirits. During a free and easy gathering, as I struggled to button my over-sized T-shirt, my friends made fun of me, their sharp remarks about my “jiggling belly” and “elephant-like posture” cutting through the air like knives, though they said it was harmless joking. My face burned hotter than the sun as their imitations (模仿) of my walk drew attention from strangers, turning what should have been a joyful reunion into an embarrassment (尴尬) that is still fresh in my memory.
Looking at the figure in the mirror, I realized myself out of shape, no wonder they were making fun of me! “I have to lose weight and keep fit,” I promised to myself, “no matter what.”
Act on it! The next morning, I equipped myself with sports clothes and went out into the park, starting running. Yet everything was quite different from what I had imagined. Half an hour seemed so long and the path seemed endless. In a short while, I was out of breath, sweat down my face, legs aching. I stopped to take a breath, full of doubts on my decision.
I was at the point of giving up when my neighbor, Jean, came into view, who was walking her dog in the park. “Hi, Adam. Are you free recently ” “Yes, a bit.” I answered. “Would you mind walking Amy, my little Pomeranian, every morning for one week when I am out on business ” “Walking a dog is a good workout, much easier than running.” I thought to myself. “My pleasure” was my reply.
注意：
第1页 共4页
第1页 共4页 第2页 共4页
1.续写词数应为150个左右；
2.请按照如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
However, the first morning of my walking duties was bitter cold.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
The seven-day duty turned me into a morning workout person.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
参考答案
第一部分：听力(共两节，满分30分)
题号 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
答案 A C B B A A C A B C
题号 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
答案 C A B A C B B B C C
第二部分：阅读理解(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
题号 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
答案 D B A D D D A D C D
题号 31 32 33 34 35
答案 A B B D D
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
36-40 GFDAE
第三部分：语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节：完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
题号 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
答案 B D A C A B D C A C
题号 51 52 53 54 55
答案 D B A C B
第二节：语法填空(10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
Defined 57．its 58．to 59．emerged 60．friends
61．have mushroomed 62．taking 63．simply 64．experimental 65．which
第四部分：写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节：应用文(满分15分)
略
第二节：读后续写(满分25分)
略
答案第1页，共2页

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