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2025—2026学年度下期高二第一次考试高二英语试卷
（满分150分，考试时间120分钟）
第Ⅰ卷（选择题）
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段录音。每段录音后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1.
When will the two speakers leave
A. At 7:00. B. At 7:30. C. At 8:00.
2.
Why does the man come to the park
A. To do exercise. B. To clean the park. C. To do voluntary work.
3.
What’s the most possible relationship between the speakers
A. Co-workers. B. Boss and secretary. C. Teacher and student.
4.
How will the speakers go to the museum
A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. By subway.
5.
What are the speakers mainly discussing
A. A website. B. A new restaurant. C. A weekend plan.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题都有5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白播放两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
6. What’s wrong with the woman
A. She has a headache. B. She has a toothache. C. She has a stomachache.
7. What does the man suggest the woman do
A. See a doctor soon. B. Take a good rest. C. Quit the part-time job.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
8. What’s the man’s dissatisfaction about the new job
A. The low salary. B. The long-distance travel. C. Long working hours.
9. What is the priority consideration for the man
A. Career advancement. B. The job security. C. The work-life balance.
10. What will the man probably do next
A. Look for a new job. B. Visit the office first. C. Ask for more advice.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
11. What does Mike mainly use the app for
A. Hosting live streams. B. Watching funny movies. C. Keeping up with a biologist.
12. What does Steven’s recent project focus on
A. Protecting urban birds. B. Observing rare birds. C. Planting trees in parks.
13. Why does the woman want to contact Steven
A. To learn photography from him.
B. To donate money for his project.
C. To help with his conservation work.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
14. Why did the woman start learning the piano
A. For work. B. For relaxing. C. For socializing.
15. How does the woman learn to play the piano
A. By learning from a tutor. B. By studying independently. C. By attending a music school.
16. What does the woman find difficult
A. Performing on the stage. B. Memorizing music theory. C. Playing with hands skillfully.
17. What does the woman think of joining the music club
A. It’ll boost her popularity. B. It’s unfit for beginners. C. It’ll enhance self-confidence.
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。
18. Why does the speaker give this talk
A. To attract more volunteers. B. To celebrate an anniversary. C. To raise funds for a charity.
19. Who helped the speaker get connected with the Project
A. A social worker. B. His teacher. C. A neighbor.
20. What will Elena Wright talk about
A. The best volunteers. B. The types of voluntary service. C. The establishment of the Project.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
School Clubs Introduction
Our school offers a number of after-school clubs for students. Here is some basic information.
Art Club
Time: Every Tuesday afternoon
Activities: Drawing, painting, design
Teacher: Miss Green
You can show your works in the school art show every term.
Music Club
Time: Every Thursday afternoon
Activities: Singing, playing the piano and guitar
Teacher: Mr. Brown
We hold a small concert every month.
Sports Club
Time: Every Friday afternoon
Activities: Basketball, running, yoga
Teacher: Mr. Smith
It helps you keep healthy and make more friends.
If you are interested, you can sign up online on the school website.
21. When can you join the Art Club
A. Every Monday. B. Every Tuesday. C. Every Thursday. D. Every Friday.
22. What can you do in the Music Club
A. Draw pictures. B. Play basketball. C. Play the guitar. D. Do yoga.
23. Which club helps students keep healthy
A. Art Club. B. Music Club. C. Sports Club. D. Reading Club.
B
When you go to the US, someone often says to you, “Give me five.” What should you do Do not get five dollars from your pocket! It will make others laugh! The person is not asking for your money, but your fingers.
In the US, “give me five” or “give me the high five” is a popular gesture(手势). You can see it often in films or on TV. It means hitting each other’s right hands together.
People do it when they meet for the first time or something happy happens. For example, a student gets good grades in exams. If a football team wins a game, the players will give high fives to everyone around to celebrate.
This gesture may come from the old Roman gesture of raising the right arm for the emperor. This showed the person raising his arm did not have a sword(剑)in his hand.
Why not try to give the high five to your friends
24. What does the underlined word “It” in Paragraph 1 refer to
A. Raising your hand up. B. Getting five dollars from your pocket.
C. Asking others for money. D. Winning a football game.
25. What do you need to make the gesture “give me five”
A. Your ears. B. Your eyes. C. Your legs. D. Your hands.
26. People use the gesture “give me five” when they’ re ________
A. happy B. sad C. anxious D. angry
27. The gesture “give me five” may start in ________ according to the passage.
A. the USA B. the UK C. old Rome D. China
C
I was blind, but I was ashamed of it if it was known. I refused to use a white stick and hated asking for help. After all, I was a teenage girl, and I couldn’t bear people to look at me and think I was not like them. I must have been a terrible danger on the ing across me wandering through the traffic, motorists probably would have to step rapidly on their brakes. Apart from that, there were all sorts of disasters that used to occur on the way to and from work.
One evening, I got off the bus about halfway home where I had to change buses, and as usual I ran into something. “I’m awfully sorry, ” I said and stepped forward only to run into it again. When it happened a third time, I realized I had been apologizing to a lamppost. This was just one of the stupid things that constantly happened to me. So I carried on and found the bus stop, which was a request stop, where the bus wouldn’t stop unless passengers wanted to get on or off. No one else was there and I had to try to guess if the bus had arrived.
Generally in this situation, because I hated showing I was blind by asking for help, I tried to guess at the sound. Sometimes I would stop a big lorry and stand there feeling stupid as it drew away. In the end, I usually managed to swallow my pride and ask someone at the stop for help.
But on this particular evening no one joined me at the stop; it seemed that everyone had suddenly decided not to travel by bus. Of course I heard plenty of buses pass, or I thought I did. But because I had given up stopping them for fear of making a fool of myself, I let them all go by. I stood there alone for half an hour without stopping one. Then I gave up. I decided to walk on to the next stop.
28. The girl refused to ask for help because she thought ________ .
A. she might be recognized B. asking for help looked silly
C. she was normal and independent D. being found blind was embarrassing
29. After the girl got off the bus that evening, she ________.
A. began to run B. hit a person as usual
C. hit a lamppost by accident D. was caught by something
30. At the request stop that evening, the girl ________.
A. stopped a big lorry B. stopped the wrong bus
C. made no attempt to stop the bus D. was not noticed by other people
31. What was the problem with guessing at the sound to stop a bus
A. Other vehicles also stopped there.
B. It was unreliable for making judgments.
C. More lorries than buses responded to the girl.
D. It took too much time for the girl to catch the bus.
D
Scientists report they have discovered water in materials collected during a Chinese moon mission. The water is in extremely small glass beads (珠子) that were found in the dirt where many meteorites (陨石) have hit the moon. The dirt was collected in 2020. Hejiu Hui of Nanjing University took part in the study, which was published recently in Nature Geoscience.
Hui said the beads differ in size from the width of one hair to several hairs. The amount of water inside was extremely small. Since billions even trillions of these beads exist on the moon, there could be a large amount of water. But mining it would be difficult, the research team said. “Yes, it will require lots and lots of glass beads,” Hui said in an email. “On the other hand, there are lots and lots of beads on the moon.”
The findings are based on 32 glass beads randomly chosen from moon dirt collected on China’s Chang’e 5 moon mission. More will be studied, Hui said. The beads are everywhere, which is the result of the cooling of melted material sent out by incoming space rocks. “This shows water can be refilled on the moon’s surface... a new water reservoir on the moon,” Hui said.
The study’s findings raise the possibility that water could be removed by heating the beads in future robotic missions. Still, more studies would be needed to show whether such water removals are possible or if the water would be safe to drink. Earlier studies found water in glass beads formed by volcanic activity on the moon. Those studies used material collected on the moon by American astronauts more than fifty years ago.
The American space agency NASA plans to put astronauts back on the moon’s surface by the end of 2025. The astronauts will aim for the south pole, where craters (坑) are believed to be filled with frozen water.
32. Why did the scientists believe that there could be a large amount of water on the moon
A. The beads are big in size.
B. Billions even trillions of the glass beads exist on the moon.
C. A reservoir has been found.
D. Meteorites hit the moon hard.
33. What made the glass beads on the moon according to the Chinese research team
A. Robots from the earth. B. Volcanic activities.
C. American astronauts’ activities. D. Fallen meteorites.
34. What can we infer from the passage
A. Researchers are expecting to find water on the moon.
B. There is no way to remove water from the glass beads.
C. The job of water removal can only rely on robots.
D. Frozen water exists on the south pole of the moon.
35. Why does the author write this passage
A. To instruct us how water can be mined on the moon.
B. To demonstrate how water is formed on the moon.
C. To introduce the new discovery of water on the moon.
D. To prove the glass beads on the moon contain water.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Today，there are thousands of national parks all over the world.___36___ In that year，the United States government gave a large piece of land to the state of California.They ask the state to create a special park to protect the mountains and forest in the area.The trees in this area are called sequoias.___37___ They are the tallest living things in the world and are not found anywhere else on Earth.
Conservationists in other countries saw what happened in California and soon began to do the same.Today Europe has over 350 national parks.The first one in France，Vanoise National Park，was created in 1963 because the government wanted to stop a plan to build a large tourist project there.The idea of creating a national park was first discussed in the 1940s，but people couldn’t agree on what size to make the park.___38___ Ecologists worked with the government to finally agree on a plan that protected the animals，while still allowing some tourism.
___39___Like the first California park，the Bavarian Forest National Park was created to protect mountains and trees.It is the largest area of protected forest in Europe.The park has shelters where visitors can spend a night close to nature.In some places high up in the mountains，there are steps cut into the rock.___40___ Thousands of tourists go to the park each year.They walk through the attractive woods and enjoy the wonderful mountain views.
A. This makes it easier for tourists to get to the top.
B. The world’s first national park was started in 1864.
C. The biggest ones are over one hundred meters high.
D. The first national park in Germany opened in 1970.
E. The Giant Forest in Sequoia National Park is alive with mystery and wonder.
F. They also had different ideas on whether to put human or animal needs first.
G. The human feel very fortunate to be able to get so close to these beautiful national parks.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Last Sunday, my class went to visit the Yuan Longping Memorial Hall. We all knew Mr. Yuan was a great scientist who helped solve the food problem for many people. Our teacher told us to take notebooks to ____41____ important things we learned.
When we arrived, a guide greeted us warmly. She took us to the first hall and showed us photos of Mr. Yuan. We saw him working in the fields — he always wore a simple hat and ____42____ clothes. The guide told us Mr. Yuan spent most of his life ____43____ hybrid rice. Even in his 80s, he still went to the fields every day to check the crops. Sometimes he would stay in the fields the whole ____44____ to watch how the rice grew.
In another room, there were some of Mr. Yuan’s old things: a broken notebook, a used pen, and a pair of muddy shoes. The notebook was full of his ____45____ about rice research. I felt moved when I looked at these things — they showed how hard Mr. Yuan worked. A classmate of mine even took a photo of the notebook to ____46____ it.
Then, we watched a short video. It told the story of how Mr. Yuan ____47____ hybrid rice. At first, many people thought it was impossible. But Mr. Yuan never gave up. After years of hard work, he finally ____48____. His rice could feed millions more people. The video made many of us ____49____ — we were all proud of him.
Before we left, we wrote down our feelings on a wall. I wrote, “Mr. Yuan, you are our hero. We will learn from your ____50____ and keep working hard.” On the way back to school, my classmates and I talked a lot. We all agreed that this visit was very ____51____. We learned not only about Mr. Yuan’s achievements but also about his spirit of ____52____.
I think everyone should remember Mr. Yuan. His work has changed the world for the better, and his story will ____53____ us to try our best for a long time. This trip made me understand that true success comes from hard work and ____54____ to one’s dream. I decided to study harder so that I can ____55____ something useful for our country too.
41. A. write down B. look for C. throw away D. give up
42. A. clean B. expensive C. simple D. beautiful
43. A. studying B. selling C. eating D. buying
44. A. night B. day C. week D. month
45. A. drawings B. notes C. stories D. poems
46. A. forget B. hide C. remember D. lose
47. A. found B. lost C. forgot D. hid
48. A. failed B. succeeded C. stopped D. left
49. A. cry B. smile C. shout D. laugh
50. A. laziness B. kindness C. hardness D. courage
51. A. boring B. useless C. meaningful D. difficult
52. A. giving up B. keeping on C. showing off D. turning back
53. A. encourage B. stop C. warn D. frighten
54. A. gift B. hope C. devotion D. doubt
55. A. make B. do C. have D. get
第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
When Lin Qiaozhi was five, her mother died, ____56____affected her deeply. At age 18, she chose to study medicine. Eight years later, Lin graduated from Peking Union Medical College (PUMC) with the Wenhai Scholarship, the highest prize ____57____(give) to graduates. She ____58____(immediate) became the first woman to work as a resident physician in the OB-GYN department of the PUMC Hospital. After several years, she ____59____(send) to study in Europe and then, in 1939, in the US. She left a good impression ____60____her American colleagues who invited her to stay. However, Lin rejected the offer and returned to China.
In 1941, Dr Lin became the first Chinese woman ____61____(appoint) director of the OB-GYN department of the PUMC Hospital. When the department was closed because of the war, she opened ____62____private clinic to continue to treat patients. She was even seen riding a donkey to faraway villages to provide medical care.
Although Lin Qiaozhi held many important positions in politics, she was ____63____(interested) in tending patients, publishing medical research ____64____training new staff in her department. Dr Lin never married and she kept working until her death in 1983. She left her _____65_____(saving) to a kindergarten and a fund for new doctors.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
66. 假定你是李华，是学生会主席，为迎接校园文化节，你校将举办中外艺术作品展。请你写一则通知，内容包括：
1. 内容：中国书画，剪纸，西方绘画等；
2. 时间：4月11日—4月17日；
3. 地点：图书馆一楼展厅；
4. 要求：文明参观，勿触摸展品。
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节（满分25分）
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
There was a busy street corner beside a bus station. Pupils changed buses going to or from school there. This small area was anything but appealing: loud cars and buses passed by, and tall gray buildings looked like big stone giants.
Peter was one of the kids who had to wait here for nine and a half minutes each day to change buses. The station had a strong gas smell. The land nearby, maybe once a garden, was now full of trash — cans, paper bags, and chicken boxes. Weeds (草) grew wild all around them. There was nowhere nice to walk and nothing to look at. Hanging around like that each day almost drove Peter mad. Most kids wasted their time complaining (抱怨) about all the mess, but Peter felt restless. He knew he couldn’t do anything to change the bus company’s timetable and its bus routes but he could make these waiting minutes more enjoyable for himself and others.
He asked his mom for a pair of gloves and some trash bags. That week, he filled his nine minutes each day by picking up the waste. As he piled the waste into bags, “Why trouble yourself It’ll just get dirty again!” his classmates laughed at him, casually throwing used tissues, candy wrappers and cans around. Silent for a while, Peter continued picking up the waste his classmates dropped, thinking, “It seems like an impossible dream to change this deserted land. Should I give up just as my classmates said ”
One afternoon, an elderly man approached Peter. “I used to garden here years ago,” he said, handing Peter some sunflower seeds (种子). “Perhaps you can plant these. You know, sunflowers grow easily in hard environments.” Inspired by the elderly man, Peter saw hope again. The next week, Peter occupied himself weeding the field and soon this piece of land was cleared up.
注意：1.续写词数应为150个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Next, he took out the sunflower seeds offered by the elderly man.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
More kids began to help take care of the plants.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
【1题答案】
【答案】A
【2题答案】
【答案】C
【3题答案】
【答案】A
【4题答案】
【答案】B
【5题答案】
【答案】B
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题都有5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白播放两遍。
【6~7题答案】
【答案】6. B 7. A
【8~10题答案】
【答案】8. B 9. C 10. B
【11~13题答案】
【答案】11. C 12. A 13. C
【14~17题答案】
【答案】14. B 15. A 16. C 17. C
【18~20题答案】
【答案】18. B 19. A 20. C
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【21~23题答案】
【答案】21. B 22. C 23. C
B
【24~27题答案】
【答案】24. B 25. D 26. A 27. C
C
【28~31题答案】
【答案】28. D 29. C 30. C 31. B
D
【32~35题答案】
【答案】32. B 33. D 34. A 35. C
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. B 37. C 38. F 39. D 40. A
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
【41~55题答案】
【答案】41. A 42. C 43. A 44. B 45. B 46. C 47. A 48. B 49. A 50. D 51. C 52. B 53. A 54. C 55. B
第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
【56~65题答案】
【答案】56. which
57. given 58. immediately
59. was sent
60. on 61. to be appointed
62. a 63. more interested
64. and 65. savings
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
【66题答案】
【答案】
Notice
A Chinese and foreign art exhibition will be held to celebrate the Campus Culture Festival. The exhibition will be open from April 11 to April 17 in the exhibition hall on the first floor of the library. It will display traditional Chinese paintings, calligraphy, paper-cutting and Western paintings.
Please keep clean and do not touch any exhibits. We hope it will be a great chance to experience the beauty of art from different cultures.
The Students’ Union
April 10, 2026
第二节（满分25分）
【67题答案】
【答案】
Next, he took out the sunflower seeds offered by the elderly man. Peter knelt on the broken ground, loosened the soil, and carefully planted the seeds. His classmates laughed again, “Flowers can’t grow here.” But Peter watered the seeds every day. Days later, small green plants came up from the dry ground. Everyone was surprised and stopped laughing. When a hot wave hit, Peter skipped his lunch to cover the plants with cardboard. One day, a girl who used to litter brought water for the plants. Soon, other kids helped too, watering the young flowers while they waited for buses.
More kids began to help take care of the plants. Their laughter mixed with the sound of water cans. The sunflowers grew taller each day. At the end of summer, they were taller than the kids, with big yellow flowers facing the sun, as if waving at the buses and the kids around them. Butterflies flew among the flowers, and kids’ laughter filled the corner. They called the garden “Peter’s Patch”. The gas smell and traffic noise were still there, but the corner changed — it was now full of life, a place which the kids felt proud of, showing that even small changes can make a big difference.

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