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七年级英语期中考试题（2026.04）
本试卷共 8 页，满分为 150 分。考试用时 120 分钟。
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时，每小题选出答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用 0.5mm 黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上；写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.A. You’re right. B. She’s polite. C. That’s interesting.
2.A. Arrive on time. B. Talk quietly, please. C. Walk in the hallway.
3.A. Is that your baseball bat B. Does he like eagles C. Can you put on the seat belt
4.A. I can’t find my glasses. B. You mustn’t eat in class. C. He doesn’t like snakes.
5.A. How do penguins look B. What rules do we follow C. Whose gloves are these
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. What would the boy like to have
A. Fish soup. B. Dongpo pork. C. Pizza.
7. What colour is Mary’s notebook
A. Red. B. Black. C. Pink.
8. How often does Anne play tennis
A. Every day. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
9. What does the girl think of the monkeys
A. Playful. B. Friendly. C. Scary.
10. Where are the speakers now
A. In the library. B. In the restaurant. C. On the sports field.
第三节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11. What sport did Mike play on winter holiday
A. Football. B. Basketball. C. Badminton.
12. How does Mike feel about the sport
A. It’s easy for him. B. It makes him tired. C. It helps him grow taller.
13. What does Sarah like doing
A. Cooking. B. Exercising. C. Shopping.
14. What do they choose to eat for lunch
A. Dumplings. B. Hamburgers. C. Hot pot.
15. How will they go to the restaurant
A. By bus. B. On foot. C. By subway.
第四节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. When do they go to the Sunshine Animal Home
A. Every Monday morning. B. Every Saturday afternoon. C. Every Sunday evening.
17. How many animals are there at the Sunshine Animal Home
A. 15. B. 20. C. 35.
18. What does Yaming like to do best there
A. Clean the animal rooms. B. Give food to animals. C. Play with the animals.
19. Which of the rules does Yaming talk about
A. They can’t walk the dogs. B. They must talk quietly. C. They should bring some cat food.
20. How does Yaming feel about this activity
A. Wonderful. B. Surprised. C. Nervous.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50 分）
第一节 阅读理解（共 20 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 40 分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Look! This DIY mini-garden is very fun and cute. You can turn an old teacup into a beautiful garden with small plants! Add magic with small toys, balloons and so on. It’s a great way to use old things again.
21.Which is NOT in the “What you need” list
A. Small plants. B. Paper flowers. C. Colourful stones. D. A hot glue gun.
22.What is the first step to make a teacup garden
A. Wash the teacup carefully. B. Paint your teacup.
C. Water the plants in the teacup. D. Put soil in the teacup.
23.Why do you put stones first in the teacup
A. To feed the plants. B. To make it look beautiful.
C. To keep the cup clean. D. To help water go away easily.
24.What do we know from this text
A. You must use a new teacup. B. The plants don’t need any water.
C. This activity is for kids to have fun. D. You can only use one kind of stone.
25.Where is the text probably from
A. A newspaper B. A storybook C. A sports magazine D. A travel guide
B
In a forest lives a small squirrel named Zip. He has a fat tail and moves quickly, but he often feels sad. While his friends seem to have amazing skills, Zip believes he is “just so-so” because he is too small.
On a sunny morning, the forest animals get together for their yearly “Forest Olympics”. Zip sits quietly on a branch, watching the games. Zoom, the bear, is very strong. He can lift a huge rock. Fiona, the fox, is the fast runner. She runs through the grass like orange lightning. Oliver, the owl, is very clever, knowing everything of the forest.
“I wish I could be as strong as Zoom, or as fast as Fiona,” Zip thinks.
Suddenly, a gust of wind blows Zoom’s favourite hat onto a thin, high branch. Zoom tries to climb, but he is too heavy. Fiona tries to jump, but she cannot get the branch. Oliver tries to fly, but he cannot see well in the sun. All of them feel helpless.
“Let me try!” Zip cries. He is not strong or tall, but he is nimble. He jumps to the shaking branch easily. With his small hands, he catches the hat and runs down safely.
“Thank you, Zip! ▲ ,” Zoom gives Zip a warm hug. Zip dances happily. He finally sees that being small is not a bad thing. He learns that everyone is special and different, even the smallest animal can make a big difference.
26.How does Zip feel at the beginning of the story
A. Excited. B. Interested. C. Sad. D. Angry.
27.Who is smart from paragraph 2
A. Zip. B. Zoom. C. Fiona. D. Oliver.
28.Why do the animals feel helpless in paragraph 4
A. Because the game is over. B. Because they are too heavy.
C. Because they can’t get the hat. D. Because the wind is so strong.
29.Which is the best sentence for the blank ▲ in the last paragraph
A. Your body is your power. B. You run so slowly.
C. I can do it better than you. D. Being small is useless.
30.What does the story want to tell us
A. Never too old to learn. B. Small animals are the best.
C. Practice makes perfect. D. Everyone has their own skills.
C
In 2016, a video called China’s Van Goghs made Dafen village popular. It’s a small village in Shenzhen. From Van Gogh to Picasso, the village made almost 70% of the world’s art copies. No wonder people call it the “capital of copy paintings”.
But things are not easy for Dafen these years. Since 2018, its art sales have gone down. In 2020, sales even dropped by half. The village had to face a fact: It was time to change. So, the painters began to try new ways to make a living.
Instead of copying, many painters started to create their new works. Zhao Xiaoyong was one of them. Eight years ago, he started making his own art. And this year, he had his first show in Shenzhen. There were about 40 of his new works on the show.
Zhao is just one of many in the village. Dafen used to have over 1,800 workshops, but many of them have closed over the years. The rest no longer sell cheap copies. They now take high-class orders like painting people’s faces, or make their own arts.
Dafen are getting more and more popular among young people and visitors. Many workshops have become coffee shops or art stores. For only 50 yuan, visitors can try painting or even making their own clay works.
Dafen village is opening a new and exciting story. What will it become next Will it keep changing Or will it be forgotten Only time can tell.
31.What made Dafen village popular in 2016
A. A famous painter. B. A video about the village.
C. Many new art shops. D. The high prices of paintings.
32.What is the main idea of paragraph 2
A. Dafen had many new workshops. B. Dafen had problems and must change.
C. The art sales in Dafen became better. D. Painters in Dafen didn’t want to work.
33.Why did Zhao Xiaoyong start making his own art
A. Because his family didn’t help him.
B. Because copying paintings was very easy.
C. Because he had no free time to paint.
D. Because he wanted a new way to make a living.
34.What can visitors do in Dafen village according to the passage
① Make a painting. ② Drink coffee. ③ Make clay works. ④ Open an art store.
A. ①②③ B. ①②④ C. ②③④ D. ①③④
35.What can we learn about Dafen’s future
A. People will forget Dafen very soon.
B. Dafen will be the best place for visitors.
C. Dafen’s future is unknown but changing.
D. Artists there will only make copy paintings.
D
Afternoon Nap (午睡)
by Wang Anshi (Song Dynasty)
The sun at the eaves turns slowly to shade,
a fine wind blows across the bed.
Free and easy, the lingering noon dream—
from where, a golden oriole
The poem describes that Wang Anshi was woken up from his nap by a bird.
The afternoon nap is always important in China. Data from iiMedia Research Group shows 67.38% of the Chinese population often take an afternoon nap, 30.49% sometimes do and only 2.13% of people never do.
People of different ages and places have different napping habits. For the old, taking a nap after lunch is very common because many do not have to go to work, so they don’t worry about when to take a nap or for how long. On the other hand, taking a nap is encouraged in schools, but not mandatory. Students themselves can choose to take a nap or not. Some schools try to make it easier for students to take a nap. For example, they turn reading rooms or gyms into napping rooms. They even prepare folding beds or sleeping mats for students.
Some places in China have a stronger nap culture than others. According to a survey in 2022, more than 60% of people in Shanxi, Chongqing, Anhui and Guangdong take an afternoon nap. In other places, such as Zhejiang and Shanghai, the culture is not so strong.
This nap culture is also a big business. There are thousands of things made for napping online, such as special pillows for children and office workers, different kinds of folding beds and more.
In Traditional Chinese Medicine, it is believed that taking a nap can be good for health. Today, health is an important problem for many. Some choose to do sports while others change their lifestyles by eating healthier or going to bed earlier. This may be why more and more people are getting to know the value of an afternoon nap.
36.How does the writer start the passage
A. By telling a story. B. By making a list.
C. By asking a question. D. By using a poem.
37.What percent of people often nap according to iiMedia Research Group
A. 67.38%. B. 30.49%. C. 2.13%. D. 60%.
38.What does the underlined word “mandatory” mean in Chinese
A. 过时的 B. 流行的 C. 强制的 D. 平衡的
39.What do some schools do to help students take a nap according to the passage
A. Ask students to join clubs.
B. Prepare lots of beds and mats.
C. Give students less homework.
D. Play soft music while napping.
40.What can we learn from the passage
A. All schools let students nap for a long time.
B. Napping is a part of Chinese life and culture.
C. People in Zhejiang nap more than those in Shanxi.
D. The afternoon nap is only popular among old people.
第二节 阅读七选五（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Many people say dolphins are smart. They seem to be able to think, understand, and learn things quickly. But are they as smart as humans, or are they just like cats and dogs Dolphins use their brains quite differently from the way people do. But scientists say dolphins and humans are the same in some ways. 41
Dolphins can talk to each other.
Like humans, every dolphin has its own “name”. The name is a special whistle. Each dolphin chooses it before the age of one. Dolphins are like people in other ways, too. They talk about many things, such as their age, their feelings, and when there is danger. 42 It is not easy for humans to understand dolphin conversation. No one “speaks dolphin” yet, but some scientists are working hard to learn.
43
Dolphins live in groups. They often play games with other dolphins from different groups. Sometimes they play with seaweed and throw them back and forth. Scientists believe that playing together is something only clever animals can do.
Dolphins are good at teamwork.
Dolphins and humans are similar in another important way: 44 For example, in southern Brazil, dolphins use a smart way to get food. When there are fish near a boat, dolphins use body language to tell fishermen to put nets in the water. 45 Dolphins help them because they can eat some of the fish that run away from the nets.
A. Dolphins like to play together. B. Let’s learn something about them. C. They also use sounds and body language to talk. D. Most dolphins are small, less than 3 meters long. E. They both make plans to get the things they want. F. With dolphins’ help, fishermen can catch a lot of fish. G. Dolphins keep swimming slowly while they are sleeping.
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分 35 分）
第一节 补全对话（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
阅读下面对话，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
Waiter: Welcome to our restaurant. Here’s the menu. 46
Mum: I’d like Beijing roast duck. What about you, Lisa
Lisa: I’m not sure. What is the special today
Waiter: 47 It’s our must-try.
Lisa: Sounds good.
Waiter: Would you like something to drink
Lisa: Yes, a glass of orange juice. And you, Mum
Mum: 48 Tea goes well with meat.
Waiter: OK. Which would you like with your meal, rice or mantou
Lisa: Rice, please. Can I have ice-cream after dinner, Mum
Mum: 49 It’s too cold for you.
Lisa: Well, yogurt instead, please.
Waiter: OK. So Beijing roast duck, Gongbao chicken, orange juice, green tea, rice and yogurt.
Mum: That’s right.
Waiter: 50
Mum: Yes, we have Mapo tofu. It’s delicious.
Waiter: OK. I’ll get that. Wait a minute. Have a good meal!
46.A. What color is your dress B. Where do you live
C. What would you like to eat D. When do you arrive
47.A. You must park the car here. B. You can try Gongbao chicken.
C. You should be back by 8 p.m. D. You have to go to another hotel.
48.A. I want to buy a cake. B. I need eggs and beans.
C. I never eat chocolate. D. I’d like a cup of green tea.
49.A. You name it! B. I’m afraid not. C. You’re welcome. D. I don’t know.
50.A. Do you have anything with tofu B. Can we go home now
C. Must we take out the rubbish first D. Is there a park near here
第二节 完形填空（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
“Wake up!” Sam shouts when he shakes his sleeping father. Sam loves Father’s Day 51 he always spends the fun day with Dad. Last year, they went to a water park. The year before, they watched a football game.
“Alright,” Dad says. He gets out of his bed into the wheelchair. “Hurry, Dad,” Sam says. “Mum makes your favorite food—blueberry pancakes!” Dad 52 Sam down the hall and into the kitchen. Mum is putting yogurt on the pancakes.
“What 53 do we have today ” Mum asks. “Maybe we can go fishing,” Dad says. “Or we can watch the new superhero movie!” Sam shouts. They both love superhero stories. Just then, the phone rings.
Sam hears Dad say, “Right now I’ll be there soon.” Sam’s heart 54 . He knows Dad will say he has to work. Dad always gets work calls at bad times.
“I’m sorry, but I must go to work,” Dad tells Sam. “But it’s Father’s Day! We always stay together!” Sam says unhappily. “I know, son. But this work is very 55 ,” Dad replies.
Then Dad thinks up a good idea, “Why don’t you come 56 me ” “Really ” Sam says in surprise. “I’d love to!” He never sees Dad at work, and he really wants to 57 time with Dad.
Dad leads Sam past a door with “Workers Only” on it. Inside, there are nurses and a nervous zookeeper. All of them are happy to see Dad. A large black and white panda Yuanbao lies on the ground, looking 58 .
“This is my patient, Sam. I 59 the panda every day. She is going to have babies.” Dad says quietly. Then he gets to Yuanbao slowly. He gives 60 some medicine and touches the soft fur. After an hour, Dad holds two small pink panda babies. He cleans them, and 61 them warm formula. “Come here, Sam,” Dad calls. “Meet the zoo’s new cute babies.” Sam watches them through the window 62 . “This is the best Father’s Day ever!” he smiles. “You are my 63 , Dad!”
Sam feels so warm and happy. Spending the day with Dad at work is more 64 than going to a park or watching a movie. This Father’s Day gives him a perfect 65 . He will keep this great memory in his heart forever.
51.A. or B. because C. but D. before
52.A. looks B. walks C. follows D. turns
53.A. plans B. rules C. books D. food
54.A. flies B. opens C. rests D. falls
55.A. interesting B. important C. boring D. dangerous
56.A. out B. up C. In D. with
57.A. learn B. spend C. read D. show
58.A. relaxed B. excited C. amazed D. worried
59.A. belong to B. learn from C. look after D. pay for
60.A. her B. him C. you D. them
61.A. feeds B. lends C. leaves D. helps
62.A. healthily B. angrily C. heavily D. carefully
63.A. nurse B. zookeeper C. superhero D. cook
64.A. meaningful B. difficult C. usual D. awful
65.A. question B. gift C. match D. order
第三节 阅读填空（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Beverly Goines, a grandmother, is doing something truly amazing. She is helping the children in her neighbourhood learn how 66 (read) with great love.
“One day, some young boys came to 67 (I) door, hoping to read storybooks together. 68 , I find they can’t read very well.” Mrs Goines says. So she sets up 69 club to help the children learn to read happily.
Every day, lots of children come to her club to read books. She 70 (teach) them the pronunciation and helps them with difficult words. To make learning more fun, she also writes some books by herself for children 71 4 to 11 years old. One of her most popular books is The Quarterback from the River Bank. It tells a 72 (love) story about friendship between two little boys. All the children love it very much. To help children remember what they’ve read, she 73 (usual) adds some reading tips at the end of her books.
“Reading is the key to make their 74 (dream) come true,” Mrs Goines says. “Learning to read takes time, but every small step they take is a big win. I can always 75
(stay) right beside the children, cheering them on every step of the way.”
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 35 分）
第一节 情境运用（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76.A: ____________________________________
B: They are from China.
77.A: What do you have for breakfast, Steve
B: ____________________________________
78.A: Excuse me, sir. ____________________________________
B: I’m sorry. I didn’t notice the sign.
79.A: What does Chen Jie want to do to lose weight
B: ____________________________________
80.A: ____________________________________
B: It can do kung fu.
第二节 作文（满分 25 分）
为了引导中学生践行 “健康第一” 的成长理念，学校英语社团将举办以 “Health First” 为主题的演讲比赛。假定你是李华，请你结合自身实际，用英语写一篇演讲稿，分享你的运动和饮食习惯，并谈谈你对 “健康第一” 理念的理解。
注意：1.词数 100 左右，开头已给出，不计入总词数；
2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
3.不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。
Dear teachers and students,
I’m Li Hua. Today I’m very happy to share my ideas about Health First with you.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
答案
第一部分 听力（仅给出选项）
（注：听力题无录音，无法确定答案，以下为常见合理推测，仅供参考）
1—5ABCAB
6—10BABAC
11—15BCACB
16—20BCCBA
第二部分 阅读
第一节 阅读理解
21—25BADCA
26—30CDCAD
31—35BBDAC
36—40DACBB
第二节 阅读七选五
41—45BCAEF
第三部分 语言运用
第一节 补全对话
46—50CBDBA
第二节 完形填空
51—55BCADB 56—60DBDCA
61—65ADCAB
第三节 阅读填空
66.to read 67.my 68.However 69.a 70.teaches 71.from 72.lovely 73.usually 74.dreams 75.stay
第四部分 写作
第一节 情境运用
76.A: Where are the two tigers from
77.B: I have bread and milk.
78.A: You can't take photos here.
79.B: She wants to lose weight by skipping rope.
80.A: What can the robot do
第二节 作文（参考范文）
Dear teachers and students,
I’m Li Hua. Today I’m very happy to share my ideas about Health First with you.
As middle school students, we are often busy with our studies, but it’s important to remember that health is the foundation of everything. Without a healthy body, we can never learn well or enjoy life fully.
To keep healthy, I have developed good habits. I usually get up early and run for 20 minutes every morning. After school, I play basketball with my friends to relax and exercise. For meals, I eat lots of vegetables and fruit, and I never eat too much junk food. These small habits keep me energetic and strong.
“Health First”means we should put our health above everything else. When we are healthy, we have more energy to face challenges and chase our dreams. Let’s all take good care of ourselves and stay healthy!
Thank you!

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