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巴中市2026年中考适应性考试
英语试卷
（满分150分 120分钟完卷）
姓名：________ 座位号：□□ 准考证号：□□□□□□□□□
注意事项：
1．本试卷共10页，共四部分。
2．答题前务必将自己的姓名、座位号、准考证号分别填写在试卷和答题卡规定的位置。
3．本试卷选择题必须使用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，答非选择题时必须使用0.5毫米黑色墨迹签字笔，将答案书写在答题卡规定的位置，在规定的答题区域以外答题无效，在试题卷上答题无效。
4．考试结束后，考生将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What does Brian have to do this afternoon
A. Prepare dinner. B. Do weight training. C. Study for a test.
2. How often does David write to his English pen pal
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
3. What scared Eric just now
A. A wolf. B. A spider. C. A snake.
4. Where did Cindy go yesterday
A. To the amusement park.
B. To the space museum.
C. To the movie theater.
5. What does Frank say about Moon Cinema
A. It has good sound.
B. It has comfortable seats.
C. It’s far from home.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. How was the guidebook
A. It was useful. B. It was expensive. C. It was old.
7. Why did Paul and his family get lost in London probably
A. They took a stranger’s wrong advice.
B. They failed to read the map.
C. They lost their guidebook.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What does Greg say about the neighborhood
A. It’s small. B. It’s safe. C. It’s inconvenient.
9. How does Greg go to the sports center every day
A. By bus. B. On foot. C. By bike.
10. Why does Greg usually go to the supermarket on Center Road
A. It sells the cheapest vegetables.
B. It sells the freshest food.
C. It’s the closest to home.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What will the woman mail to George’s aunt next Monday
A. The invitation. B. The desk. C. The photos.
12. Where will the speakers go next Wednesday
A. To the hospital. B. To the supermarket. C. To the bank.
13. What does the woman want to do next Friday evening
A. Repair her bike.
B. Do some shopping.
C. Work on the project.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14. How far is Tim going to try walking a day during his holiday this year
A. About 6 kilometers. B. About 8 kilometers. C. About 16 kilometers
15. Where is Julie going for her holiday this year
A. To the beach. B. To the woods. C. To the mountains.
16. What did Ruby borrow from Julie
A. A hat. B. A tent. C. Shoes.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Where will the tourists make a stop along the way
A. Near a waterfall. B. Near a tower. C. Near a bridge.
18. When will the tourists get to Star Town
A. At about 11:10 a. m.
B. At about 11:30 a. m.
C. At about 11:50 a. m.
19. What does Frank say about the local restaurant for lunch
A. It serves the most delicious chicken.
B. It has the shortest waiting time.
C. It has the best service.
20. What made the town famous
A. The university. B. The museum. C. The park.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
A Fun UK Family Travel Show
Basic Information
Date: 21st-22nd March 2026
Location: Allianz Stadium, London (It’s easy to get there by bus, train or car.)
Scale: Over 15,000 visitors yearly
Opening Times
·Saturday 21st March 2026 10am-6pm
·Sunday 22nd March 2026 10am-5pm
Ticket & Age Rules
Age Requirements
·0-5 years old: Free
·6-15 years old: Child ticket
·16 years old and older: Adult ticket
·Special rule: You must be 8 or older to do the zip line.
Ticket Prices
·Children (6-15): 10
·Adults (16+): 20
·Family ticket (2 adults + 3 children): 55
Special Activity Fees (You must buy tickets early.)
·Zip line: 50
·Rugby Tour: 20
Free Activities
·Soft play
·Face painting
·Crazy golf
·Immersive VR
·Pickleball
·Dark Skies Dome
·Games and competitions
Travel & Services
·A short walk from Twickenham Station
·Bus routes 281, 267, 481, 490 and H22
·Free parking available
·Food, drinks, accessible toilets and baby-changing facilities provided.
Booking Website live.
21. What can we learn about the event
A. It is easy to reach. B. It is a one-day event.
C. It is only for children. D. It is held in central London.
22. Who can try the zip line
A. A 5-year-old boy. B. A 7-year-old girl.
C. An 8-year-old child. D. Any child with parents.
23. Which of the following can visitors do at the event
A. Take a bus tour. B. Visit a science lab.
C. Enjoy face painting. D. Watch a football match.
B
Sagarika Sriram was just 10 when she read newspaper stories about the planet in trouble. One story was about a whale that washed up on the beach after oil pollution and another was dolphins with plastic inside them. She knew she had to act, so she joined cleanup activities in Dubai. She said this experience taught her what people can do and what difference they can make.
In 2016, Sagarika created Kids for a Better World, an online platform (平台) that has brought nearly 10,000 young people worldwide to fight climate change. Now 16, she is part of a group of young environmental activists (倡导者). She believes even small actions can create a “ripple effect”, helping things move in the right direction and leading to bigger changes.
The platform is for children aged 8 to 16. It teaches them how to help at home and in their communities, such as by planting trees, growing food, recycling, and avoiding plastic. These are lessons Sagarika wants schools to teach, because they can help change our future.
Growing up in a desert city, she deeply understands the need for action. Her city faces challenges like rising temperatures and less water. She believes young people can bring public attention to these problems.
Although she values small daily actions, Sagarika has big plans. She plans to study at Stanford University and continue running her organization. She hopes to encourage others to fight for a greener planet, just as others once encouraged her.
24. What made Sagarika decide to join clean-up activities
A. Facing heat and less water. B. Learning ways to protect nature.
C. Believing small actions could matter. D. Reading stories about harmed animals.
25. What does the underlined phrase “ripple effect” in paragraph 2 mean
A. A task needing hard work. B. A problem spreading in nature.
C. A step causing bigger changes. D. An idea drawing many children.
26. What is the main idea of paragraph 3
A. Sagarika’s future plans. B. Simple green actions.
C. Green lessons for children. D. Serious climate problems.
27. Which of the following words can best describe Sagarika
A. Clever and patient. B. Creative and humorous.
C. Friendly and imaginative. D. Active and encouraging.
C
Habits are things we do again and again in daily life. Many of our habits begin when we are very young. As babies and children, we learn by watching people around us, especially our parents. For example, when a baby is put to bed with parents at the same time every night, the child slowly gets used to sleeping then.
Children can learn both good habits and bad habits from others. Some habits disappear as children grow older. For example, small children may put a finger in their mouth or pull their ears when they feel nervous. However, we usually do not see adults doing these things.
As people grow up, they start to understand social rules better. Adults know that some actions are not polite in public, so they try to control their behavior. Still, adults may show similar habits in different ways. Some people bite their fingers, play with their hair, or put a pen in their mouth when they feel worried or stressed.
Many adults try to build healthy habits to stay strong and live longer. These habits may include eating healthy food, doing exercise regularly, not smoking, and not drinking too much beer or wine. Once people repeat these actions, they slowly become part of daily life.
Teenagers may also develop new habits as they become more independent. Sometimes these habits are good, but sometimes they are not. If a bad habit appears, it may become harder to change later.
Whether we are children or adults, good habits can help us live better lives. By practicing healthy behaviors every day, we can build habits that make our lives happier and healthier.
28. How do habits usually begin according to Paragraph 1
A. By watching others. B. By getting help from parents.
C. By going to bed early. D. By doing the same thing daily.
29. What do the examples of children, teenagers and adults in the passage mainly show
A. Habits stay the same in life. B. Habits shape everyday behavior.
C. Habits connect with life stress. D. Habits change as people grow.
30. Why do some habits become difficult to change later in life
A. Early habits stay in life. B. Teenagers test new behavior.
C. Adults ignore social rules. D. Repeating makes habits stronger.
31. According to the passage, what helps people develop good habits
A. Following social rules better. B. Keeping healthy actions going.
C. Changing bad habits later on. D. Becoming more independent.
D
Scientists have found that some dogs can tell the difference between toys by what they do, not just by how they look. This is a skill that humans learn as children but has not been seen in dogs before. For example, young children can work out that both a hammer and a stone can be used to knock a shape into a hole, even though they don’t look the same.
In the study, the scientists wanted to see if dogs could tell the difference between toys used for pulling or throwing, even if they had not seen the toys before. They selected a group of dogs — mostly border collies (边境牧羊犬).
The scientists set up the experiments in the dogs’ homes. There were two kinds of toys: toys for pulling and toys for throwing, like balls. All the toys looked different. When the owners played with a toy, they told the dog “pull” or “throw”, so the dog knew what kind of toy it was. The dogs were tested on the names four weeks later.
Then the dogs got a new throw toy and a new pull toy to play with, but the owners didn’t say the words out loud. The owners then asked the dogs to bring back the “pull” or “throw” toy from a group of all of the toys and the clever dogs got it right most of the time. The experiment shows they can name a toy or thing in their minds by what it is used for.
The study’s lead author, Claudia Fugazza from E tv s Loránd University in Hungary, said, “We have shown that dogs learn the names of things really fast and they remember them for a long period, even without repeating them.” The next step in the research is to see whether the dogs can work out what things are used for, even if they haven’t learned what they’re for.
32. What new ability have scientists found in dogs
A. They can tell toys by looks. B. They can group toys by their use.
C. They can learn skills like humans. D. They can use unfamiliar toys well.
33. Why did the scientists use new toys in the experiment
A. To control test results. B. To check dogs’ choices.
C. To make playtime more fun. D. To help dogs learn names.
34. What did Claudia Fugazza say about dogs
A. They were talented word learners. B. They needed repeated practice.
C. They learned names through play. D. They forgot things quite soon.
35. What could be the best title of the passage
A. New Toys Test Clever Dogs B. Border Collies Do Better at Home
C. Why Dogs Learn Names So Fast D. Dogs and Their Surprising Toy Skills
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
The Truth Behind Lying
Most children learn honesty from fairy tales and other stories. Pinocchio (匹诺曹), a famous puppet, must tell the truth, or his nose grows longer. In the US, kids learn six-year-old George Washington bravely admitted cutting the cherry tree, winning his father’s praise. These stories tell children “honesty is the best policy”. 36
One reason people lie is to hide mistakes. It is true that everyone does something wrong from time to time. 37 For example, students may lie about unfinished homework, saying it’s left at home, just to avoid trouble and save face.
Another reason people lie is to get away from situations they don’t want or can’t deal with. For example, if a company has a weekend meeting, a manager may not want to go. She may call her boss and give an excuse. 38 People often do this when they don’t want to tell the truth and face the results.
However, people sometimes might tell a “white lie”. For example, if your good friend has an ugly haircut, you can say it’s special instead of “It looks terrible”. 39
People lie for many good and bad reasons. 40 But lying to avoid trouble may bring more trouble in the end. If we know why people want to lie, we may lie less.
A. People lie to avoid difficulties.
B. But people still lie for many reasons.
C. Lying to keep the peace can have positive results.
D. These lies are not bad and help keep good relationships.
E. However, people don’t have the courage to say they are wrong.
F. Lying can sometimes make people feel better about themselves.
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分45分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
My name is Rebeca and I’m 11. I’m from Brazil, but my family lives in a 41 area, and life isn’t easy. My parents work hard so my brother and I can go to school, and we help with the housework after school. But football has always been the 42 part of my life. It has 43 my life.
My dad wanted my brother to become a 44 football player, but he didn’t enjoy training. I loved football. When I played, I felt happy and forgot all my 45 . My mum said, “Football isn’t for 46 .” The boys at school didn’t want to play with me at first, but when they saw I was good, they 47 me to join their team.
One day, a teacher told me about a football team just for girls. They were 48 for a competition in March. I really wanted to 49 them, so I decided to take this chance 50 .
When I told my dad and brother, they were very happy. My mum still thought football was a boy’s 51 , but she said nothing more. My dad and brother 52 with me every day for six months. In February, the coach told us who would be in the team. When I heard my name, I jumped in the air and shouted with 53 .
In March, our team went to Rio de Janeiro and 54 the competition. Since then, I’ve made many new friends and become more 55 . When I grow up, I want to be a professional football player. I also want to learn English so I can travel and talk to people around the world.
41. A. busy B. poor C. modern D. beautiful
42. A. hardest B. brightest C. strangest D. safest
43. A. touched B. improved C. changed D. continued
44. A. patient B. professional C. polite D. careful
45. A. worries B. fears C. doubts D. questions
46. A. boys B. teachers C. students D. girls
47. A. warned B. pushed C. invited D. forced
48. A. training B. leaving C. calling D. searching
49. A. support B. join C. meet D. watch
50. A. hopefully B. openly C. luckily D. suddenly
51. A. activity B. choice C. lesson D. habit
52. A. played B. travelled C. practiced D. stayed
53. A. surprise B. pride C. wonder D. joy
54. A. entered B. won C. missed D. planned
55. A. active B. popular C. confident D. independent
第二节（共10小题；每小题2分，满分20分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
I once visited a kindergarten in Shanghai with some students. The school had a bilingual (双语的) program for children starting at the age of two. In many places, English 56 (see) as important for future education.
We watched a group of two-year-olds during “circle time”. They could answer simple questions in English about the days of the week and the months of the year, 57 this surprised us a lot. At that age, many children in other countries are not expected 58 (learn) written words so early.
Then we watched three-year-olds having 59 lesson on Humpty Dumpty. They read the words and answered questions about the story. After that, the teacher gave them several eggs and asked them to drop the eggs from the same 60 (high). All the eggs were wrapped except one, so the unwrapped egg broke when it hit the ground. The children laughed 61 they saw the result.
We also saw older children in class. They spoke English quite 62 (good) and followed the classroom rules carefully. Although playtime was also included in the daily schedule, some people might wonder 63 such early learning would put too much pressure on young children. However, the classrooms were cheerful and the children seemed to enjoy 64 . Watching these bilingual children made me think about children’s education in a 65 (difference) way.
第三节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容完成表格信息，每空一词。
When we shop at a supermarket, we often buy more than we need. This may not be our fault — supermarkets control the way we shop. Every detail is planned. The walkways, music, lights, and advertisements all encourage us to spend more money.
From the moment we enter, the design of a supermarket controls the way we experience the store. Usually, there is one entrance and one exit (出口). Fruits, vegetables, and bread are near the entrance. Fresh vegetables and the smell of bread make the store appear fresh and attractive. This makes us feel good and want to buy more.
In addition, we often walk through the whole store to find what we need. Milk and eggs are usually at the back. Popular products are in the middle. Expensive ones are at eye level for easy reach, while cheaper goods are on lower shelves, requiring us to bend down. The payment area is usually at the exit. In this way, we see more food and spend more.
Supermarkets use other means to influence shopping, too. Slow music makes people shop more slowly and spend more. In a study, shoppers spent 38% more when slow music was played instead of fast music. Most stores also have no clocks or windows, so we lose track of time and stay longer.
So how can we avoid buying too much First, make a shopping list and only buy what is on it. Second, shop less often — plan meals for several days and shop once or twice a week. Lastly, do not shop when you are hungry, because everything looks delicious then.
Aspects Details
66 design Fresh vegetables and the smell of bread make the store look fresh and attractive.
Product positions Cheaper goods are put on lower shelves, so shoppers have to 67 down to get them.
Shopping environment Without clocks or windows, shoppers may lose track of time and stay 68 .
Smart shopping tips Make a shopping 69 and buy only what you need. When people are hungry, everything looks 70 .
第四部分 写作（满分25分）
假设你是李华，请阅读这封来自笔友Paul的邮件，并根据信件内容给他回复。
Dear Li Hua, How’s it going Recently, I joined an after-school basketball club because I thought it would be exciting. At first, I was really interested in it and went to every practice. However, after a few weeks, I found it harder than I expected, and sometimes I even felt tired and bored. Do you think it is OK to stop an activity if you no longer enjoy it I’m really interested in hearing your opinion. Could you tell me what you think and give some reasons Looking forward to your reply. Yours, Paul
注意：
1．邮件中必须回应Paul的问题；
2．须表达你的观点，并至少给出两条理由；
3．词数100左右；
4．开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Paul,
I’m glad to hear from you. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
2026年中考模拟检测英语参考答案及评分意见
第一部分 听（共两节，满分30分）
听力（共20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5 BBCAA 6-10 CABAB 11-15 ABACA 16-20 BABCA
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2.5分，满分50分）
21-25 ACCDC 26-30 CDADD 31-35 BBBAD
第二节 补全短文（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
36-40 BEADC
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分45分）
第一节 完型填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
41-45 BBCBA 46-50 DCABA 51-55 ACDBC
第二节 短文填空（共10小题，每题2分，满分20分）
56. is seen 57. and 58. to learn 59. a 60. height 61. when/as
62. well 63. whether/if 64. themselves 65. different
评分原则
1．若每小题答案正确，给2分。
2．若每小题答案不正确，包括大小写、拼写和形式不对，均不给分。
第三节 阅读填空（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
66. Supermarket/Store 67. bend 68. longer 69. list 70. delicious
评分原则
1．若每小题答案正确，给2分。
2．若每小题答案不正确，包括大小写、拼写和形式不对，均不给分。
第四部分 书面表达（满分25分）
One possible version:
Dear Paul,
I’m glad to hear from you. In my opinion, it’s totally OK to stop the basketball club if you no longer enjoy it. Doing an activity without interest will only make you feel tired and it’s hard to stick to it for a long time.
There are two main reasons for this. First, interest is the best teacher. Without it, you can’t focus on practice and won’t make any progress. Second, spending time on something you dislike will take up your energy, and it may even have a bad influence on your daily study.
If you quit, you can use the free time to do what you really like. It’s important to choose activities that make you happy and relaxed. After all, the meaning of after-school activities is to make our life more colorful.
Yours,
Li Hua
评分原则
1．本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3．词数少于100，从总分中减去2分。
4．评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。
5．拼写与标点符号是准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视为其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6．如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次给分范围和要求
档次（分数） 评分标准
第五档（21-25分） 很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点，结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用了较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，语法和词汇错误极少，格式正确，书写规范。
第四档（16-20分） 较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有内容要点，结构较为完整，语句完整，意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少，格式基本正确，书写较为规范。
第三档（11-15分） 基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点，结构欠完整，少数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多，格式基本正确，书写基本规范。
第二档（6-10分） 未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点，结构不完整，多数语句欠完整，意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多，影响理解，格式不够正确，书写欠规范。
第一档（0-5分） 未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点，结构不完整，多数语句不完整或意思不明，语法结构和词汇错误很多，书写不规范。
三、说明
1．内容要点可用不同方式表达。
2．对紧扣主题的适当发挥不予扣分。

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