资源简介

2026届高三年级四月测试
英语参考答案
听力部分录音材料
听力部分。该部分分为第一、第二两节。
注意：回答听力部分时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将
你的答案转涂到答题卡上。
停顿 00'10''
现在是听力试音时间。
M: Hello. International Friends Club. Can I help you
W: Oh, hello. I read about your club in the paper today and I thought I’d phone to find out a bit more.
M: Yes, certainly. Well, we are a sort of social club for people from different countries. It’s quite a new club — we
have about 50 members at the moment, but we are growing all the time.
W: That sounds interesting. I’m British actually, and I came to Washington about three months ago. I’m looking
for ways to meet people. Er, what kinds of events do you organize
M: Well, we have social get-togethers, and sports events, and we also have language evenings.
W: Could you tell me something about the language evenings
M: Yes. Every day except Thursday we have a language evening. People can come and practice their languages —
you know, over a drink or something. We have different languages on different evenings. Monday — Spanish;
Tuesday — Italian; Wednesday — German; and Friday — French. On Thursday we usually have a meal in a
restaurant for anyone who wants to come.
W: Well, that sounds great. I really need to practice my French.
M: OK. Well, if you can just give me your name and address, I’ll send you the form and some more information. If
you join now, you can have the first month free.
试音到此结束。
听力考试正式开始。
停顿 00'10''
请看听力部分第一节。
第一节
听下面 5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选
项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读
两遍。
停顿 00'02''
例如：现在你有 5秒钟的时间看试卷上的例题。
停顿 00'05''
你将听到以下内容：
M: Excuse me. Can you tell me how much the shirt is
W: Yes, it’s nine fifteen.
停顿 00'02''
你将有 5秒钟的时间将正确答案标在试卷上。
停顿 00'05''
衬衫的价格为 9镑 15便士，所以你选择 C项，并将其标在试卷上。
现在，你有 5秒钟的时间阅读第 1小题的有关内容。
停顿 00'05''
(Text 1)
W: What do you think of yesterday’s history lecture
M: To be honest, listening to that lecture was like watching paint dry. You know, I’m not into history.
(Text 2)
W: New Chinese style dresses have become a hit. It’s said that fashion designers find inspiration from ancient
Chinese paintings.
M: Yes. They apply the subjects of the paintings to the clothing design.
(Text 3)
W: Hey, Sam. You look extremely happy today.
M: Hi, Tina. I just became an uncle. My sister gave birth to a baby girl. And I’m thinking of getting a nice baby
blanket.
W: That sounds like a wonderful idea!
(Text 4)
W: I really had a good time at my sister’s birthday party last night. I can’t believe that she’s 25 now.
M: She’s actually 8 years older than us, but she looks 4 or 5 years younger.
(Text 5)
M: They say they are expecting a heavy rain.
W: How can that be Look at the bright daylight outside.
M: Do you remember last time it started raining all of a sudden
W: Yeah, but that was just a spring thunder.
第一节到此结束。
第二节
听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项
中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟；听完
后，各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第 6和第 7两个小题。现在，你有 10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。
（Text 6）
W: Hey, Sam, check out this app. You input some information, and it suggests a job for you.
M: What kind of information do you put in
W: I told it I want a job that involves working with computers, and I mentioned I enjoy working with numbers.
M: What job did it recommend
W: An accountant. But to be honest, I’m not really interested in accounting. I’m looking for something more
challenging.
听下面一段对话，回答第 8至第 10三个小题。现在，你有 15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
（Text 7）
W: Did you see the report about the snowslide in a small town in Italy last night
M: No, I didn’t. I was busy preparing for my presentation.
W: Well, the snow completely covered a hotel. Even though 90 people joined the rescue efforts, there were still 19
people lost.
M: That’s terrible. Does Italy have a lot of snowslides
W: I’m not sure. But we don’t have them in Rome.
M: I guess I’ll start paying attention to what’s happening outside New York. I hope your family is OK.
W: Yeah, they’re fine. They are traveling in Tokyo.
听下面一段对话，回答第 11至第 13三个小题。现在，你有 15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
（Text 8）
M: Hi, I’d like to have some information about the summer courses.
W: Certainly, sir. We have two summer courses. The first course begins on July 3 and lasts until July 20, and the
second is from July 24 till August 10.
M: What about the fees for each course
W: The former course costs 500, and the latter costs 50 more.
M: I see. Do we have to find our own accommodation
W: No, we have a lady who arranges the accommodation for you.
M: OK. I’d like to choose the second course, please.
W: Sure, sir. Can I have your name and nationality, please
M: Dominick Dobuwa. D-O-B-U-W-A. I’m from France.
W: OK, Mr. Dobuwa. Please pay before July 15 through our official website.
M: OK, I’m looking forward to going to your school in person.
听下面一段对话,回答第 14至第 17四个小题。现在,你有 20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。
(Text 9)
M: Mary, I’ve just finished my listening class. It was a bit difficult.
W: Why not take part in English social activities They give you a chance to practice your English. I’ve just picked
up a schedule today.
M: Let’s have a look. What are they doing on Monday night
W: They will have singing with the guitar. They teach you traditional British folk songs. It starts at 8 pm and lasts
for two hours.
M: I’m not much of a singer. And I’ve got a lecture early tomorrow morning. A BBC journalist is going to talk
about his experiences. Look, there’s a performance in the school hall on Wednesday.
W: Yeah, students from all over the world will sing international songs. Would you like to go and see it
M: Yes. Another thing I want to do this weekend is go to Stratford-upon-Avon. I have to sign up at the student
services office in advance. I’ve got time right now. So I think I’ll go ahead and sign my name.
听下面一段独白，回答第 18至第 20三个小题。现在，你有 15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
(Text 10)
M: Today, I want to share with you the history of coffee. Before that, I’d like to give my thanks to Professor
Lee. I talked with many people who are in the coffee business and therefore got a lot of free coffee. Alright, enough
joking. There is evidence that coffee originally grew in the northeast of Africa. In the beginning of the sixteenth
century, people in the Middle East started to use it as a drink. Also, the physicians in the Turkish city of
Constantinople believed coffee was healthy and approved its use as a medicine. At the time, instead of drinking
coffee at home, people went to coffee houses to drink it. These people, usually men, would meet to drink coffee
and chat about issues of the day. In 1623, the ruler of Constantinople thought it was dangerous for people to share
ideas and opinions, so he demanded to close all the coffee houses.
第二节到此结束。
现在，你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
听力部分到此结束。
试题答案
听力（共 20小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 30分）
1— 5 CBCAA 6— 10 BACBA 11— 15 BCBCA 16— 20 BCCAA
阅读（共 20小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 50分）
21— 23 ADC
24— 27 DBCA
28— 31 CBDA
32— 35 DCAB
七选五
36. G 37. A 38. C 39. D 40. F
语言运用第一节（共 15小题；每小题 1分，满分 15分）
41— 45 BCDAC 46— 50 BDCAD 51— 55 CBADB
第二节（共 10小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 15分）
56. covering 57. practical 58. recognition 59. deepen 60. to develop
61. Additionally 62. that/which 63. and 64. has been banned
65. in
评分原则：
1．铅笔作答不给分。
2．有拼写或大小写错误的作答不给分。
3．所填词汇正确，但有形式错误的不给分。
4．英式、美式拼写均可给分。
5．除所列答案外，若试评过程中发现其他可接受答案，经评卷专家组讨论确认后也可给分。
写作：
第一节（满分 15分）
参考范文：
Say No to Unhealthy Comparison
Recently, a trend of comparing sports shoes has spread on our campus. Some students judge others by
expensive brands and show off new sneakers, making those with ordinary shoes feel upset.
This meaningless comparison distracts us from study and hurts our friendship. As high school students, we
should focus on academic performance and personal growth instead of outer appearance. True beauty lies in
kindness and hard work. Let’s refuse vain comparison and create a positive campus atmosphere.
一、评分原则
1．本题总分为 15分，按五个档次进行评分。
2．评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性。
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整
档次，最后给分。
4．评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于 60个的，酌情扣分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼
写及词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（13— 15分）
——覆盖了所有内容要点，表述清楚、合理。
——使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。
有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（10— 12分）
——覆盖了所有内容要点，表述比较清楚、合理。
——使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档（7— 9分）
——覆盖了大部分内容要点，有个别地方表述不够清楚、合理。
——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
——基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（4— 6分）
——遗漏或未清楚表述一些内容要点，或一些内容与写作目的不相关。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
——几乎不能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
未能达到预期的写作目的。
第一档（1— 3分）
——遗漏或未清楚表述大部分内容要点，或大部分内容与写作目的不相关。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
完全未达到预期的写作目的。
零分
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容与题目要求完全不相关。
第二节（满分 25分）
参考范文：
The next morning, I went to my grandmother’s room. She was sitting by the window, looking out quietly. I
took a deep breath and said, “Grandma, I want to learn your craft again. Please teach me. ” She looked surprised
and could hardly believe her ears. She asked gently why I had changed my mind. I told her I truly wanted to learn
her craft and carry on her wishes. Hearing my words, she breathed a long sigh of relief, with warm tears in her
eyes. She smiled and gladly agreed to teach me.
For the next two weeks, I sat beside her every day to learn her craft. She showed me how to choose the right
beads and knot the thread carefully. “You must be patient,” she said. “A charm made in a hurry brings no luck. ” At
first, I failed many times and my works were messy. But I never gave up. Grandma never blamed me; instead, she
guided my hands patiently just like before. With continuous practice, I finally made a beautiful charm. She praised
me and said it carried a sincere wish. I felt proud and happy that her precious skill could be passed down through
me.
一、评分原则
1．本题总分为 25分，按五个档次进行评分。
2．评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）创造内容的质量，续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整
档次，最后给分。
4．评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于 120个的，酌情扣分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼
写及词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（21— 25分）
——创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。
——使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。
——有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
第四档（16— 20分）
——创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高。
——使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档（11— 15分）
——创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。
——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
——基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档（6— 10分）
——内容或逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文情境有一定程度脱节。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
——未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第一档（1— 5分）
——内容或逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
零分
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。2026届高三年级四月测试
英语
注意事项：
1．答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需
改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写
在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分听力（共两节，满分 30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答
题卡上。
第一节（共 5小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 7.5分）
听下面 5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选
项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读
两遍。
例 How much is the shirt
A. 19. 15.
B. 9. 18.
C. 9. 15.
答案是 C。
1. How does the man feel about the lecture
A. Excited. B. Interested. C. Bored.
2. What has become popular recently
A. Ancient paintings.
B. New Chinese style dresses.
C. Fashion designers.
3. Why does the man look very happy
A. His birthday is coming.
B. He got a nice blanket.
C. He just had a niece.
4. How old is the man
A. 17. B. 25. C. 33.
5. What is the weather like now
A. It’s sunny. B. It’s raining. C. It’s thundering.
第二节（共 15小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 22.5分）
听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项
中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟；听完
后，各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6段材料，回答第 6、7题。
6. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Computers.
B. An app.
C. The woman’s job.
7. Why does the woman dislike working as an accountant
A. It is short of challenge.
B. It is related to numbers.
C. It is hardly promising.
听第 7段材料，回答第 8至 10题。
8. What did the man do last night
A. He read books.
B. He watched news.
C. He prepared a presentation.
9. How many people were lost in the disaster
A. 21. B. 19. C. 90.
10. Where is the woman’s family now
A. In Tokyo. B. In Rome. C. In New York.
听第 8段材料，回答第 11至 13题。
11. When will the first course end
A. On July 3. B. On July 20. C. On August 10.
12. How much is the second course
A. 140. B. 500. C. 550.
13. What should the man do before July 15
A. Provide his nationality.
B. Pay for the course.
C. Go to the school in person.
听第 9段材料，回答第 14至 17题。
14. When will the activity on Monday end
A. At 8: 00 pm. B. At 9: 00 pm. C. At 10: 00 pm.
15. What activity is held on Monday night
A. Singing with the guitar.
B. Enjoying British folk songs.
C. Singing International songs.
16. What will the man do on Wednesday
A. Sing folk songs. B. Watch a performance. C. Meet a journalist.
17. What will the man do next
A. Practice playing the guitar.
B. Attend English social activities.
C. Go to the student services office.
听第 10段材料，回答第 18至 20题。
18. What does the speaker first do in the speech
A. Share coffee history.
B. Joke about free coffee.
C. Thank Professor Lee.
19. Where was coffee first found
A. In Northeast Africa.
B. In Constantinople.
C. In the Middle East.
20. Why did the Constantinople ruler destroy coffee houses
A. He feared of people sharing ideas.
B. He thought coffee was unhealthy.
C. He wanted to control coffee trade.
第二部分阅读（共两节，满分 50分）
第一节（共 15小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Rural Revitalization (振兴) Combined with Cultural and Tourism Integration
Cultural and tourism integration has become an important driving force for rural revitalization in China,
effectively promoting rural economic growth, protecting cultural heritage (遗产) and inheriting traditional customs.
Supported by national policies, this integration model has been widely promoted across the country, as it not only
enriches rural development forms but also attracts a large number of urban tourists to experience traditional rural
life, taste local food and participate in traditional activities. The table below shows the number of rural tourists and
total tourism income in China from 2022 to 2024, clearly reflecting the booming development trend of rural
tourism in recent years.
Number of Rural Tourists Total Rural Tourism Revenue
Year
(100 million person-times) (100 billion yuan)
2022 20. 9 1. 21
2023 25. 3 1. 48
2024 28. 7 1. 73
Many villages across China have explored special integration models based on their own natural and cultural
advantages: ancient villages restore traditional architecture, hold folk cultural activities and display traditional
handicrafts like paper-cutting and embroidery, while ethnic villages combine unique folk customs, characteristic
food and traditional art with high-quality tourism services to attract visitors. Zhuqiao Village in Jiangxi Province
has become a typical model by restoring ancient buildings, developing cultural workshops and launching hands-on
experience activities, which has created over 300 local jobs and greatly increased farmers’ income. Yin Qian, Party
secretary of Zhuqiao Village, said this integration mode we balances cultural protection and economic
development, effectively helping farmers increase income and promoting the full revitalization of the countryside.
21. How many rural tourists were there in China in 2023
A. 2.53 billion. B. 1. 48 billion. C. 25. 3 million. D. 148 million.
22. How has Zhuqiao Village achieved success in rural revitalization
A. By upgrading facilities for industrial development.
B. By attracting external investment in modern technology.
C. Through expanding agricultural production and food processing.
D. Through preserving cultural heritage and creating interactive experiences.
23. What can be inferred from the text about rural tourism in China
A. It mainly attracts foreign tourists.
B. It faces challenges in cultural preservation.
C. It shows a growing trend in recent years.
D. It has replaced urban tourism as the main form.
B
For many students in special education programs, school spirit and typical extracurricular experiences can
look very different. There are no team sweaters, no cheerleading uniforms, and often fewer opportunities to take
part in activities many students enjoy. That reality stayed with Wes Massey, a special education teacher in Georgia
— and he decided to do something about it.
“A lot of our kids don’t get to participate in things like basketball or cheerleading,” Massey explained. ”I want
these kids to enjoy what other kids would enjoy,” he added. With the help of volunteers and donations, Massey
surprised 31 students in the state’s alternate assessment program — and their families — with something many had
never experienced before: their first overnight trip.
The destination was Great Wolf Lodge in LaGrange, Georgia, and families didn’t have to pay a single dollar.
Transportation, meals, lodging, and activities were all fully covered. Planning the trip required extensive
coordination. Multiple buses and support vehicles were arranged to accommodate students with complex medical
needs, including those requiring oxygen or feeding tubes.
When families arrived, the surprises continued. Each student received gift cards at check-in, giving them the
chance to make choices independently — including buying their own lunches. Students and families also enjoyed
activities that many were experiencing for the very first time, like family putt-putt golf and other interactive games
at the resort.
Support for the trip extended beyond the school system. As the buses traveled, the county sheriff (警长 )
personally escorted (护送) them, which fully demonstrated the entire community’s full support for these students.
For Massey, the message was simple but powerful. “I know life has been hard and there have been
challenges,” he said. “But we are going to do everything we can to make sure you’re included, you’re important,
and that you matter. ”
24. What can we know about special education students
A. They perform poorly in study. B. They dislike extracurricular activities.
C. They refuse to wear team uniforms. D. They lack typical school activities.
25. What did Massey want to achieve through this trip
A. Gaining experience in guiding students. B. Providing equal enjoyment for all students.
C. Promoting Great Wolf Lodge to families. D. Winning recognition from the school board.
26. Which can best replace the underlined word “coordination” in paragraph 3
A. Ambition. B. Competition. C. Organization. D. Separation.
27. Which of the following can best describe Massey
A. Considerate and responsible. B. Creative and ambitious.
C. Genuine and talented. D. Wise and courageous.
C
A growing body of research from the past twenty years highlights that strong social relationships are crucial
for our long-term physical and mental health. Obviously, chronic (慢性的) loneliness has been linked to a high risk
of death. While the exact reasons remain under study, evidence increasingly suggests that our social lives directly
influence our biological health.
A key challenge has been determining cause and effect. Many studies are observational, meaning they find a
link but cannot prove that poor social connections cause poor health. It is possible that existing health issues lead to
weaker social ties, or that other factors-like substance abuse-harm both health and relationships at the same time.
However, new research strengthens the case that strong social bonds actively protect our health. A recent
study, examining over 2,000 middle-aged Americans, investigated a concept called “cumulative (累积的) social
advantage (CSA)”. This measure combines four areas: support from communities, quality of parent-child
relationships, community involvement, and emotional support from close ones.
Researchers compared participants’ CSA scores with their blood samples, using an advanced biological age
marker. The results revealed a clear pattern: Individuals with higher social advantage tended to have slower
biological aging and lower levels of inflammation (炎症). Essentially, better social connections correlated with a
younger biological state.
While this study still shows correlation rather than proven causation, it points to meaningful biological
differences. By focusing on long-term markers like inflammation and cellular aging, it reduces the likelihood that
the findings are merely due to lifestyle choices like diet or exercise. It suggests that strong, positive relationships
may cause subtle, lasting physiological benefits-such as better immune function and stress regulation-which protect
the body over time.
Therefore, nurturing friendships and community ties may be just as important for health as regular exercise
and balanced nutrition. Prioritizing meaningful social connections is not only good for our happiness but can be a
vital investment in our long-term well-being.
28. What can be the relationship between social lives and human health
A. One-way. B. Irrelevant. C. Interactive. D. Short-term.
29. Why does the author mention CSA
A. To offer advice on community involvement.
B. To present a way to judge social conditions.
C. To explain how biological aging is measured.
D. To show the negative effects of inflammation.
30. What do the long-term markers help the study do
A. Suggest diet matters less than social ties.
B. Prove social relationships ensure better health.
C. Confirm inflammation as a contributor to aging.
D. Rule out lifestyle choices as the only explanation.
31. What is the main purpose of the last paragraph
A. To make a conclusion. B. To make a guess.
C. To make a call. D. To make a recommendation.
D
There comes a point in many a parent’s life when their sweet child begins to fire back with cutting remarks
and sarcastic (嘲讽的) behaviour that’s enough to make parents want to go into hiding for the foreseeable future.
Why are teens mean sometimes According to Counselling Directory member Ana Hristov, teens still lack
emotional control, and the part of the brain that deals with reasoning and planning is still developing. That can
result in poor filtering (过滤 ) and general directness that may come across as rude, touchy and sometimes even
mean. On top of all, their nervous system is maturing, meaning teens can experience a heightened sensitivity to
stress, which can make them overreact to the situations, with small triggers (诱因) leading to big reactions.
Another factor for the big change around this time has to do with the normal process of slowly distancing from
family in favour of peers (同龄人), where they go through great efforts to fit in and avoid being viewed by their
peers negatively. Social media and study pressure add an extra layer of complexity to the mix.
It’s OK to let this kind of behaviour slide occasionally to avoid not getting into a constant cycle of negative
interactions. But Hristov cautioned that if the rude behaviour is directed at siblings (兄弟姐妹 ), for instance,
parents need to pull up on it immediately as your other children need a visible demonstration of you taking a firm
stand, and it must be made clear that such behaviour will not be tolerated in your home.
However, immediate punishment can sometimes make the situation even worse. Similarly, responses rooted in
further shaming or sarcasm will increase defensiveness rather than encourage reflection. Hristov’s advice for
parents in this position is to respond, rather than react. Try to remain calm, reflecting on what might be underneath
the comment. Revisit the conversation when everything’s calm. Lastly, parenting teens is hard work so it’s vital
that you take time out to recharge your batteries.
32. What does Ana Hristov say about teenagers’ rude behaviour
A. It reflects their desire for independence.
B. It is mainly affected by social media.
C. It is a reminder of improper parenting.
D. It results from their immature brain.
33. What can be inferred about teens’ distancing from family
A. It results from negative peer judgement.
B. It potentially brings about study pressure.
C. It is a natural part of their development.
D. It leads to long-term family breakdown.
34. What is Ana Hristov’s view about teenagers being mean to their siblings
A. They need to be stopped by their parents immediately.
B. They will eventually grow out of it naturally.
C. They may be trying to fit in with their peers.
D. They are likely stick to their firm stand.
35. What is Ana Hristov’s advice about parenting teenagers
A. It ought to be strictly disciplined.
B. It requires empathy and self-care.
C. It involves always maintaining distance.
D. It demands constant negative interactions.
第二节（共 5小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选
项。
How to Build Genuine Friendships as a Teenager
Being a teen means navigating new emotions, social dynamics, and self-discovery — and building genuine
friendships is one of this journey’s most meaningful parts. True friends offer support, laughter, and belonging to
help you grow. But forming these bonds isn’t easy. With busy school lives, social media pressure, and fear of
misunderstanding, it’s common to feel unsure about deep connections. 36
Be authentic. It’s tempting to pretend to fit in, but true friends connect with the real you. 37 If you love art
but hide it because peers prefer sports, you’ll miss like-minded people. Open up about your hobbies, values, and
flaws — you’ll attract those who appreciate you as you are.
Practice active listening. Friendships thrive when both feel heard. When a classmate talks about homework str
uggles or weekend excitement, put away your phone, make eye contact, and ask follow-up questions. 38 Focus
on understanding their perspective instead of waiting to speak. For example, if they say, “I’m stressed about my G
CSEs,” respond, “That must feel overwhelming — what’s hardest ”
Be reliable. Trust is friendship’s foundation. If you promise to help study, show up on time. If they share a
secret, keep it. 39 Small acts like remembering their favorite snack or checking in on bad days build trust
slowly.
Embrace kindness and patience. No one is perfect, and friendships have ups and downs. 40 Disagreements
happen, but how you handle them matters. Instead of getting defensive, say, “I see your point — I’m sorry if I hurt
you. ” Building genuine teen friendships takes effort, but the rewards are great. These bonds bring joy and teach
life skills that serve you well into adulthood.
A. Fake roles never lead to real bonds.
B. Authenticity attracts those who truly matter.
C. This simple act shows you truly care about them.
D. Keeping your word helps you earn their trust gradually.
E. Confidence builds up when sharing secrets with each other.
F. When conflicts arise, these qualities become your repair tools.
G. Yet with intentional effort, meaningful bonds are within reach.
第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分 30分）
第一节（共 15小题；每小题 1分，满分 15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When I was in middle school, my home life was terrible. I won’t go into 41 but let’s just say I spent as
much time as possible anywhere but home. I basically lived at the public library. The 42 , Mrs. Chen, noticed.
She never 43 invasive questions. And she never made me feel like a burden. Deep down, I was always 4
4 about taking up her precious time and energy. She just made sure I always had a quiet place to sit and books to
45 . Sometimes she’d leave snacks on the table where I was sitting, just 46 . Like she left them there.
One day she asked if I liked writing. I said yes. She started giving me 47 . Nice ones. She said the library
was getting rid of old stock and asked if I 48 them. I learned years later that there was actually no old stock at
all. She 49 those journals herself. Mrs. Chen gave me a 50 place when I had nowhere else to go. She saw a
struggling kid and decided to help without making me feel like a 51 case.
I’m in college now studying to be a teacher. I think about her constantly — about how much power we have to
change a kid’s life just by 52 and caring. I wrote her a letter last year telling her how much she 53 to me.
She wrote back and said she always knew I’d do something 54 . I’m going to be like her and to be the adult who
55 the struggling kids and does something about it.
41. A. topics B. details C. forms D. policies
42. A. owner B. manager C. librarian D. agent
43. A. ignored B. missed C. caused D. asked
44. A. worried B. curious C. enthusiastic D. nervous
45. A. write B. find C. read D. choose
46. A. cautiously B. casually C. joyfully D. contentedly
47. A. pictures B. pens C. poems D. journals
48. A. counted B. matched C. wanted D. checked
49. A. purchased B. made C. released D. painted
50. A. basic B. new C. key D. safe
51. A. book B. welfare C. charity D. service
52. A. rolling in B. showing up C. getting around D. trying out
53. A. meant B. said C. added D. reacted
54. A. stable B. rigid C. alone D. special
55. A. trusts B. sees C. likes D. adopts
第二节（共 10小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
China will establish a multi-level artificial intelligence (AI) education system 56 (cover) primary, junior
high and senior high schools to guide students from foundational cognitive awareness to 57 (practice)
technological innovation.
At the primary school level, the Ministry of Education (MOE) prioritizes AI literacy through exposure to basic
technologies, such as voice 58 (recognize) and image classification.
Building on this foundation, junior high school students will 59 (deep) their understanding of AI logic,
examine machine learning processes 60 (develop) critical thinking and identify misinformation in generative AI
outputs.
To achieve the goals, the MOE will integrate AI-enabled teaching competencies into the teacher training
framework. 61 (addition), it requires schools to develop age-appropriate curricula with multi-level instructional
practices 62 correspond to cognitive development stages.
The official also called for strengthening students’ logical, critical 63 innovative thinking through
generative AI-powered interactive learning ecosystems.
Meanwhile, the MOE prohibits students from submitting AI-generated content as academic work or
examination responses. This practice 64 (ban) by many schools since last semester, and it demands that
teachers cultivate learners’ capacity for critical thinking of AI outputs 65 an effort to encourage authentic
engagement.
第四部分写作（共两节，满分 40分）
第一节（满分 15分）
假定你是李华，最近你发现校内刮起一股运动鞋攀比之风。请你给学校英文报投稿，内容包括：
（1）阐述具体现象；
（2）分析其危害并呼吁。
注意：
（1）写作词数应为 80个左右；
（2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Say No to Unhealthy Comparison
第二节（满分 25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
My grandmother’s hands were never still. I remember watching her sit by the window, holding tiny beads (珠
子 ) and threads. With careful fingers, she would string them together, one by one, until they formed a small,
beautiful charm. “This is not just a decoration,” she would say softly, “every bead holds a wish. ”
I spent many afternoons beside her, sorting beads by color. She let me try stringing the beads together, but my
threads always ended in a mess. I failed again and again, growing increasingly impatient. I frowned and gave up
quickly, unwilling to practice any more. I did not understand why she worked so slowly and why every bead had to
be just so. I put the threads and beads aside and never touched them again. To me, it was just playing with pretty
things.
Time passed. I grew older and moved to the city. My grandmother worked alone. People no longer wanted
handmade charms and bought shiny ones from shops. They were cheaper and looked more modern. I heard that my
grandmother had stopped making them. She looked helpless and always felt down.
Then one winter, I came home and found her sitting in her old chair. The bead box was closed. Dust sat on the
windowsill. She looked up and smiled, holding out her hand. In her hand lay a small and simple charm — a red
bead with a silver thread. It was the first one I had ever made with her many years ago. I held it and felt something
warm spread through my chest.
That night, I could not sleep. Memories of her warm hands and kind smiles filled my mind. I hated to see her
beloved handcraft fade away as she grew old. I deeply wanted to carry on her skill but feared I was too clumsy to
learn it. Torn between hope and worry, I finally calmed my heart. I realized love mattered more than anything else,
so I decided I would ask Grandma to teach me again.
注意：
（1）续写词数应为 150个左右；
（2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
The next morning, I went to my grandmother’s room.
For the next two weeks, I sat beside her every day to learn her craft.

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