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湖南省怀化市2026年高考第二次仿真模拟诊断性考试英语试题
注意事项：
1.答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
例: How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. Why is the woman leaving work early
A. To pick up friends. B. To prepare for guests. C. To shop for groceries.
2. What is Kent doing
A. Attending a competition. B. Planning a sales event. C. Reading brochures.
3. What does the woman think of the movie
A. It's boring. B. It's exciting. C. It's entertaining.
4. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Keeping kids on the team.
B. Organizing after-school activities.
C. Improving the team's performance.
5. When is the man's wedding
A. September 10th. B. September 21st. C. September 26th.
第二节(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is the woman's problem
A. Winter cold. B. Expensive medicine. C. Neck pain.
7. How much will the woman pay
A. 12. B. 10. C. 6.
听第7段材料，回答第8至 10题。
8. Who is the woman
A. A badminton fan. B. A badminton player. C. A badminton reporter.
9. Why is the match important to Shi
A. It is his first final.
B. It could increase his ranking.
C. It could earn him an Olympic medal.
10. What can we learn about China in badminton
A. It has many world titles.
B. It trains the most players.
C. It hosts major tournaments.
听第8段材料，回答第11至 13题。
11. What will the speakers do first
A. Go cycling. B. Go shopping. C. Have a meal.
12. Why does the man suggest going to the restaurant a bit early
A. To get a great discount.
B. To avoid waiting for seats.
C. To leave more time for a chat.
13. When will the woman meet the man
A. At 11:00. B. At 11:30. C. At 12:00.
听第9段材料，回答第14至 17题。
14. What is the woman's main purpose
A. To promote membership. B. To ask for advice. C. To offer help.
15. Why does the man refuse the offer
A. The price is too high.
B. He dislikes indoor sports.
C. He has his own exercise routine.
16. What is the man's final request to the woman
A. To offer a free trial of the membership.《高三标答》
B. To stop calling him in the future.
C. To send more information about the club.
17. What will the woman do with the man's number
A. Keep it for at least two months.
B. Give it to another company.
C. Remove it from the list right away.
听第10段材料，回答第18至 20题。
18. What is Micky
A. A pilot. B. A writer. C. A musician.
19. What did Micky learn to do when he was young
A. Make instruments. B. Play the guitar. C. Teach painting.
20. How did Micky get a seat on the plane
A. By winning a game. B. By knowing the pilot. C. By showing he was sick.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Home Health Care
Home health care is the care that licensed medical professionals provide in a patient's own home to treat an illness or injury, support recovery from surgery or manage a chronic condition. The following are the services home health agencies provide.
Nursing care services
Registered nurses or licensed practical nurses deliver skilled nursing care, such as IVtherapy(治疗), injections and wound care. They communicate closely with doctors, and they teach patients and their family members how to manage health issues.
Physical therapy services
Licensed physical therapists focus on restoring patients’ strength, balance and mobility through exercise, massage and other techniques. Physical therapy is often recommended after injuries, surgeries or hospital stays to help seniors recover.
Medical social services
Social workers help patients and their families navigate the emotional and social aspects of illnesses and care. They can connect patients to local resources, plan for long-term care needs and provide counseling and support during a hospital discharge or health changes.
Home health aide (助手) services
Home health aides generally provide non-medical support, such as assistance with daily tasks like personal care and household chores. They also monitor patients’ well-being and offer companionship.
How to choose a home health care provider
To choose the right home health care provider, you' ll need to weigh various factors,including your loved one's care needs and your budget for services. Start your search with our best home health agencies, where you can explore verified up-to-date listings, see side-by-side comparisons and read customer reviews, all at no cost to you.
21. What do registered nurses mainly do in home health care
A. Teach social skills. B. Do household chores.
C. Offer companionship. D. Perform medical procedures.
22. Who help restore patients' mobility
A. Health aides.
B. Social workers.
C. Physical therapists.
D. Registered nurses.
23. What is implied about choosing a home health care provider
A. The customer reviews are unreliable.
B. Care needs and budgets matter a lot.
C. The previous experience comes first.
D. Relative comparisons are unnecessary.
B
At the age of 66, I am often filled with sweet memories of my childhood, during which Iled a life full of happiness and gratitude. In the 1960s, my family belonged to ordinary working-class families. After finishing military service, my father worked faithfully in a factory, while my mother stayed at home to care for my brother and me and took occasional part-time jobs when we grew older. Though our family lived on a tight budget. and could never afford fancy luxuries, my parents still managed to cover basic living expenses, so they hardly had extra money for entertainment outside.
The only yearly luxury they prepared was a one-week holiday in Blackpool in summer,when most factories stopped running to maintain machines. Having saved money carefully all year long, my mother booked the seaside flats right after Christmas every year, which became our best expectation. To the young me, taking a steam train to travel far was a rare adventure at that time, for I seldom had the chance to take a steam train to a faraway place in those days.
We followed fixed routines every year: Buying sweet strawberries served with sugar and milk in local markets and enjoying wonderful theatrical shows that greatly relieved my parents from endless daily tiredness. Funny performances by famous comedians always brought loud laughter and even tears of joy to my tired mother. Small warm scenes, including tasty snacks,street sounds and my parents’ graceful dancing in halls, impressed me deeply. Even when they could enjoy foreign tours later, they still thought Blackpool was unmatched.
When I revisited it forty years later, old buildings looked shabby yet familiar memories flooded my mind instantly. I finally understand that those seven days of joy offered lasting warmth to my hard-working parents, and sincere family love as well as timeless feelings will never fade away as time goes by.
24. What kind of life did the author's family live in the 1960s
A. Simple. B. Relaxing. C. Hopeless. D. Busy.
25. How did the author find the journey to Blackpool
A. It was flat. B. It was tiring.
C. It was exciting. D. It was dangerous.
26. What does paragraph 3 mainly talk about
A. The author's parents' daily life.
B. The beautiful views of Blackpool.
C. The family's holiday experiences.
D. The author's childhood development.
27. What is the author's purpose in writing the text
A. To describe a seaside holiday.
B. To recall the family memories.
C. To show the changes of Blackpool.
D. To highlight the benefits of tourism.
C
The rising seas caused by climate change may threaten tens of millions more people than scientists originally thought because of mistaken research assumptions on how high coastal waters already are, a new study said.
Researchers studied hundreds of scientific studies and hazard assessments, calculating that about 90% of them underestimated baseline coastal water heights by an average of 1 foot(about 30 centimeters), according to Wednesday's study in the journal Nature. It's a far more frequent problem in the Pacific and Southeast Asia, and less so in Europe and alongAtlantic coasts.
The reason is a mismatch between the way sea and land altitudes(海拔) are measured,said study co-author Philip Minderhoud, a hydrogeology professor at Wageningen University &Research in the Netherlands. And he attributed that to a“methodological blind spot” between the different ways those two things are measured.
Each way measures their own areas properly, he said. But where sea meets land, there are a lot of factors that often don't get accounted for when satellites and land-based models are used. Studies that calculate the impact of rising sea levels usually do not look at the actual measured sea level, so they used this zero-meter figure as a starting point, said lead authorKatharina Seeger of the University of Padua in Italy. In some places in the Indo-Pacific, it's close to 3 feet (about 1 meter), Minderhoud said.
One simple way to understand it is that many studies assume sea levels without waves or currents, but the reality at the water's edge is that oceans are constantly roiled by wind,tides, currents, changing temperatures and things like El Ni o, said Minderhoud and Seeger.
Adjusting to a more accurate coastal height baseline means that if seas rise by a little more than 3 feet (about 1 meter) as some studies suggest that this will happen by the end of the century—— waters could flood up to 37% more land and threaten 77 million to 132 million more people, the study said. That would trigger problems in planning and paying for the impacts of a warming world.
28. What did the new study find
A. Climate change threatened people.
B. The actual sea level was misjudged.
C. Scientists made correct assessments.
D. Europe suffered from climate change.
29. What caused the researchers to make the wrong assumptions
A. The usage of satellites and land-based models.
B. The blind spot of their predicting climate change.
C. The failure to account for the effects of sea level rise.
D. The different ways to measure sea and land altitudes.
30. Which word can explain the underlined word“roiled” in paragraph 5
A. Prevented. B. Disturbed. C. Followed. D. Improved.
31. What can we learn from the last paragraph
A. More people face the threat of sea level rise.
B. It's difficult to measure a coastal height baseline.
C. The flood has destroyed many lands in the world.
D. There will be more people by the end of the century.
D
For 19-year-old Marta Bernardino and Sebasti o Mendon a, the forest was the intimate backdrop of their childhood.“It was a living playground where we built our world,” says the pair. As children growing up near Lisbon, the two always believed that the forest would remain a constant in their lives. But every year, they saw fires destroy the forest near their homes, leaving scorched(烧焦) hillsides. Desperate to revive the forest, the two then-high school students set out to create Trovador, a robot capable of reaching and reforesting areas where humans have been unable to.
In 2023, Bernardino and Mendon a set out to create Trovador. Their first 15 prototypes(原型), built from recycled parts, planted 28 percent faster than humans with a 90 percent survival rate. The two are currently working to improve the efficiency of the robot and hope that their current prototype is able to handle longer operations on steeper terrains.
The robot is capable of climbing slopes of up to 45 degrees while detecting and avoiding any rock in its way. Trovador is also equipped to carry and plant up to 200 young trees per hour. Unlike a tractor(拖拉机), it barely makes an indent on the ground thanks to its light movement, preserving pore space for air and water in the soil. A depth camera attached to it maps any obstacle and allows it to slightly adapt its tracks in real time. It also uses artificial intelligence and sensors to analyze the pH and humidity of the soil, after which Trovador will follow a three-step dig-place-tamp sequence to plant rooted saplings instead of seeds.
Miguel Jerónimo, a landscape architect, is interested in the tool. He says,“Trovador appears to be an innovative project with potential, particularly as it was developed by two young students who turned a low-cost prototype into a possible approach to one of Portugal's environmental challenges.” While Jerónimo is hopeful about the success of Trovador, he is equally apprehensive about the robot's durability in the actual field. He says,“Operational endurance, mobility in dense vegetation and ease of maintenance are areas that need further exploration before the system can be considered ready for broad use.”
32. Why did the two teenagers start to create Trovador
A. To replace farm tractors. B. To study soil conditions.
C. To play in the nearby forest. D. To restore the burnt forest.
33. Which of the following can best describe Trovador
A. Slow but reliable. B. Costly but powerful.
C. Elegant and energy-saving. D. Eco-friendly and efficient.
34. What attitude does Jerónimo have to Trovador
A. Objective. B. Doubtful. C. Uncaring. D. Critical.
35. What may be the best title for the text
A. Portugal's Forest Fire Crisis
B. The Rise of Agricultural Robots
C. A Robot to Reforest the Unreachable
D. Two Teenagers’ Connection with the Forest
第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
As humans, we all have different emotional states, known as moods. We may feel happy, sad, angry, anxious or excited at different times. Well, moods are not just for individuals. 36 Now, let's talk about an expression that describes ways we understand the general mood of a group of people. That expression is“to read the room”.
When you read the room, you use your powers of observation to learn the general mood or emotional state of people in a particular setting. You may then act in a way that is similar to that mood. You match it. Let's say you are in a silly mood—— laughing a lot and making jokes. Then you enter a serious work meeting. 37
You can tell someone else to read the room if he seems clueless about the mood of a group of people. 38 Used in this way, it can either be funny or insulting—— depending on the situation and how we say the phrase.
39 People are seated around a table enjoying good food and conversation. Then, your friend Betsy brings up a very serious topic like a historic battle where many people died.Suddenly the tone changes. The atmosphere goes from happy to serious. You could say,“Betsy, read the room! No one wants to talk about that now.”
The expression“read the room” is all about being observant. 40 People who can read the room know the right atmosphere, tone, and mood and are able to fit in.
A. Reading the room is a skill.
B. Suppose you are at a dinner party.
C. You will influence the moods of others.
D. Dining together is an important occasion.
E. Groups of people can also share a collective mood.
F. It is a way to show that he is behaving inappropriately.
G. You may need to read the room and change your behavior.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When Dad lost his job three years ago, everything changed. We had to leave our 41 house and move to a tiny apartment across the town. Standing in my new 42 , I felt angry at the world.
The inconveniences 43 quickly. Sharing a room with my younger brother meant no more 44 . The single bathroom became a 45 every morning. I'd wait 46 outside the door, watching the minutes tick by. The thin 47 meant we could hear every argument from the next room.
One morning, I found that my father was 48 about the rent we had to pay soon. He looked much smaller, with his head slightly 49 . At that moment, something 50 . Ifound myself thinking of our old house and realized how much I had 51 , but I had never felt grateful. So I decided to 52 myself. I began to help around the house and stopped asking for things I didn't need.
Sometimes I catch myself missing our old 53 , but when I look around this crowded apartment and see what's still here— Dad reading the newspaper, Mom singing in the kitchen,and my brother saving me the last piece of bread—I feel extremely 54 . We lost a house,but we didn't lose each other. I used to think happiness was about having enough space. NowI know it's about filling the space you have with 55 .
41. A. distant B. quiet C. empty D. spacious
42. A. school B. office C. room D. laboratory
43. A. piled up B. faded away C. stepped back D. showed off
44. A. relation B. privacy C. patience D. justice
45. A. playground B. shelter C. courtyard D. battlefield
46. A. irregularly B. impatiently C. secretly D. casually
47. A. walls B. clothes C. books D. tubes
48. A. excited B. curious C. worried D. regretful
49. A. knocked B. nodded C. turned D. bowed
50. A. failed B. disappeared C. clicked D. paused
51. A. possessed B. achieved C. demanded D. selected
52. A. behave B. enjoy C. punish D. change
53. A. friend B. life C.city D. job
54. A. lonely B. proud C . happy D. disappointed
55. A. courage B. gratitude C. honesty D. wisdom
第二节 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
China, as a global leader in renewable energy, has green production capacity that not only enriches its own energy supply, but also creates broad opportunities for many countries 56 (achieve) low-carbon, leapfrog development, helping build 57 clean and beautiful world.
In China, the world's largest electricity 58 (consume), one in every three kilowatt-hours of electricity comes from green energy sources, power ing daily life, while reshaping the national and global energy and industrial landscapes, according to the National EnergyAdministration (NEA).
China's total installed power-generating capacity reached 3.79 billion kW by the end ofNovember 2025, 59 (mark) a 17. 1 percent year-on-year increase, according to the NEA.Solar power capacity led the growth with a 41.9-percent year-on-year surge to 1. 16 billion kW, while wind power capacity 60 (expand) by 22.4 percent to 600 million kW.
China's new energy products and technologies, which are 61 high quality and affordable, meet the urgent need of developing countries for 62 (sustain) and affordable energy, offering a viable alternative to fossil fuels and paving a new path towards green development.
In Jordan, the 63 (country) cooperation with China on green energy is helpingJordan’ s Economic Modernization Vision for 2023-2033, 64 aims to spur growth, create jobs and reduce reliance on imported energy.
Thong Mengdavid, deputy director of the China-ASEAN(Association of Southeast AsianNations) Studies Center of the Cambodia. University of Technology and Science, said that the renewable energy equipment produced by China has driven down costs for solar, wind and battery technologies 65 (sharp) over the past decade.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节 (满分 15分)
假定你是李华,你校英文报正在举办以“My Plans for the Future”为题的征文活动。请你写一篇短文投稿，内容包括：
(1)介绍你的计划；
(2)谈谈你的决心。
注意：
(1)写作词数应为80个左右；
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
My Plans for the Future
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
My grandmother's hands were never still. I remember watching her sit by the window,holding tiny beads(珠子) and threads. With careful fingers, she would string them together,one by one, until they formed a small, beautiful charm.“This is not just a decoration,” she would say softly,“every bead holds a wish.”
I spent many afternoons beside her, sorting beads by color. She let me try stringing the beads together, but my threads always ended in a mess. I failed again and again, growing increasingly impatient. I frowned and gave up quickly, unwilling to practice any more. I did not understand why she worked so slowly and why every bead had to be just so. I put the threads and beads aside and never touched them again. To me, it was just playing with pretty things.
Time passed. I grew older and moved to the city. My grandmother worked alone. People no longer wanted handmade charms and bought shiny ones from shops. They were cheaper and looked more modern. I heard that my grandmother had stopped making them. She looked helpless and always felt down.
Then one winter, I came home and found her sitting in her old chair. The bead box was closed. Dust sat on the windowsill. She looked up and smiled, holding out her hand. In her hand lay a small and simple charm——a red bead with a silver thread. It was the first one I had ever made with her many years ago. I held it and felt something warm spread through my chest.
That night, I could not sleep. Memories of her warm hands and kind smiles filled my mind. I hated to see her beloved handcraft fade away as she grew old. I deeply wanted to carry on her skill but feared I was too clumsy to learn it. Torn between hope and worry, I finally calmed my heart. I realized love mattered more than anything else, so I decided I would askGrandma to teach me again.
注意：
(1)续写词数应为150个左右；
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
The next morning, I went to my grandmother's room, For the next two weeks, I sat beside her every day to learn her craft.
英语参考答案
听力部分录音材料
听力部分。该部分分为第一、第二两节。
注意：回答听力部分时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到答题卡上。
停顿00'10"
现在是听力试音时间。
M: Hello. International Friends Club. Can I help you
W: Oh, hello. I read about your club in the paper today and I thought I'd phone to find out a bit more.
M: Yes, certainly. Well, we are a sort of social club for people from different countries. It's quite a new club—— we have about 50 members at the moment, but we are growing all the time.
W: That sounds interesting. I'm British actually, and I came to Washington about three months ago. I'm looking for ways to meet people. Er, what kinds of events do you organize
M: Well, we have social get-togethers, and sports events, and we also have language evenings.
W: Could you tell me something about the language evenings
M: Yes. Every day except Thursday we have a language evening. People can come and practice their languages—— you know, over a drink or something. We have different languages on different evenings. Monday—— Spanish; Tuesday—— Italian; Wednesday——German; and Friday—— French. On Thursday we usually have a meal in a restaurant for anyone who wants to come.
W: Well, that sounds great. I really need to practice my French.
M:OK. Well, if you can just give me your name and address, I' ll send you the form and some more information. If you join now, you can have the first month free.
试音到此结束。
听力考试正式开始。
停顿00'10"
请看听力部分第一节。
第一节
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
停顿00'02"
例如：现在你有5秒钟的时间看试卷上的例题。
停顿 00'05"
你将听到以下内容：
M: Excuse me. Can you tell me how much the shirt is
W: Yes, it's nine fifteen.
停顿 00'02"
你将有5秒钟的时间将正确答案标在试卷上。
停顿 00'05"
衬衫的价格为9镑15 便士，所以你选择C项，并将其标在试卷上。
现在，你有5秒钟的时间阅读第1小题的有关内容。
停顿 00'05"
(Text 1)
M: Why are you leaving work so early today To buy some groceries before the supermarket gets crowded
W:I'm having some friends over tonight, so I' ve got to get my home in order.
(Text 2)
W: Hi, Kent. Are you looking through these travel brochures
M: Yes, I am. I won last month's sales competition. The grand prize is an all-expenses-paid vacation.
(Text 3)
M: This movie is really entertaining.
W: Not really. It is a bit flat.
M:I think the plot is interesting.
W:I'd rather watch something more action-packed.
(Text 4)
W:I noticed how many kids are dropping out of the football team. We' ve got to do something.
M:I agree. We should come up with some fun activities to keep them engaged and motivated.(Text 5)
W: You' re getting married soon, right When is the big day
M: Well, good question. It was September 10th at first, but then the 21st due to family issues. But there was a problem with that day too, so we changed it to five days later.
第一节到此结束。
第二节
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。现在，你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。
(Text 6)
M: What can I do for you, Miss
W:I'd like something for my neck pain.
M: Did you go to see a doctor and get some medicine
W: The doctor did give me some medicine, but none have worked, especially in winter. It's painful.
M: My wife had a similar issue but this new product helped her.
W: It's a bit expensive.
M: It's 6 each, or two for 10. Worth a try.
W:I' ll start with one box then.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。现在，你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。(Text 7)
W: May I watch TV It's a major badminton tournament at 2:00 pm.
M: Of course, I didn't know you were into sports.
W:I'm only fond of badminton. I'm excited to see Shi play. He's world-ranked and could climb higher with this match.
M: That sounds significant.
W: China has a strong presence in badminton, with numerous Olympic medals and world titles.
M: That's quite an achievement.
听下面一段对话，回答第11至第13三个小题。现在，你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。(Text 8)
W: It's a lovely day today! What would you like to do, Jerry
M: Perhaps we could go cycling.
W: Mm, I don't really like cycling. Why don't we go shopping in the downtown
M: That suits me. But it will take an hour or two. Shall we have a meal at the new restaurant first, and then go to the mall
W: Great! So, when should we meet How about 12:00
M: We'd better get to the restaurant a bit early because it has good business. There are always many customers waiting for seats. What about getting there by 11:00
W: Er, can I make it half an hour later I have to visit my grandma this morning and I don't think I can make it by then.
M: No problem. I' ll go straight to the restaurant and wait for you.
W: Great!
听下面一段对话，回答第14至第17四个小题。现在，你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。
(Text 9)
M: Hello, this is Carl Philips speaking. Who's that
W: Good evening, Mr Philips. I have great news for you. You are offered a special...
M: Oh, let me guess. You want to sell me a great deal on airfare to Hawaii, right Or, an unbelievable bargain on computer lessons
W: No, no. Actually, we want to offer you membership to our sports club in the downtown. You only need to spend fifty dollars.
M: Fifty dollars I thought you said free! Uh, listen. I'm not interested. There is no need for me to exercise in the club.
W: Well, it includes unlimited use of the weight rooms, swimming pool and...
M: Well, it has nothing to do with me. I have my own fitness program I do around the park nearby. So I don't need it at all.
W: But this is a good deal.
M: Like what I said, I' ll pass this time. And please put me on your“do not call” list.
W:OK. It' ll take me about two to three months before your name is removed from our computer. You might be called by another person during that time.
M: Oh, dear!
听下面一段独白，回答第18至第20三个小题。现在，你有15 秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
(Text 10)
M: Micky is one of the most famous musicians. He was born in Los Angeles, California to Mexican parents. When he was little, he taught himself to play the guitar, which he played for many years later. He was originally left-handed, but taught himself to play with his right hand. He also learned two other instruments. In 1958, someone heard his song and helped him make his first record. One song became an instant hit and is still considered one of the greatest songs of all time. Sadly, Micky died in a plane crash, along with two other famous musicians, Buddy and Richard. After a concert, some of the musicians decided to fly home.Unfortunately, there was only one small plane and not everyone could fit. Richard was given a seat because he was sick. Micky won a game with another musician, and Buddy knew the pilot. That accident made so many fans cry. Another musician wrote a beautiful song for them.
第二节到此结束。
现在，你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
听力部分到此结束。
试题答案
听力(共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)
1—5 BCAAC 6—10 CCABA 11—15 CBBAC 16—20 BACBA
阅读(共20小题；每小题2.5分，满分50分)
21—23 DCB
A篇：本文介绍了家庭医疗护理的相关情况。
21. D【解析】细节理解题。根据第二段第一句可知，注册护士主要负责执行静脉治疗、注射、伤口护理等医疗操作。
22. C【解析】细节理解题。根据第三段第一句可知，物理治疗师负责帮助患者恢复行动能力。
23. B【解析】推理判断题。根据最后一段第一句可知，选择家庭医疗护理服务时需要考虑护理需求和预算等因素。
24—27 ACCB
B篇：作者通过回忆童年时一家人在布莱克浦的度假经历，表达了对家庭温情和美好时光的怀念。
24. A【解析】细节理解题。根据第一段可知，作者的家庭属于普通工薪阶层，生活拮据，没有闲钱用于奢侈消费，但能维持基本生活开支。由此可知，当时作者一家过着朴素的生活。
25. C【解析】推理判断题。根据第二段最后一句可知，作者将乘坐火车远行描述为“难得的冒险”，并提到自己当时很少有机会乘火车去远方，可见这次旅程对他来说充满新奇，也让他激动不已。
26. C【解析】主旨大意题。第三段围绕作者家庭每年固定的度假安排展开，包括购买草莓、观看演出、父母跳舞等具体活动，主要讲述的是作者全家在布莱克浦的度假经历。
27. B【解析】推理判断题。通读全文可知，作者追忆童年岁月、在布莱克浦的温情假期与深厚的亲情，核心目的是回味温暖的家庭回忆。
28—31 BDBA
C篇：一项新研究发现，因研究假设存在偏差，此前的研究普遍低估了实际海平面高度。这意味着海平面上升将威胁更多人口。
28. B【解析】细节理解题。根据第二段第一句可知，研究发现约90%的研究低估了基准沿海水位高度，即实际海平面高度被误判。
29. D【解析】细节理解题。根据第三段第一句可知，研究人员做出错误假设的原因是海平面高度与陆地海拔的测量方式不同。
30. B【解析】词义推测题。根据画线词上下文语境可知，海洋受风力、潮汐、洋流等因素的持续影响。由此可知, roiled 在此处表示“扰乱”,与 disturbed 含义相近。
31. A【解析】推理判断题。最后一段指出，采用更精确的海岸高度基准后，海平面上升超过3英尺会导致被淹土地增加37%，并威胁到额外7，700万至1.32亿人。由此可推断，更多人正面临海平面上升的威胁。
32—35 DDAC
D篇：本文介绍了一款名为 Trovador的植树机器人。
32. D 【解析】细节理解题。根据第一段最后两句可知, Bernardino和 Mendon a目睹森林被大火烧毁，渴望修复被烧毁的森林，因此研发了 Trovador 机器人。
33. D 【解析】推理判断题。根据第二、三段可知，Bernardino和 Mendon a利用回收零件制作这台机器人。它植树速度快且栽种的树木的成活率高；它对土壤破坏小，能保护土壤环境，因此它高效且环保。
34. A 【解析】推理判断题。根据最后一段可知, Jerónimo 既肯定了 Trovador 的创新性与潜力，也指出了其在实际应用中有待改进的地方，所以 Jerónimo 对 Trovador 持有客观的态度。
35. C 【解析】主旨大意题。文章围绕 Bernardino和 Mendon a发明的机器人展开，介绍了该机器人能够到达人类无法企及的陡峭区域进行再造林，由此可知答案。
36——40 EGFA
七选五：本文介绍了英语习语“to read the room”的含义、用法及相关场景，说明读懂场合氛围是一项重要社交技能。
36. E【解析】E项(群体也可以拥有共同的情绪)承接上一句(情绪不仅仅属于个人)，起到了承上启下的作用,为下文介绍“to read the room”做了铺垫。
37. G【解析】G项(你可能需要读懂氛围并改变自己的行为)与上文(你处于一种傻乐的情绪中，然后进入一个严肃的工作会议)相呼应，说明了在此情境下个人需要观察并调整行为以匹配群体氛围。
38. F【解析】F项(这是一种表明他行为不得体的方式)与上文(如果某人似乎对群体的情绪毫无察觉，你可以告诉他去读懂氛围)相呼应，解释了该表达在用于提醒他人时的功能，即指出其行为与场合不符。
39. B【解析】B项(假设你在一个晚宴上)与下文(人们围坐在桌旁享受美食和交谈)相呼应，通过一个具体的宴会场景来举例说明“read the room”的使用情境。
40. A【解析】A项(读懂氛围是一项技能)与上文(这个表达关乎观察力)相呼应，同时引出下文(能够读懂氛围的人知道合适的氛围、语气和情绪，并能融入其中)，总结并强调了这一能力的重要性。
语言运用 第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
41——45 DCABD 46——50 BACDC 51——55 ADBCB》
完形填空：爸爸三年前失业后，我们从宽敞的房子搬到小公寓，我从不满、抱怨到理解家人，最终明白幸福不是拥有多大空间，而是用爱与感恩填满生活。
41. D【解析】考查形容词。我们不得不离开宽敞的房子，搬到镇子另一头的一间小公寓。
42. C【解析】考查名词。站在我的新房间里，我对世界感到愤怒。
43. A【解析】考查动词短语。不便之处很快越积越多。
44. B【解析】考查名词。和弟弟共用一间房意味着不再有隐私。
45. D【解析】考查名词。每天早上唯一的卫生间都变成了战场。
46. B【解析】考查副词。我会不耐烦地在门外等待，看着时间一分一秒地过去。
47. A【解析】考查名词。薄薄的墙意味着我们能听到隔壁房间的每一次争吵。
48. C【解析】考查形容词。一天早上，我发现父亲在为我们即将支付的租金而担忧。
49. D【解析】考查动词。他看起来矮小了许多，头微微低垂。
50. C【解析】考查动词。在那一刻，我恍然大悟。
51. A【解析】考查动词。我发现自己想起了老房子，意识到我曾拥有多少东西，却从未感恩。
52. D【解析】考查动词。所以我决定改变自己。
53. B【解析】考查名词。有时我发现自己怀念过去的生活，但看看这个拥挤的公寓里依然存在的一切——爸爸在看报，妈妈在厨房哼歌，弟弟把最后一片面包留给我——我感到无比幸福。
54. C【解析】考查形容词。解析参考上一题。
55. B【解析】考查名词。现在我明白了，幸福在于用感恩填满你所拥有的空间。
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
56. to achieve 57. a 58. consumer 59. marking 60. expanded
61. of 62. sustainable 63. country’ s 64. which 65. sharply
语法填空：中国绿色能源发展迅速，新能源产品惠及多国。中国生产的可再生能源设备显著降低全球相关能源技术成本。
56. to achieve 【解析】考查非谓语动词。本空须用动词不定式 to achieve作后置定语,修饰名词 opportunities。
57. a【解析】考查冠词。world在此处为可数名词，此处想表达的是“一个干净且美丽的世界”，因此要用不定冠词a修饰。
58. consumer 【解析】考查名词。根据本空前的 largest可知,此处须填入名词,而 consume的名词形式 consumer意为“消费者”。
59. marking 【解析】考查非谓语动词。mark与句子主语构成逻辑上的主动关系，所以此处用现在分词 marking作状语。
60. expanded 【解析】考查时态。根据上下文语境可知，此处描述过去的情况，须用一般过去时。
61. of 【解析】考查介词。be of +抽象名词结构表示“具有……的属性”。
62. sustainable 【解析】考查形容词。本空须用形容词修饰后面的名词 energy,而 sustain的形容词形式为 sustainable,意为“可持续的”。
63. country's【解析】考查名词所有格。根据句意可知，此处表示“约旦与中国的合作”，所以用名词所有格形式 country’ s。
64. which【解析】考查定语从句。这个句子是含有定语从句的复合句。先行词 Jordan'sEconomic Modernization Vision for 2023-2033 指物,关系词在非限制性定语从句中作主语,所以此处用关系代词 which引导这个定语从句。
65. sharply 【解析】考查副词。此处修饰宾语从句的谓语 has driven down,须用副词,而sharp的副词形式为 sharply,意为“急剧地”。
评分原则：
1.铅笔作答不给分。
2.有拼写或大小写错误的作答不给分。
3.所填词汇正确，但有形式错误的不给分。
4.英式、美式拼写均可给分。
5.除所列答案外，若试评过程中发现其他可接受答案，经评卷专家组讨论确认后也可给分。写作：
第一节(满分15分)
参考范文：
My Plans for the Future
As a senior three student, I have clear plans for my future. First of all, I will work hard to be admitted to my ideal university. I plan to choose a major that I am interested in and keep improving myself. Besides, I hope to take part in more meaningful activities to develop my abilities and serve society in the future.
To make my plans come true, I will be strict with myself. I will keep studying hard and never give up when facing difficulties. I am determined to hold on to my dreams and move forward step by step. I believe I will have a bright future.
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为15分，按五个档次进行评分。
2.评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
(1)对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性。
(2)使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
(3)上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3.评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4.评分时还应注意：
(1)词数少于 60个的，酌情扣分。
(2)单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(3)书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档(13——15分)
——覆盖了所有内容要点，表述清楚、合理。
——使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。
——有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档(10——12分)
——覆盖了所有内容要点，表述比较清楚、合理。
——使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档(7—9分)
——覆盖了大部分内容要点，有个别地方表述不够清楚、合理。
——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
——基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
基本达到了预期的写作目的
第二档(4—6分)
——遗漏或未清楚表述一些内容要点，或一些内容与写作目的不相关。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
——几乎不能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
未能达到预期的写作目的。
第一档(1—3分)
——遗漏或未清楚表述大部分内容要点，或大部分内容与写作目的不相关。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
完全未达到预期的写作目的。
零分
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容与题目要求完全不相关。
第二节(满分25分)
参考范文：
The next morning, I went to my grandmother's room. She was sitting by the window,looking out quietly. I took a deep breath and said,“Grandma, I want to learn your craft again. Please teach me.” She looked surprised and could hardly believe her ears. She asked gently why I had changed my mind. I told her I truly wanted to learn her craft and carry on her wishes. Hearing my words, she breathed a long sigh of relief, with warm tears in her eyes. She smiled and gladly agreed to teach me.
For the next two weeks, I sat beside her every day to learn her craft. She showed me how to choose the right beads and knot the thread carefully.“You must be patient,” she said.“A charm made in a hurry brings no luck.” At first, I failed many times and my works were messy. But I never gave up. Grandma never blamed me; instead, she guided my hands patiently just like before. With continuous practice, I finally made a beautiful charm. She praised me and said it carried a sincere wish. I felt proud and happy that her precious skill could be passed down through me.
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为25分，按五个档次进行评分。
2.评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
(1)创造内容的质量，续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
(2)使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
(3)上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3.评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4.评分时还应注意：
(1)词数少于120个的，酌情扣分。《
(2)单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(3)书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档(21——25分)
——创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。
——使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。
——有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
第四档(16——20分)
——创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高。
——使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档(11——15分)
——创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。
——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
——基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档(6——10分)
——内容或逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文情境有一定程度脱节。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
——未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第一档(1——5分)
——内容或逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
零分
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。

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