资源简介

山东省日照市2026届高三4月模拟考试（二模）英语试卷
本试卷共四部分，共 12页。满分150分。考试时间120分钟。
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将答题卡交回。
第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段录音。每段录音后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段录音后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。
1. What does the man remind the woman about
A. Visiting her parents. B. Playing tennis together. C. Looking for a new house.
2. What are the speakers probably doing
A. Playing a game. B. Repairing the stairs. C. Moving a sofa.
3. Which dish is ordered the most according to the man
A. Fish. B. Beef. C. Pork.
4. What needs to be fixed
A. The electric heater. B. The heating system. C. The plug.
5. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a lift. B. On a beach. C In a bookstore.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段录音，回答第6、7题。
6. Why was it hard for the speakers to talk on the phone
A. They were both busy with work.
B. The man was shouting too loudly.
C. The woman was unable to hear well.
7. What mistake did the woman make this morning
A. Playing her music too loud.
B. Leaving her headphones at home.
C. Talking on the phone for too long.
听第7段录音，回答第8至 10题。
8. What do we know about the woman's favorite teacher
A. He is knowledgeable.
B. He acts in Shakespeare plays.
C. He teaches biology in high school.
9. What does Nolan Smith probably do
A. He is a physicist. B. He is a repairman. C. He is a train driver.
10. How does the woman sound at the end of the conversation
A. Pleased. B. Disappointed. C. Sorry.
听第8段录音，回答第11至 13题。
11. What does the woman like doing during her stay at hotels
A. Sleeping. B. Doing exercise. C. Watching TV.
12. How long does this trip last
A.3d ays. B.5 days. C. 10 days.
13. What did the woman use her airline rewards for
A. A business trip to Florida.
B. A gift for her husband and kids.
C. A family vacation to Disney World.
听第9段录音，回答第14至 16题。
14. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Friends. B. Coach and player. C Teacher and student.
15. What place did the woman get in the mixed competition
A. The second place. B. The third place. C. The ninth place.
16. What does the man suggest the woman do
A. Play chess regularly. B. Join a chess club. C. Download a chess app.
听第10段录音，回答第17至20题。
17. How long has the speaker been at the scene
A. For 6 hours. B. For 3 hours. C. For 15 minutes.
18. What is the greatest concern for the rescue teams
A. The sharks might attack the rescuers.
B. The whale could sink a boat.
C. The net is too strong to cut.
19. Who is probably the speaker
A. A rescue worker. B. A news reporter. C. A fisherman.
20. What is the talk mainly about
A. A sea rescue of a fishing boat.
B. A dangerous shark attack in the sea.
C. A rescue operation for the trapped whales.
第二部分阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Maricopa County Home & Flower Show
Arizona's Largest Indoor Flower Show, combines vibrant floral(花) displays with more than 1,000 home improvement stands —— unlike anything the Valley has ever seen! ExploreArizona's best home improvement and internal design companies, breathtaking floral installations, shop local artisans, join in on interactive competitions, and so much more! Don't miss this award-winning event, and endless home & garden inspiration all in one place!
Shop & Explore
Covering 300,000 square feet, the Home Show brings together 1,000 Arizona companies,showcasing everything from kitchen decorations and landscaping to outdoor living solutions.With unmatched scale, variety, and expertise on hand, it's the go-to destination for Valley residents and homeowners seeking stylish, practical ideas for their homes and Arizona lifestyles.
The Floral Showcase —— A Show Within the Show
50,000 square feet of pure botanical grand view and featuring millions of petals(花瓣), theFloral Showcase transforms WestWorld into a fully immersive sensory experience. Towering floral sculptures, unusual designs, and live botanical competitions set the stage for a combination of color and creativity. Shop the Flower & Artisans’ Marketplace, snap a picture with Instagrammable photo ops, visit the Plant Bar, and more. New this year: the Plant Pavilion—— our largest collection of houseplant sellers ever —— with thousands of plants available for purchase, from rare to exotic and bonsai to tropicals, herbs, starters, and seedlings. The FloralShowcase isn't just an attraction —— it's the must-see event of the year.
Admission
Adult $13, Child (5-12)$3, Child (0-4)$0
Date & Location
May 1st, 2nd,& 3rd. WestWorld in Scottsdale. 16601 N Pima Rd. Scottsdale, AZ 852605.
Indoors, Air-Conditioned, Free Parking.
More information including daily activities schedule at www..
21. What can visitors do at the show
A. Take cooking lessons. B. Learn about home design.
C. Attend talks by local gardeners. D. Buy flowers at discounted prices.
22. Which is the new highlight of the Floral Showcase
A. The Plant Pavilion. B. Towering floral sculptures.
C. Live botanical competitions. D. The Flower & Artisans’ Marketplace.
23. What is the purpose of the text
A. To advertise an event. B. To report an exhibition.
C. To share an experience. D. To launch an initiative.
B
This summer, my fellow musicians and I listened to the slow movement of Beethoven'sString Quartet. From the first notes of this profound music, I was in tears. What I had experienced was complete immersion(沉浸) in music. Most of life's great moments are like this. We give our full attention to one thing and wonder at its beauty. Past disappointments and future worries disappear.
But in today's world, such moments are increasingly hard to come by. Our digital existence aims to distract our attention, flooding us with more information in less time than the human mind was designed to absorb. Music provides a unique escape from this constant flood of information. A great performance of music both takes us out of our heads and puts us in touch with our deepest selves. That's the magic of music.
That phrase——“the magic of music”—— is used frequently by the marketing teams of musical organizations. But often, their efforts to support that music reflect different priorities.Some teams have encouraged audiences to live-tweet performances. If you watch a concert on a livestream, you are often invited to chat with other viewers. Engagement first; listening second. Meanwhile, multidisciplinary and multimedia projects are increasingly in fashion. The message from programmers is clear: Audiences supposedly don't want to be immersed in the music. They are the customers, and the customer is always right.
) This is not a black-and-white issue. An art form should evolve, and some mixed-media projects are excellent. But if we lose our capacity to focus deeply on music, we lose one of the greatest gifts we are granted as human beings. When promotion focuses only on supply and demand, it creates a vicious cycle: The less we are able to pay attention, the less we are asked to. pay attention, which only degrades our attention further.
While marketing teams talk about magic, classical music organizations try hard to present themselves as relevant. This is understandable. No one wants to be irrelevant. Yet true relevance isn't just keeping up with the times by driving us deeper into our devices. It comes from embracing music's power to immerse us in a world of possibility and wonder.
24. What does the underlined phrase“such moments” in paragraph 2 refer to
A. Listening to Beethoven's music. B. Being totally lost in one thing.
C. Crying over profound music. D. Being flooded with information.
25. What do some musical marketing teams emphasize
A. Music's power. B. Live performances.
C. Customers' rights. D. Audience interaction.
26. What does the author imply in paragraph 4
' Art forms are undergoing diverse changes.
B. Customers' demands should be a top priority.
C. Poor marketing strategies worsen people's concentration.
D. Human beings are losing their ability to appreciate music.
27. What does the author mainly want to tell us
1. Digital devices disturb full concentration.
B. The magic of music deserves our full attention.
C. Music organizations advocate digital promotion.
D. Mixed-media projects ruin listening experiences.
C
While“chaos gardening” became a viral social media trend in 2023, its core philosophy of letting nature lead has come to stay —— it's a return to time-honored ecological gardening principles, reimagined for modern homeowners. Unlike strictly planned, pesticide-reliant gardens, this approach rejects inflexible design, instead sowing a diverse mix of seeds and embracing the unpredictability of natural growth.
Far from mere“messy gardening”, the practice is rooted in ecological science: a diverse plant community creates layered habitats that support pollinators(授粉者), soil microbes, and native wildlife. As climate anxiety and biodiversity loss grow, chaos gardening has emerged as an accessible solution for ordinary people to contribute to ecosystem restoration. It eliminates the need for artificial chemicals, reduces water pollution, and captures carbon. As Dr. RebeccaHartman, an ecologist at Washington University, puts it,“What looks like randomness to the untrained eye is actually a complicated web of ecological relationships. Chaos gardening taps into that complexity instead of fighting it.”
Critics often dismiss it as unmanaged neglect(忽视), but successful chaos gardening requires intentionality, not inaction. The key lies in selecting native, locally adapted seed mixes:non-native invasive species can outcompete native plants, disturbing local ecosystems, while carefully chosen native plants provide sustained food and shelter for local pollinators. Results are naturally variable —— some gardens bloom into lively wildflower fields, others evolve into food-producing landscapes, making each space a unique ecological experiment. Landscape designer Marcus Chen. who has applied chaos gardening principles to over fifty residential projects, notes,“People are surprised when I tell them that a‘wild’ garden often takes more thoughtful planning than a traditional one. You' re not abandoning care —— you' re redirecting it toward the right plant choices and then stepping back.”
For beginners, it offers a low-pressure entry to gardening, free from the pressure of perfection. It's more than a gardening style; it's a mindset shift, inviting people to observe,adapt, and coexist with nature, rather than control it. In an era of environmental crisis, chaos gardening turns small, personal outdoor spaces into agents of ecological hope.
28. How does the author present the core idea of chaos gardening in the first paragraph
A. By listing its benefits. B. By introducing its origin.
C. By showing its popularity. D. By describing its practices.
29. What does Dr. Hartman say about chaos gardening
A. It restores the ecological balance. B. It upsets ecological relationships.
C. It employs ecological networks. D. It reduces ecological complexity.
30. Why does the author quote Marcus Chen
A. To highlight intentional efforts. B. To support critics’ opinions.
C. To advise growing native seeds. D. To show the benefits of wild gardens.
31. What can be the suitable title for the text
A. Messy Ways, Clear Results B. Chaos Planted, Hope Grown
C. Wild Looks, Wise Planning D. Nature Leading, Diversity Lost
D
Every time you crowd into a packed plane, you might wonder if you will catch something from the person sitting next to you —— or a few rows away. You' re not alone: researchers share that curiosity.
Erica, associate professor at Northwestern University, and her colleagues tried to find out by testing face masks worn by passengers on flights to document what kinds of bugs they trapped. The team was also interested in the air circulating in hospitals and tested face masks worn by hospital staff. They collected 53 masks for analysis.
They detected 407 total microbial(微生物) species from both the plane and hospital settings, with similar populations of bugs from each. The vast majority of these came from skin and are harmless, says Erica. She says most airborne microbes come from our skin, as we shed(使掉落) them everywhere we go.
The kits that the team used were designed to collect DNA, so that meant the researchers primarily captured bacteria—— not viruses, many of which have RNA as their genetic base (like influenza). Erica says that viruses likely make up a smaller proportion of microbes in the air than bacteria, since people shed more skin bacteria than virus particles. She notes that viruses tend to heavily depend on the right habitat in order to thrive, and once outside the body and away from cells that they can infect, they can become slightly less pernicious.
The results of the study highlight the importance of developing better ways to monitor the air for disease-causing pathogens(病原体), including viruses, using sensing systems that could provide more real-time readings.“Imagine something like a gas alarm that, depending on the levels of microbes present, could automatically increase air-exchange rates or alert people to put on masks,” says Erica.
Erica hopes people will remember that the air —— even in tight places like a plane or hospital —— may not be as full of disease-causing bacteria as we think. Still, if you are worried about getting sick, face masks are an effective way to protect yourself from pathogens, as well as protecting you from spreading bacteria to others if you are ill.
32. Why did Erica and her colleagues carry out the study
A. To compare bugs in different settings.
B. To design a new air conditioning system.
C. To explore infection risks in specific places.
D. To prove that using face masks is ineffective.
33. How did the team collect data for their research
A. By examining DNA from skin samples.
B. By tracking viruses spread among patients.
C. By checking air quality inside the airplanes.
D. By testing face masks from different groups.
34. What does the underlined word“pernicious” most probably mean in paragraph 4
A. Rare. B. Harmful. C. Visible. D. Stable.
35. What can be inferred from the last paragraph
A. Viruses are the main microbes in the air.
B. Real-time air monitoring is now widely used.
C. Shed skin spreads more bacteria than viruses.
D. People needn't overreact to the air in tight spaces.
第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Do you treat new attempts like jumping into a cold pool You stand there for ages,thinking about it, planning for it, making emotional speeches about it, yet you still don't jump in. 35 This way of thinking means you stop waiting for the perfect time, or the perfect idea or the perfect version of yourself. You simply start —— even if your work is a little messy.
Many people think perfectionism is a good thing. It sounds impressive, and it makes you seem serious and thoughtful. But sometimes perfectionism is just fear wearing glasses and carrying a clipboard, telling you,“Don't begin until everything is just right.”
This is true in almost every part of life. Maybe you want to be a videographer, writer, or musician —— or perhaps you just want to speak in public without feeling like your soul has left your body. 38 First attempts rarely are. The good news is that action teaches faster than overthinking. When you actually do something, you get feedback. 30 That's how we grow: not by waiting until we' re“naturally good,” but by being brave enough to be a little bad first.
40 It involves doing your best, sending it out, and learning from the result. We' re all works in progress. So go ahead. Start before you feel ready because, in real life, done beats perfect almost every time. Jump in. The water is just fine.
A. You see what works and what doesn't.
B. Taking action anyway doesn't mean being careless.
C. But you' re worried that your work won't be remarkable.
D.Finishing and presenting something slightly messy is fine.
E A perfect start is surely better than completed imperfect effort.
F. The problem is that nothing becomes excellent without a beginning.
G. That's where the mindset of taking action anyway becomes important.
第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
In the middle of 2017, overwhelmed by the stresses of living and working in London,Jessica Robson began returning every weekend to her parents’ home in East Sussex, where her mum would 41 her out for Sunday runs.“I found I was 42 far more when running with my mum than I was in my therapy(治疗) sessions in London,” she recalls.
By autumn she had the 43 to see if there were others who wanted to use running the way she did —— as a 44 space to talk about mental health. A callout to friends was met with 45 , so she called the idea Run Talk Run and started asking 46 on the internet instead.
47 , Robson would wait near London Bridge every Thursday evening with a 5K in mind. As a small 48 developed, she moved the base to a gym in Southwark, and developed some 49 : run as slow as the slowest runner and be there to 50 , not advise;it's friend-to-friend support, not 51 help. Robson stresses she is neither a therapist nor a running 52 .
In 2018, Jennie Oliver 53 Run Talk Run on Instagram and asked Robson if she could set up a second group in Peterborough. It has carried on 54 that way. Run Talk Run now includes 150 volunteer-led groups worldwide.“It's so 55 to watch others speak freely and become more confident,” Robson says.
41. A. drag B. leave C. pick D. send
42. A. going through B. asking for C. taking in D. opening up
43. A. reason B. option C. strength D. courage
44. A. familiar B. safe C. rare D. quiet
45. A. enthusiasm B. criticism C. silence D. praise
46. A. colleagues B. partners C. strangers D. fans
47. A. Instantly B. Initially C. Eventually D. Temporarily
48. A. audience B. following C. population D. family
49. A. guidelines B. interests C. orders D. theories
50. A. learn B. run C. listen D.compete
51. A. financial B. emotional C. moral D. professional
52. A. coach B. athlete C. organizer D. sponsor
53. A. promoted B. found C. upgraded D. tracked
54. A. surviving B. sharing C. growing D. exploring
55. A. pleasant B. fortunate C. appealing D. memorable
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
China's cutting-edge technological innovations have reshaped traditional agriculture into an intelligent, precision-driven industry. These advanced technologies 56 (break) through the long-standing barriers of traditional farming and brought transformative changes to rural production in recent decades. 57 (integrate) satellite remote sensing, big data analytics and autonomous agricultural machinery, modern farming systems, which experts label 58smart agriculture”, have greatly boosted the overall competitiveness of the agricultural industry.
Unmanned tractors and drones have been used on 59 massive scale in major grain-producing regions. They work efficiently around the clock and 60 (huge) reduce the heavy burden on farmers. These intelligent devices enable scientific fertilization and irrigation, minimizing resource waste while maximizing crop yields in an eco-friendly manner, 61 also helps protect the delicate ecological environment in rural areas.
The remarkable thing about this technological transformation is what effectively addresses62 (challenge) such as labor shortages and soil degradation, the very problems that have seriously restricted agricultural progress and affected farmers’ daily production.“We are not merely upgrading equipment,” a senior agronomist stresses,“ 63 revolutionizing an entire agricultural ecosystem from seeding to harvesting.”
China's agriculture 64 (power) with continuous technological breakthroughs has witnessed stable and high-quality development in recent years, laying a solid foundation for national food 65 (secure) and sustainable rural revitalization(振兴).
第四部分写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
假定你是校英文广播站负责人李华，你校将于下周举办以“Labor Makes OurCampus Shine”为主题的实践活动。请你写一篇宣传稿，内容包括：
(1)活动内容和意义；
(2)呼吁积极参加。
注意：
(1)写作词数应为80个左右；
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Labor Makes Our Campus Shine
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Elara had long been well-known for her sympathy and willingness to reach out to the marginalized(边缘群体). On many weekends, she devoted her spare time to a local charity,assisting with the distribution of daily supplies and providing company to those living rough.
One bitterly cold evening in late January, a sharp wind swept through the streets.Passersby buried their chins in their scarves and hurried along, desperate to escape the bitter cold. As she passed an abandoned alley(小巷), Elara caught sight of a thin figure in the corner.It was a middle-aged woman, wrapped in a ragged blanket that hardly protected her from the freezing wind. Her cheeks were flushed with cold, and beside her lay only a few worn belongings. It was obvious that she had been homeless for a long time.
A surge of pity overwhelmed Elara. She thought of her warm home, the steaming meals prepared by her family, and the warm bed she had always taken for granted. In sharp contrast,this stranger had none of these comforts.“Are you okay ” she approached gently and asked.The woman lifted her head, her eyes clouded with weariness.“Just trying to get through the night,” she whispered.“And I' ve been wandering the streets for months, going hungry and struggling to survive the cold nights.”
Elara’ s heart ached.“Wait here,” she said. She rushed to a nearby shop and used her savings to buy a cup of hot soup, a warm bread roll and a thick pair of gloves. Handing them over, she said,“This should warm you up a bit—— take your time, it's all yours.” The woman's eyes watered with tears, her lower lip trembling slightly as she took the items.“Thank you,dear—— you have no idea how much this means,” she murmured, her voice thick with émotion.
注意：
(1)续写词数应为150个左右；
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
But to Elara's surprise, the woman did not rush to eat or drink. Witnessing the woman's selflessness, Elara decided to do more.
2023级高三模拟考试
英语参考答案
第一部分听力(共20小题；每题1.5分，满分30分)
1-5ACBBA 6-10 CAABA 11-15 BBCAC 16-20ACBBC
第二部分阅读(共20小题；每题2.5分，满分50分)
21—23 BAA 24—27 BDCB 28—31 DCAC 32—35 CDBD 36—40 GFCAB
第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
41—45 ADDBC 46—50CBBAC 51—55 DABCA
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
56. have broken 57. Integrating 58. as 59. a 60. hugely
61. which 62. challenges 63. but 64. powered 65. security
评分标准：57题首字母不大写不得分，其它与答案不符不得分。
第四部分写作(满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为15分，按6个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.词数少于 60的，从总分中减去2分。
4.评分时，应注意的主要内容：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6.如书写较差，以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第六档(13—15分)：完全完成了试题规定的任务，完全达到了预期的写作目的。
——覆盖所有内容要点。
——应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
——语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。
——有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
第五档(10—12分)：完全完成了试题规定的任务，达到了预期的写作目的。
——虽漏掉一两个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
——应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
第四档(7—9分)：基本完成了试题规定的任务，整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
——虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
——应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
第三档(4—6分)：未恰当完成试题规定的任务，信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
——漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
——语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
——较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
第二档(1—3分)：未完成试题规定的任务，信息未能传达给读者。
——明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
——语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
——较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
——缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
第一档(0分)
——未能传达给读者任何信息。内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
三、参考范文
Labor Makes Our Campus Shine
Dear fellow students,
I'm Li Hua from the school English Broadcasting Station. I'm glad to tell you that our school will hold a practical activity themed“Labor Makes Our Campus Shine" next week. We welcome all of you to join us.
The activity includes campus cleaning, such as picking up rubbish and tidying lawns. We will also experience labor skills like looking after campus plants and simple handcrafts. This activity helps us understand the value of labor, form good habits, and improve our practical skills and sense of responsibility.
Let's work together to beautify our campus. We look forward to your active participation!
注意：评分时对宣传稿格式不做要求。
第二节(满分25分)
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为25分，按七个档次进行评分。
2.评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑。
(1)续写内容的质量、完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度；
(2)所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性；
(3)上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3. 评分时，应先根据作答的整体情况确定其所属的档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4.评分时还应注意：
(1)词数少于120的，酌情扣分；
(2)书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分；
(3)单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑，英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第七档(22—25分)
——创造了新颖、丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高；
——使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达流畅，语言错误很少，且完全不影响理解；
——自然有效地使用了段落间、语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，前后呼应，意义连贯。
第六档(18—21分)
——创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高；
——使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达比较流畅，有个别错误，但不影响理解；
——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第五档(15—17分)
——创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关；
——使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达方式不够多样性，表达有些许错误，但基本不影响理解；
——使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第四档(11—14分)
——创造了基本完整的故事内容，但有的情节不够合理或逻辑性不强，与原文情境基本相关；
——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有部分语言错误和不恰当之处，个别部分影响理解；
——尚有语句衔接的意识，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第三档(6—10分)
——内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文有一定程度脱节；
——所用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多且比较低级，影响理解；
——未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义欠连贯。
第二档(1—5分)
——内容和逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节；
——所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构单调，错误极多，严重影响理解；
——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
第一档(0分)
——未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。
三、参考范文
But to Elara's surprise, the woman did not rush to eat or drink. Instead, she struggled to her feet and limped deeper into the dark alley, holding the warm food tightly. Curious and concerned, Elara followed quietly and saw several other homeless figures crouched in the shadows—— an elderly man, a young mother with a child. The woman knelt down and shared the bread and soup among them, her face lit with a warm kind smile.“We look after each other here,” she said softly. Seeing such extraordinary generosity from someone who had nothing, Elara stood frozen, tears welling up in her eyes.
Witnessing the woman's selflessness, Elara decided to do more. She immediately pulled out her mobile phone and contacted the charity she worked for, proposing an emergency relief program for the homeless. With her colleagues’ support, she organized a weekend donation drive, calling on the community to donate blankets,warm clothes, and ready-to-eat meals. She also shared the woman's story on social media, which touched thousands of hearts. Within a week, supplies flooded in, and volunteers lined up to help. Elara realized that one small act of kindness could inspire a wave of compassion powerful enough to change people's lives.

展开更多......

收起↑