资源简介

绝密★考试结束前
姓名 准考证号
2026年宝鸡市高考模拟检测试题（三）
英语
（试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟）
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，请将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Which topic are the speakers mainly talking about
A. An activity. B. The scenery. C. The weather.
2. What time does the bus usually arrive
A. 8:15. B. 8:20. C. 8:30.
3. What will the woman do this weekend
A. Help someone with his study.
B. Finish her homework.
C. Hike with the man.
4. What does the man think of the shirt
A. Outdated. B. Cheap. C. Fashionable.
5. Where are the speakers probably
A. In a classroom. B. In a library. C. In a store.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答6、7小题。
6. What’s the man doing
A. Checking the engine. B. Filling the oil tank. C. Changing the tire.
7. How does the man sound in the end
A. Confident. B. Confused. C. Hesitant.
听第7段材料，回答8至10小题。
8. What’s wrong with the woman’s old cellphone
A. There are spots on the screen.
B. Its battery dies instantly.
C. It runs out of memory.
9. What will the woman probably do with her old cellphone
A. Sell it to be recycled. B. Keep it at home. C. Throw it away.
10. What concerns the man greatly
A. Overspending on electronics.
B. Lack of heavy metals.
C. Electronic waste.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What kind of products will Bob sell in his shop
A. Fruits and vegetables.
B. Varieties of snacks.
C. Fish and chips.
12. How will the man appeal to customers
A. By inviting a famous star.
B. By providing free snacks.
C. By giving discounts.
13. What will the woman do to support the man
A. Serve the customers on the opening day.
B. Prepare for the opening ceremony.
C. Buy some snacks in his shop.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. Which positions does the football team need most
A. Defenders and midfielders.
B. Goalkeepers and forwards.
C. Captains and substitutes.
15. What is required of beginners
A. Professional experience.
B. Tailored equipment.
C. A positive attitude.
16. When are the tryouts
A. This Sunday at 2 p.m.
B. This Saturday at 3 p.m.
C. Next Saturday at 3 p.m.
17. What’s the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Coach and student. B. Team members. C. Classmates.
听第10段材料，回答18至20小题。
18. Which of the common challenges are senior citizens facing
A. New technology. B. Daily chores. C. Mental health.
19. What can robots do to ensure the safety of old people
A. Detect falls and call doctors.
B. Repair household appliances.
C. Drive them to appointments.
20. Why do robots enter the life of the elderly
A. To improve the quality of their life.
B. To entertain them with games.
C. To replace their caregivers.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
A chocolate-filled hotel room that money simply cannot buy is being offered to the “world’s sweetest person” as part of a new campaign launched across Europe. The fortunate winner will enjoy an immersive stay in the chocolate-themed rooms, as though they’ve walked straight into the world of Willy Wonka and the Chocolate Factory.
Sounds sweet Here’s what to expect at the hotel
The hotel will showcase messages of connection, kindness and inspiration in every corner. Guests will also be given a special two-piece chocolate bar, including a limited-edition white and milk chocolate flavour with caramel and sea salt, exclusive to the pop-up in The Social Hub Amsterdam City.
Guests can then keep one bar and give the other away as an act of kindness. The stay also includes a “wake-up call” about exploitation in the West African cocoa supply chain.
How to enter
For the opportunity to experience the chocolate hotel, residents from the UK, the Netherlands, and Germany can submit nominations via the Instagram accounts of The Social Hub and Tony’s Chocolonely between March 5 and 12.
A judging panel (评审团) from both companies, Chocolate brand Tony’s Chocolonely and hospitality group The Social Hub, will choose one winner from each country. The room will be revealed on March 20 and available for 10 days. Enthusiasts in Amsterdam can also visit the space on March 29 from 1 pm onwards.
Pre-booking through The Social Hub website will be necessary for visits, though fans won’t be permitted to stay overnight unless they secure victory in the competition. Trix van der Vleuten, Chief Marketing Officer at The Social Hub, commented: “The world feels increasingly divided. We’re more digitally connected than ever, yet loneliness is rising.
What we matter most
“We wanted to come together with Tony’s to showcase that sweetness-simple, human kindness-matters more than ever, and that people can enjoy our products whilst positively impacting society.”
She added: “Doing good makes you feel good. So does eating chocolate that’s produced fairly, and so does spending time in a one-of-a-kind choco hotel room with someone else.
21. What is special about the hotel room
A. It can be booked online at a low price. B. It is designed with a chocolate theme.
C. It provides free chocolate every day. D. It is open to tourists all year round.
22. What is required for Amsterdam visitors
A. Pre-booking on the website. B. Winning the competition first.
C. Staying overnight in the hotel. D. Posting photos on Instagram.
23. What message does the campaign try to send
A. Loneliness is on the increase. B. Chocolate is good for mood.
C. Kindness carries immense value. D. Digital connection will battle loneliness.
B
“Dorothy, my father’s mom, was my biggest influence growing up. A home cook in the truest form, she taught me how to cook,” said Kaysen, who’s based in Minneapolis. “She loved taking care of us, cooking for us and showing me how.”
His parents both had demanding jobs, so Kaysen took on dinner duty to take one thing off their plates, tapping into what he learned from his grandma and bringing his family around the dinner table at the end of a long day.
One cold winter day decades ago, “Everyone came in from outside to warm up together over this meal,” he recalled. “I had already known that this meal felt like a hug in a bowl. But at that moment, it clicked that cooking can be the basis of connection.”
To this day, “I can feel her energy every time I cook and eat that dish.” Kaysen didn’t realize it at the time, but his grandmother was giving him a master class in key techniques that would serve him well in his cooking career. Chicken and dumplings displays how to make chicken stock, how to cut different shapes of vegetables, how to make a roux, and more, Kaysen said.
Sure, “there are a lot of similarities between how I cook in all areas of my life. At the end of the day, it’s all about nurturing people. Whether that’s in the kitchen in my house or at restaurants, that’s the goal. The only difference would be my kids are very quick to tell me if they do not like something,” Kaysen said, laughing.
As for chicken and dumplings, in Minnesota you can buy a ready-to-bake, single-serving chicken pot pie at Bellecour. It uses almost the same recipe, but instead of having dumplings mixed in, the filling is put inside a pastry crust. And anyone can make this dish at home using the recipe below, which Kaysen is glad to share.
“I think it’s extremely important to record and carry on family recipes. We are only as great as those who came before us, and I carry on my grandma’s memory through her recipes,” Kaysen said. “Everything I learn is on the shoulders of someone who came before me, and this is a way I can honor that.”
24. Why did Kaysen start to cook dinner for his family
A. His grandma asked him to do so. B. His parents were too busy with work.
C. He wanted to practice cooking skills. D. His family liked his cooking.
25. What did Kaysen realize on that cold winter day
A. Cooking can bring people together. B. Chicken and dumplings are delicious.
C. Winter is a good time to have hot meals. D. His grandma’s cooking was the best.
26. What does the underlined word “that” in the last paragraph refer to
A. The family connection. B. The earlier generations
C. The grandmother’s memory. D. The cooking skill.
27. What is the text
A. A novel. B. An advertisement. C. A news report. D. A biography.
C
China transforms into one of the most vital human landscapes in the modern world during the Spring Festival season. Often described as the world’s largest annual migration, it is now evolving into a powerful international tourism phenomenon, attracting growing numbers of foreign visitors eager to experience the celebration firsthand.
The Spring Festival is the most important social occasion in Chinese culture. It is not confined to a single day but extends over weeks of preparation and celebration. Rooted in values of family reunion, respect for elders and renewal of social bonds that stretch back thousands of years, it represents far more than a holiday; it is a cultural institution. For the Chinese people, returning to their hometowns before the Chinese New Year’s Eve reunion dinner is both a moral and emotional responsibility. The family remains the nucleus of cultural and spiritual stability in a society that has rapidly urbanized, and the Chinese New Year’s Eve dinner, where generations gather around one table, continues to be the emotional heart of the celebration.
The Spring Festival travel rush, known as chunyun, reflects both cultural continuity and economic vitality. In 2026 alone, authorities projected that it could be the largest Spring Festival travel rush in history, with cross-regional passenger trips expected to reach 9.5 billion. Railway travel accounted for more than 540 million trips, while air travel catered to nearly 95 million passengers. These figures are not merely logistical statistics; they demonstrate the strength of China’s household economy, the integration of vast regional networks and the complexity of transport infrastructure (基础设施), from expressways crossing mountains and plains to the world’s most extensive high-speed rail system and interconnected airport hubs.
Today, this powerful cultural energy is no longer experienced only by locals. Increasingly, international travelers have arrived to witness and participate in these traditions. For foreign visitors, witnessing this scale of movement is itself part of the experience, offering a vivid example of how tradition and modern organization coexist. Amid this Spring Festival holidays, China has increasingly positioned itself as a global holiday destination. Flight bookings to China by foreign tourists had surged more than 400 percent compared with the same period last year. International visitors are drawn by traditional Chinese New Year cuisine, festive customs and temple fairs, cultural performances and handicrafts, unique winter landscapes in northern China, and warm-weather escapes in the south.
28. What drives Chinese people to return to their hometowns before the Spring Festival
A. The need to join the world’s largest annual migration.
B. The desire to experience winter landscapes in the north.
C. The heartfelt and family-bound duty to share a dinner on New Year’s Eve.
D. The interest in combining beach holidays with cultural performances.
29. What can be learned from the chunyun statistics in 2026
A. Most travelers prefer warm-weather destinations like Hainan.
B. More people choose to settle in big cities during the holiday.
C. Air travel has become the most popular means of transportation.
D. China’s transport system and economy are highly developed.
30. What can be inferred from the sharp increase in foreign flight bookings to China
A. Foreign tourists are no longer interested in urban tourism.
B. Spring Festival traditions are attracting more global visitors.
C. The growth in air travel is mainly due to domestic tourists.
D. Chinese youth prefer traveling abroad during the holiday.
31. What is the passage mainly about
A. The tourism boom in both northern and southern during Spring Festival.
B. The record-breaking number of passenger trips during chunyun.
C. The cultural importance of Spring Festival and its rise as a global event.
D. The role of family reunion in China’s urbanization process.
D
Astronauts on spacewalks may soon be able to drink their own urine(尿液), thanks to a water filtration and recycling system that could be ready in time for NASA’s upcoming crewed missions to the moon.
Wastewater from urine and sweat is already recycled on the International Space Station (ISS), but the huge equipment required for this doesn’t fit in a spacesuit. NASA’s current solution is the Maximum Absorbency Garment, which, despite the technical name, is essentially just an adult diaper(尿布) for collecting urine and faeces. At the end of a spacewalk, these diapers go into the ISS’s waste system, eventually being burnt up in Earth’s atmosphere-an unsatisfactory waste of resources.
Chris Mason at Cornell University in New York says the current solution is fine for spacewalks that tend to last only a few hours, but increasing activity in space means a better solution will be needed. He and his colleagues have now developed an 8-kilogram device around the size of a shoe box that can recycle urine-collected by unisex external catheters (导尿管) - with 87 percent efficiency through a two-step osmosis filter.
The purified water is then ready to drink and can be piped into an in-suit bag. This has the additional benefit of ensuring a steady supply of drinking water: the current NASA spacesuits hold just under a single litre, which is often insufficient for along spacewalk. The remaining 13 percent of the drinking water content can’t be extracted and remains in the filter.
“I thought this would have been done already, but it’s not,” says Mason. “People that are pushing the limits of humanity will often trade discomfort for the opportunity to explore an entirely new area of science or medicine”.
The filtration technique is the same one that is already used on the ISS. But the team says it is easier to extract water from pure urine as it doesn’t include soaps and chemicals, unlike the ISS wastewater. Extracting water from stool isn’t “totally solved” yet, but this is less of a limitation because astronauts often claim to simply hold bowel movements in during spacewalks, says Mason.
Currently, the device is a model tested only in the laboratory, but human trials that include collecting urine, recycling it and drinking the resulting water will begin by November.
The researchers say the device could be built into new versions of spacesuits that are planned for NASA’s upcoming Artemis missions to the moon.
NASA has contracted a private company, Axiom Space, to build its new suits, but the firm declined to answer New Scientist’s questions about how it would be dealing with human waste. NASA didn’t respond to a request for comment.
32. What is the main problem with the current ISS water system for spacewalks
A. It is too large and heavy to be integrated into a spacesuit.
B. It is not designed to fit into current spacesuits.
C. It needs complex chemicals to process waste.
D. It may not be sufficient for longer spacewalks.
33. What is paragraph 3 mainly about
A. Longer missions in space call for improved waste systems.
B. A two-step filter can remove almost all urine waste.
C. A new lightweight device turns urine into drinking water.
D. Urine collection has improved with new external catheters.
34. What is Mason’s attitude toward the current waste method during spacewalks
A. It works fine for short missions but needs improvement.
B. It is perfectly adequate and requires no further changes.
C. It is acceptable as astronauts are willing to endure discomfort.
D. It represents a significant step forward in space technology.
35. What can be inferred about the new urine-recycling device
A. It will replace the adult diaper currently used on spacewalks.
B. Axiom Space is considering integrating it into their spacesuits.
C. It has undergone laboratory testing with human participants.
D. It will likely be used in future spacesuits for moon missions.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Chasing colors
When you grow too familiar with the city you live in, it’s easy to overlook the scenery during your daily walks. But what if your next footstep came with a small twist — following a specific color as your guide
This idea, known as a “color walk”, has recently gained popularity on social media both in China and abroad. 36 .
As the trend spreads, many netizens have begun sharing photos online, while some cities have released color-walk guides for residents.
37 . In Shenzhen, Guangdong province, for example, those searching for pink might find bougainvillea in Shenzhen International Garden and Flower Expo Park, or trumpet-shaped flowers along parks and roads. 38 .
But beyond the colors themselves, this simple activity may also lead to unexpected discoveries. 39 . “After a whole day of color walking, the world felt brand new,” one netizen wrote on Sina Weibo. “Places I used to overlook suddenly seemed worth noticing — a yellow bicycle under a tree, or a yellow taxi parked behind a house.”
40 . Sometimes, all it takes is a single color to turn an ordinary walk into a small act of rediscovery.
A. Participants choose a single color and challenge themselves to spot objects, buildings, and scenery in that hue along the way.
B. In Yichang, Hubei province, nearly 40,000 square meters of rapeseed blossoms form a bright yellow sea beneath the blue sky.
C. Many find that this focused observation brings back a sense of freshness to familiar routes.
D. This practice turns an ordinary walk into a more engaging and mindful experience.
E. It encourages people to see their surroundings from a different angle.
F. City governments are also using this trend to promote local tourism.
G. The idea was first introduced by an artist in the United States.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Liam Rosenior’s team had just lost their fourth straight game, 3-0. Before this latest 41 , the team had suffered a heavy loss in Europe and a home defeat. The media criticized him harshly, and fans voiced their anger online. Facing all the outside 42 , Rosenior told his players to “forget it.”
Rosenior, who 43 the team in January, admitted negativity but noted they had 44 17 points from 10 league games, ranking fourth during that period. He stressed staying calm, seeing the international break as a good time to 45 . He also pointed out defensive mistakes that 46 goals to the opponent, saying changes must be made 47 .
During the break, James Garner, a team member, earned his first national team call-up (入选) with an excellent performance, 48 it a dream week. Rosenior used Garner’s example to 49 the team that staying strong could lead to good results. The team returned to training with renewed 50 .
After the break, they had seven games to 51 a good finish. Rosenior’s message was clear: keep focused, 52 from mistakes, and trust the process. As Garner’s success showed, personal and group 53 could turn a season around. By forgetting the noise and concentrating on what they could control, they achieved a(n) 54 comeback. Rosenior later said that the team’s belief never dropped, even after the 55 losses.
41. A. victory B. setback C. celebration D. training
42. A. praise B. noise C. support D. advice
43. A. took over B. looked over C. came across D. got through
44. A. lost B. selected C. favored D. earned
45. A. train B. warn C. reflect D. delay
46. A. saved B. gifted C. blocked D. scored
47. A. quickly B. slowly C. secretly D. gradually
48. A. marking B. naming C. declaring D. calling
49. A. ask B. order C. remind D. warn
50. A. energy B. doubt C. fear D. patience
51. A. avoid B. cancel C. delay D. secure
52. A. recover B. hear C. learn D. benefit
53. A. luck B. talent C. effort D. patience
54. A. easy B. remarkable C. boring D. expensive
55. A. previous B. instant C. apparent D. final
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
More than just a decoration, jade 56 (value) by the Chinese people for thousands of years. 57 exhibition called Jade Culture and Chinese Civilization at the Chinese Archaeological Museum in Beijing shows the long history of jade through 155 cultural relics 58 (date) from the Neolithic period 8,000 years ago to the Qing Dynasty.
The exhibition includes four parts, 59 introduce the development of jade objects and skills. Jade served in religious ceremonies, represented power and virtue, and finally 60 (deep) influenced the spirit of the nation.
Visitors can wear MR headsets, allowing them 61 (act) as virtual archaeologists. They enter a 62 (copy) tomb of Fu Hao, where they can dig relics and communicate with lively jade works. This fun way helps them learn basic knowledge and appreciate the 63 (beautiful) of ancient art.
The event 64 (connect) traditional culture with modern technology. It not only spreads history 65 attracts more people. The exhibition will last till October 31, and a number of visitors are attracted every day.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是李华，你校英文报现招聘一名编辑，请给你的留学生朋友Peter写封邮件告知此事，并邀请他应聘。
内容包括：1．报纸栏目；2．工作时间；3．你的建议。
注意：1．词数80左右；2．请按如下格式作答。
Dear Peter,
How are you I’m writing to share some good news. ______________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The old community library on Pine Street was a place frozen in time. For seventeen-year-old Liam, it was simply a shortcut on his way home, a dusty building he barely noticed. The windows were cloudy, and the once-inviting flower beds out front were now overgrown with weeds. It had been like this for years, a silent, forgotten corner of the neighborhood.
Everything changed when a new young librarian, Ms. Anya, arrived. She had bright ideas and boundless energy, but a tiny budget. One Saturday, Liam saw her struggling alone, trying to move a heavy bookshelf. Sweat dripped from her forehead. On impulse, Liam stepped in to help. After they managed to shift the shelf, Ms. Anya smiled gratefully. “Thank you! I’m trying to get this place ready for the Children’s Reading Week, but there’s just so much to do,” she sighed, looking around the cluttered room.
Liam felt a pang of sympathy. Later that day, the image of Ms. Anya working alone wouldn’t leave him. He remembered how his own little cousin loved stories but had nowhere nice to go in their neighborhood. He decided he had to do something. That evening, he posted a message in the community chat group: “The library needs our help. Who’s free this weekend to give it a clean-up ” He included a picture of the messy interior.
The next morning, Liam arrived at the library, unsure if anyone would come. He waited for ten anxious minutes. Then, to his surprise, he saw his classmate Mei carrying a bucket of cleaning supplies. “I saw your post. I love this old place,” she said. Soon after, Mr. Evans, a retired painter who lived down the street, arrived with his brushes. “Heard you need a hand, son,” he boomed. A few more neighbors, young and old, trickled in, armed with tools and goodwill. They weeded the garden, wiped the windows, and sorted through piles of books.
注意：（1）续写词数应为150左右；
（2）请按如下格式在答题卡相应位置作答。
As the sun began to set, the tired but happy volunteers looked at their achievement. On the first day of the Children’s Reading Week, the library was buzzing with life.
2026年宝鸡市高考模拟检测（三）英语 参考答案
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
1-5 CBAAB
第二节 (共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
6-10 CABAC 11-15 BCCBC 16-20 BABAA
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
21-25 BACBA 26-30 CDCDB 31-35 CACAD
(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
36-40 AEBCD
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
41-45BBADC 46-50BADCA 51-55DCCBA
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
56.has been valued 57.An 58.dating 59.which 60. deeply
61.to act 62.copied 63.beauty 64. connects 65.but
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分) 参考范文
Dear Peter,
How are you I'm writing to share some good news. Our school’s English newspaper is looking for a new editor, and I think you’d be perfect for the job.
The newspaper has several columns, such as campus news, English stories and culture sharing. It is very popular among students and teachers. The position requires about two hours every Wednesday afternoon. I suggest you highlight your language skills and your rich experience as an exchange student in your application. I'm sure they will be impressed.
Let me know if you’re interested!
Yours,
Li Hua
【评分标准】
一、评分原则
1．本题总分为15分，按五个档次进行评分。
2．评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性进行评分。
（2）对使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性进行评分。
（3）对上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性进行评分。
3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4．评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于60的，酌情扣分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英式、美式拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（13~15分）
-覆盖了所有内容要点，表述清楚、合理。
-使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错误，但完全不影响理解。
-有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（10~12分）
-覆盖了所有内容要点，表述比较清楚、合理。
-使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
-比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯，达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档（7~9分）
-覆盖了大部分内容要点，有个别地方表述不够清楚、合理。
-使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
-基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（4~6分）
-遗漏或未清楚表述一些内容要点，或一些内容与写作目的不相关。
-所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
-几乎不能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯，未能达到预期的写作目的。
第一档（1~3分）
-遗漏或未清楚表述大部分内容要点，或大部分内容与写作目的不相关。
-所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
-几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯，完全未达到预期的写作目的。
零分
-未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容与题目要求完全不相关。
第二节(满分25分） 参考范文
As the sun began to set, the tired but happy volunteers looked at their achievement. The windows sparkled, allowing the evening light to flood the once-dim room. The books were neatly organized on clean shelves, and the air smelled fresh. Mr. Evans had even painted a beautiful mural of storybook characters on one wall. Ms. Anya's eyes were filled with tears of gratitude. "I couldn't have done this without you all," she said. Liam felt a warm glow inside and a sense of shared purpose and pride.
On the first day of the Children's Reading Week, the library was buzzing with life. Dozens of children sat on the clean floor, their eyes wide with wonder as Ms. Anya read them a story. Parents chatted happily in the bright reading corner. The air was filled with laughter and the sound of turning pages. Seeing the joy on the children's faces, Liam understood the true meaning of their labor. It wasn't just about cleaning a building; it was about building connections and creating a warm, welcoming space for everyone. He knew this was just the beginning of their community's new story.
【评分标准】
一、评分原则
1．本题总分为25分，按五个档次进行评分。
2．评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）对创造内容的质量、续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度进行评分。
（2）对使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性进行评分。
（3）对上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性进行评分。
3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4．评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于120的，酌情扣分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英式、美式拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（21~25分）
-创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。
-使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错误，但完全不影响理解。
-有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
第四档（16~20分）
-创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高。
-使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
-比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档（11~15分）
-创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。
-使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
-基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档（6~10分）
-内容或逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文情境有一定程度的脱节。
-所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
-未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第一档（1~5分）
-内容或逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节。
-所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
-几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
零分
-未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。

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