资源简介

英语定时练习
2026 年 4 月
第Ⅰ卷（共 100 分）
Ⅰ．听力测试（共 35 分）
第一节（每小题 1 分，共 6 分）
听两遍。根据你所听到的句子，从 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并把答题卡上对
应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1. A. Not bad. B. Yes, I am. C. No, thanks.
2. A. Good luck. B. Sorry, I don’t know. C. That’s all right.
3. A. My pleasure. B. The same to you. C. It doesn’t matter.
4. A. Never mind. B. Here you are. C. Sounds good.
5. A. You’d better not. B. Not yet. C. Take it easy.
6. A. Of course not. B. Enjoy yourself. C. You are welcome.
第二节（每小题 1.5 分，共 9 分）
听两遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题，从 A、B、C 三个选项中选出正确答案。并把答题卡上
对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
7. A. / i p/. B. / p/. C. /su p/.
8. A. Iced coffee. B. Hot coffee. C. Anything but coffee.
9. A. In the mountain. B. In the park. C. At home.
10. A. Mary. B. Lily. C. Ella.
11. A. Listen to music. B. Swim. C. Paint.
12. A. B. C.
第三节（每小题 1.5 分，共 6 分）
听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话，从 A、B、C 三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应
题目的答案标号涂黑。
13. What’s the relationship between the speakers
A. Family. B. Friends. C. Strangers.
14. How can the man find the way according to the woman
A. By using a map app and following road signs.
B. By using a map app and asking locals for help.
C. By following road signs and asking locals for help.
听第二段材料，回答第 15 和 16 小题。
15. How long does it take to travel from Earth to Mars
A. About eight weeks. B. About eight months. C. About eight years.
16. What’s the woman’s view on Mars in the future
A. She doubts whether humans can live on Mars or not.
B. She thinks humans can travel from Earth to Mars soon.
C. She believes a research center on Mars will be possible.
第四节（每小题 1.5 分，共 6 分）
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，从 A、B、C 三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对
应题目的答案标号涂黑。
17. What did Zhu Shangyan’s team do to help the homeless animals
A. They held a charity sale at school.
B. They gave them food every day.
C. They kept some of them as pets.
18. How many ways did Zhu’s team try to spread the plan
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
19. Who helped Zhu’s team achieve the plan
A. Her teachers and classmates.
B. Her teachers and the cat cafe owner.
C. Her teachers and school’s volunteer group.
20. According to the story, what do you think about Zhu and her team
A. Kind and funny. B. Helpful and creative. C. Honest and patient.
第五节（每小题 2 分，共 8 分）
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，在横线处补全笔记。每空 1 词，并把答案填写在答题卡
上对应的位置。
Ⅱ．语法选择（每小题 1 分，共 10 分）
根据短文内容，从 A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个语法正确的答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的
答案标号涂黑。
Hi, everyone. My name is Melissa.
At first, I didn’t know if I could share my story 25 I was afraid people might dislike me for having
Down syndrome (唐氏综合症). People with Down syndrome have an extra chromosome (染色体), which makes
learning much 26 . Sometimes I feel sad about 27 different, but I’m proud of myself. I’m 28
hard-working student. I do the right thing and care about my friends.
My life is similar to 29 . I enjoy reading, watching TV, listening to music and staying with friends. I’m
30 the swim team. I take classes with disabled 31 . Though it’s hard, we try our best. Last year, I set a
goal to join a regular English class and I 32 .
However, I feel upset sometimes. I’m not sure 33 people can see my heart instead of my appearance.
I cannot change having Down syndrome, but I wish people would not judge me by my look. I hope to 34
with respect and make friends with everyone.
25. A. because B. but C. or
26. A. difficult B. more difficult C. the most difficult
27. A. to be B. be C. being
28. A. a B. an C. the
29. A. your B. yours C. yourself
30. A. for B. on C. at
31. A. student B. students’ C. students
32. A. succeeded B. succeed C. will succeed
33. A. what B. which C. if
34. A. treat B. be treated C. be treating
Ⅲ．完形填空（每小题 1.5 分，共 15 分）
根据短文内容，从 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案，并把答
题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
Aaron, a boy from Willowbrook, loved to talk, even in his sleep. At school, he often got a word in 35
the teacher was speaking. In the market, he talked so much that people forgot their shopping lists. But people didn’t
care much about what he said. Aaron didn’t mean to speak so much. He just didn’t know when to 36 .
One evening, a traveler arrived in the village. She carried a magic stick and introduced 37 as Mistress
Echo, the Guardian (守护者) of Words. The villagers got together in the square, including Aaron.
Mistress Echo raised her hand. “Words are 38 . Too many, and they lose meaning.” Slowly, she walked
39 Aaron and asked, “Aaron, would you exchange your endless words for 40 more powerful ”
“Better than talking ” Aaron asked.
“Yes, the power to listen, learn and be heard,” she replied.
Aaron agreed. Mistress Echo whispered into her magic stick and touched his 41 . “You can now speak
only 100 words a day. Choose 42 .”
At first, it was hard. So he learned to listen and use pictures to tell stories. He saved his words for important
things. After a while, people began 43 him more.
A year later, Mistress Echo returned. “Well, young Aaron, do you wish to undo the spell (解除咒语) ” Aaron
smiled, “No. I’ve learned that I should 44 myself more efficiently (高效地) instead of speaking too much.”
Mistress Echo also smiled, “May your voice always be heard when it matters.”
35. A. when B. after C. until D. because
36. A. start B. smile C. stop D. use
37. A. itself B. myself C. yourself D. herself
38. A. different B. valuable C. dangerous D. meaningless
39. A. in front of B. across from C. in the middle of D. far from
40. A. anything B. something C. nothing D. everything
41. A. hand B. head C. face D. mouth
42. A. quickly B. hopefully C. wisely D. loudly
43. A. looking at B. listening to C. laughing at D. shouting at
44. A. express B. respect C. compare D. improve
Ⅳ．阅读理解（每小题 2 分，共 30 分）
阅读下列材料，从 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标
号涂黑。
A
Fuse beads, also known as “Ping Dou” in China, is a popular way for teenagers to relax. They’re small,
colorful plastic (塑料的) beads. You can put them on a pegboard (小钉板) to make shapes like stars, hearts or
animals. It’s also pixel (像素) art. Fuse beads mainly come in three sizes: 2.6 mm for small pictures, 5 mm for most
users, and 10mm for children. Here are the materials and steps.
Steps
1. Place beads onto the pegboard to make a picture;
2. Cover the pegboard with baking paper;
3. Iron over the paper to fuse (熔合) the beads slowly;
4. Wait for the beads to cool, and then move the paper
away;
5. Remove the whole art work from the board after it
cools.
Tiny beads, big messages. It’s a beautiful reminder that small efforts, when joined together, create something
powerful.
45. What size of fuse beads should children choose
A. 2.6 mm. B. 5 mm. C. 10 mm. D. 15 mm.
46. Which picture shows the first step
A. B. C. D.
47. How can we understand “Tiny beads, big messages.”
A. Even small and simple things can carry important meanings.
B. The smaller the beads are, the more messages they can send.
C. Big message s can only be expressed through small artworks.
D. Making fuse beads is a great way to send messages to friends.
B
The gray cub (幼崽) lived in a cave with his mother, a she-wolf. Each day he grew, learning more about the
world outside their home.
Soon the cub went out again. Every day he went further from the cave. He didn’t get lost. But a time of hunger
came. Neither he nor his mother found food. Then finally his mother brought home some strange meat — a lynx
(山猫) kitten.
Later the cub lay sleeping by his mother’s side when a deep snarl came. There in the front of the cave stood
the mother lynx. A terrible fight followed. The lynx cut with her claws and teeth, the she-wolf with her teeth. The
cub joined in, biting the lynx’s back leg again and again, which helped his mother.
At last, the lynx was dead. But the she-wolf was very weak. She lay by the dead animal’s side for a day and a
night without moving. The she-wolf and the cub ate the lynx each day and soon their wounds healed (痊愈).
The gray cub went out for food with his mother now. He learned how she killed animals and started to help her.
And he learned the law of meat. There were two kinds of life: those that could be eaten, and those that could eat
him. The law was: EAT, OR BE EATEN.
He saw the law working all around him. He ate the lynx kitten. The lynx mother wanted to eat him, but he and
his mother ate her first. And so it went on. He was a killer and his only food was meat.
Adapted from White Fang by Jack London
48. Which sentence uses “snarl” with the same meaning as the underlined word
snarl /snɑ l/
v. ① (of animals) to make a deep angry sound ② (of people) to speak angrily
n. ① a deep angry sound made by an animal ②a mixed-up state
A. The fishing lines were in such a snarl that he couldn’t fix.
B. The dog snarls at strangers who pass by the door every day.
C. “I told you to stay away from the fire!” he snarled at his little brother.
D. A loud snarl came from the tiger’s cage when the zookeeper walked by.
49. What’s the correct order of the story
a b
c d
A. a-b-c-d B. a-c-b-d C. b-a-c-d D. b-c-a-d
50. Which words best describe the she-wolf
A. Protective and strong. B. Gentle and patient.
C. Weak and helpless. D. Mean and wild.
51. What can we infer from the story
A. Food would always be available if the cub stayed with his mother.
B. Only the strongest animals had the right to kill and eat other animals.
C. The gray cub and his mother killed and eat the lynx kitten and its mother.
D. The cub will try his best to avoided being killed and eaten by other animals.
C
Did you know students in ancient China had special breaks During the Tang Dynasty, students would go
home to help with farming in spring and autumn, which were called “field holidays”. Now, a similar idea is coming
back across the country.
At the 2026 Two Sessions (两会), the topic of “spring and autumn breaks” for primary and secondary school
students became hot. The Government Work Report clearly stated that China will support certain areas to try them
out. Students in Zhejiang, Jiangsu and Sichuan have already enjoyed their first autumn break in 2025.
The reasons behind this move are clear. After long periods of study, students need time to rest. The nice
weather in spring and autumn makes it the perfect time for outdoor activities. These breaks allow students to step
out of classrooms, connect with nature, and take part in practical learning. They also give families a chance to
travel when it’s not crowded, helping with economic (经济的) development.
Now, the policy has reached Chongqing. On March 12, 2026, the city officially (官 方 地 ) introduced the
holiday. Every school year will have two short breaks, each lasting 2 to 3 days. To ensure students truly relax, the
government set four strict rules: no written homework, no exams right after the holiday, no extra lessons, and no
after-school training classes.
However, many working parents worry that they don’t have time to look after their children during the
holidays because of busy work. To solve this problem, schools offer free school care services, and local
communities provide activities for students. What’s more, parents may enjoy more paid leave, so they can spend
time with their children during the breaks.
As a local education official said, “Spring and autumn breaks are not just about taking more days off. They are
a chance for students to grow in a healthier and more meaningful way.”
52. What does the underlined word “them” in Paragraph 2 refer to
A. Certain areas in China. B. Primary and secondary schools.
C. Spring and autumn breaks. D. Primary and secondary school students.
53. What is the main reason for the government to support spring and autumn breaks
A. To develop the economy. B. To help students have more classes.
C. To help students rest more. D. To make parents travel with their children.
54. What can we learn about the spring and autumn holidays from Paragraphs 4 and 5
A. Parents can always have paid leave. B. Students should do written homework.
C. Students can pay to enjoy the school care. D. Parents thinks there are some challenges.
55. What’s the best title for the passage
A. Spring and Autumn Breaks: A New Holiday
B. Spring and Autumn Breaks: Chongqing’s Move
C. The Return of Ancient Breaks: A Worldwide Practice
D. The Return of Ancient Breaks: Challenges for Parents
D
① Imagine you were asked to look at photos of 10 faces, and you were told that five were AI-made and the
other five were real. Would you be able to tell which five were real
② Maybe you think it would be easy. But according to a new study by UNSW Sydney and the Australian
National University, most people think they are better at telling AI-created faces than they really are. The problem
is that AI has become so realistic (逼真的)
③ The researchers tested 125 people, including 36 “super-recognizers” — people who are very good at
remembering faces. All were asked to tell whether a face was real or made by AI. The pictures did not have any
clear errors (错误). The average score of normal people was only 51%, which is only a little better than random (随
机的) guessing. Super-recognizers scored 57%, a little better.
④ From the scores above, it was clear people just felt sure that they could tell real faces from AI-made ones.
Why are people overconfident ▲ . In the past, AI-made faces were easy to tell because of clear
errors, like backgrounds that mixed into the hair. But today’s AI has fixed such problems. Those clear errors have
become far less common, making faces more real.
⑤ “You might now tell an AI face if you notice that it’s ‘unusually balanced’ or ‘too perfect’, with perfect
shape and common features,” explained Amy Dawel from the research team. “It’s almost as if they’re too good to
be true as faces,” she says. However, AI is now making faces that are more natural and less perfect. So even this
way is becoming not as useful as before because AI is getting better.
⑥ These findings matter in real life. We can no longer depend on our eyes alone, as thinking we can always
tell the AI faces may put people at risk of being fooled online. “For a long time, we’ve believed the photos we saw
were real persons,” says Dr Dunn. “That belief is now being questioned.” The team now wants to study people who
are very good at telling AI faces and find out what their secret is.
56. Why does the writer ask the question in Paragraph 1
A. To show that the question is hard to answer.
B. To ask the readers to answer the question later.
C. To get the readers interested in the reading topic.
D. To show that telling AI faces from real ones is easy.
57. Which sentence can be put in the ▲
A. Because they think they can still depend on signs that no longer work.
B. Because they think AI faces have become more realistic than real faces.
C. Because they think they are better at telling AI faces than they really are.
D. Because they can still notice clear errors like backgrounds mixing into hair.
58. What can we learn from the passage
A. The average scores of normal people and super-recognizers are 57% and 51%.
B. People felt sure they could tell AI faces from real ones, and they did well in the test.
C. The team has already found out why some people does very well in telling AI faces.
D. Depending on our eyes alone to tell AI-made faces from real ones is not safe anymore.
59. Which of the following shows the structure of the passage
A. B.
C. D.
Ⅴ．口语应用。（每小题 2 分，共 10 分）
阅读下面对话，从 7 个选项中选择 5 个恰当的句子完成此对话，并把答题卡上对应题目的答
案标号涂黑。
A: Hi, Lisa. I’m a little nervous about my new high school life.
B: Don’t worry. I felt the same way last year. But I learned some useful tips.
A: That’s great! What should I do first to make new friends
B: 60 For example, you can introduce yourself to others first.
A: I’ll try it. What about after school I’m afraid I’ll go home alone every day.
B: 61 It’s a great way to meet people with the same interests.
A: I see. I will find something I enjoy and join in.
B: Exactly. 62
A: What do you mean
B: Looking tidy is important. No one likes a dirty person.
A: You’re right. What else
B: 63 Different opinions can help you learn from each other.
A: That’s true. Thanks for all your advice.
B: You’re welcome. 64
A. How about joining a club
B. Enjoy the new school life.
C. Accept people’s differences.
D. Remember to stay clean, too.
E. When are you going to school
F. Do you have any other problems
G. Chat with new classmates bravely.
第Ⅱ卷（共 50 分）
Ⅵ．任务型阅读。（65～66 小题，每小题 2 分，67～68 小题，每小题 3 分；共 10 分）
阅读下文并回答问题。
Last year, Xiaohongshu welcomed a flood of foreigners and opened a new gate for people around the world to
explore Chinese culture. At the start of this year, another new topic — known as “Becoming Chinese” — began
drawing attention on TikTok. It started with a video by TikToker@sherryxiiruii. “Starting tomorrow,” she said,
“you’re becoming Chinese.” She then shared how Chinese people live through winter and something useful about
TCM (中医). This video has received millions of views. Many people commented, “I’m turning Chinese!” Soon, a
lot of foreigners shared their “Becoming Chinese” daily lives online. They had started trying Chinese eating habits,
such as drinking warm water, stewing (煮) apples, eating cooked vegetables rather than uncooked salad greens.
Even they had watched videos to practise Chinese traditional exercises like Baduanjin. One user said, “I started
with a Qi Gong morning and drinking warm water. I really feel much better.”
Chinese lifestyle has been growing in popularity abroad because of young people’s search for a healthier life
and China’s growing influence on the global stage. The Global Times noted Chinese lifestyle has swept across the
world for the reason that it helps people deal with the tiredness in today’s society. For example, Chinese culture
values living in peace with nature and keeping a balance between yin and yang.
In the 2025 Global Soft Power Index (全 球 软 实 力 指 数 ), China climbed to second place, which means
foreigners are changing their minds, from viewing Chinese culture from afar (遥远地) to taking part in it in person.
More importantly, the world believes the “Chinese way” has more to offer in this ever-changing world.
65. Has the topic “Becoming Chinese” been popular across the world for many years
____________________________________________________________________________________________
66. What daily life did TikTok users share online
____________________________________________________________________________________________
67. Why are foreigners getting more interested in the “Becoming Chinese” lifestyle
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
68. If your foreign friends want to experience the Chinese lifestyle, what suggestions will you give (About 30
words)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
Ⅶ．完成句子。（69～72 小题，每空 1 分；73 小题 2 分；共 10 分）
阅读短文，根据方框中的内容和各小题对应的提示，完成句子。79～82 小题，每空一词，含
缩略词。
69. It also works for people.
70. But we have had enough time to try new things often.
71. We can take a new way home or have different food to try
it.
72. 我们可以尝试去关注可以给我们自己带来幸福的事。
73. enrichment, important, own, it, to, find, our, is
“Enrichment” (丰富) is a way to make zoo animals happy by giving them new things to do. 69. __________ it
also __________ for people (一般疑问句) The answer is yes. But we 70. ____________________ enough time to
try new things often. (否定句) We just do the same things every day, like going to school and looking at our
phones. Actually, enrichment can be simple. 71. ____________________ we do to try it (特殊疑问句) Take a
new way home or have different food. We can try to 72. ____________________ the things that bring happiness to
ourselves. 73. __________________________________________________. (连词成句)
Ⅷ．概要补全。（74、75 小题，每小题 2 分，76、77 小题，每小题 3 分；共 10 分）
阅读文章，用恰当的短语或句子补全概要。补全部分总词数不超过 30 词，不能照抄原文连续
超过 3 个词。
Snacking is very common and increasingly so. In the early 1970s, for example, US adults got about 18% of
their total calories from snacks. By 2010, it rose to 23%. Similar numbers are seen in the UK, Brazil and Norway.
However, there’s a common belief that snacking is unhealthy. Given how common snacking is, it would be
good to know if the common belief is true. But research on the health effects of snacking has had mixed results.
Some results show that snacking is bad for health, while others show the opposite. To get a clearer picture, Sarah
Berry from King’s College London and her partners re-studied the results from an experiment in 2018 and 2019.
Their main finding was a bit surprising: snacking itself doesn’t do harm to health. “There was no difference in
health depending on the number of eating times,” she says. “If you had three or six meals, it didn’t matter.”
“What matters is the quality of the snack and the time,” says Berry. People who had healthy snacks like fruit,
vegetables, nuts and seeds and didn’t snack late were even better off than non-snackers. That may be because
well-timed, healthy snacks reduce hunger and overall calorie intake.
Another important point to consider is the reason behind snacking. Well, Research shows most of us snack out
of habit or boredom, not real hunger. As Berry puts it, “If you don’t need the energy, that’s a problem.” So, being
aware of why we’re snacking is just as important as choosing the right snacks and the right time to eat them.
In short, snacking isn’t always bad for our health. Whether it’s good or not depends on what snacks we choose,
when and why we eat them. To be healthy, pick healthy snacks such as fruits and nuts, don’t snack late, and make
sure we snack because we really need to. This way, we can enjoy snacks and stay in good shape.
Snacking is getting common. People usually think it is unhealthy, but the results of the research 74.
______________. So Sarah Berry and her team studied the results again. They found that snacking isn’t 75.
______________. When snacking the right food at the right time, people will be healthier than non-snackers.
The reason for snacking also matters. People had better snack when 76. ______________. In short, snacking can
be part of a healthy lifestyle if 77. ______________.
Ⅸ．书面表达。（满分 20 分）
为践行“健康第一”教育理念，重庆市教委 3 月 2 日提出，到 2028 年全市体质健康优良率要达到 60%
以上。你校英语社团以此为契机，在论坛上发起“How can students keep healthy ”讨论帖（见下图），请你
在论坛上写一篇英语回帖，谈谈你的看法。
How can students keep healthy
Our school’s physical health good rate is only 44%. To help reach Chongqing’s 2028 goal of 60%, we need
practical ideas.
What do you think are the problems that make students unhealthy Share one or two problems and your
advice to solve them.
Write your ideas below!
要求：
1．80-120 词，开头已给出，不计入总词数；
2．文中不能出现自己的姓名和所在学校的名称。
参考信息：
Health always comes first. As a member of our school, I would like to share my thoughts. ________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________

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