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陕西省咸阳市2026年高考模拟检测（三）英语试题
注意事项：
1.本试卷共10页，满分150分，时间120分钟。
2.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名和准考证号填写在答题卡上。
3.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。涂写在本试卷上无效。
4.作答非选择题时，将答案书写在答题卡上，书写在本试卷上无效。
5.考试结束后，监考员将答题卡按顺序收回，装袋整理；试卷不回收。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面 5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. How much will the man pay for the gift
A. § 20. B. § 40. C. § 80.
2. What does Emily meap
A. She is eager to take part. B. She may not be available. C. She thinks it's unnecessary.
3. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. A weather forecast. B. A coastal vacation. C. A flight experience.
4. What does the woman suggest
A. Riding a bike. B. Staying at home. C. Checking the weather.
5. How will the woman most likely go to the dry cleaner's
A. By bus. B. By car. C. By subway.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What needs to be improved in Sarah's draft
A. The length. B. The image. C. The language.
7. When can Peter receive the new version
A. This evening. B. Tomorrow morning. C. Next week.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Colleagues. B. Neighbors. C. A couple.
9. What did Alex do during his trip
A. He took a few pictures. B. He participated in a game. C. He bought a new laptop.
10. What will Jane do next
A. Taste some local food. B. Visit some exhibitions. C. Do some gardening work
听第8段材料，回答第11 至13题。
11. Where did the man finally buy the jacket
A. On a website. B. In a physical shop. C. At a party.
12. What is the problem with the jacket
A. Material. B. Size. C. Color.
13. What is the man likely to do
A. Get a discount. B. Cancel the order. C. Exchange a jacket.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14. Where are the speakers
A. By the lake. B. At the gate. C. In the theater.
15. What does the man advise the woman to do at the lake
A. Head to the left. B. Walk around it. C. Stay on the road.
16. What will the woman do in the Olympic Tower
A. Watch a movie. B. Visit an exhibition. C. Have a drink.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What leads to the failure of traditional machines
A. The loss of power. B. The strong pressure. C. The broken shells.
18. How does the soft robot handle pressure
A. By changing its shape. B. By using a stronger body. C. By moving to shallow water.
19. What is the robot's task at the moment
A. Collecting stones. B. Gathering data. C. Exploring caves.
20. What is the scientists' main plan for the robot next year
A. To find new sea species. B. To change its flexible skin C. To improve its power system.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15 小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Aiming to support local creatives and celebrate the integration of science, technology, engineering,math, and art, PacSci will transform its campus into a one-night immersive art experience. Up to 20artists will be selected to showcase work that explores STEM concepts through creative expression.
Important Deadlines
Application closes: March 22
· Artists announced: April 18
Qualification Requirements
Artists must meet the following criteria to participate:
· Hold a valid business license or be willing to obtain one for the event.
· Artwork must be completed or previously created.
· Artists are required to be on site for load-in and load-out.
· Comfortably work in crowds, engage with guests, and discuss their work in person.
· All sales are processed directly by the artist.
Accepted Forms of Art
Artwork must feature a clear STEM focus, medium, or inspiration.
· Light and physics-based art
· Dynamic sculptures
· Augmented or virtual reality experiences (AR/VR)
· Generative or algorithm-driven art
· Projection mapping
·2D works featuring science or technology themes
· Wearable technology
· Sound - or touch-activated art
Art Guidelines & Specifications
· Selected artists will receive an allowance ranging from $ 150-$ 1,500, depending on scale and complexity.
Artwork must be able to be installed within 2-3 hours.
Freestanding works are preferred; no drilling or permanent damage is permitted.
Art with sound components will be considered; sound levels and placement will be worked out with PacSci staff.
No open flame, weapons, helium (氦) balloons, explosive materials, fog machines, glitter, or confetti (彩纸屑) are permitted.
21. What is the main purpose of PacSci's one-night event
A. To promote the sales of local artists’ works.
B. To train artists to create STEM-related works.
C. To help local artists obtain business licenses.
D. To display the combination of STEM and art.
22. Which is a requirement for participating artists
A They must create new artwork for the event.
B. They should be able to work in crowded places.
C. They need to handle sales with PaeSci's help.
D. They must have a valid business license already.
高考英语模拟检测-3-(共10页)
23. What can we learn about the artwork for the event
A. Artwork must be installed in 2 hours. B. Sound-based works are not allowed.
C. Freestanding works are prioritized. D. Drilling is permitted for installation.
B
When I signed up for a triathlon (铁人三项) years ago, I had one clear goal: not to finish in last place. Second to last would be acceptable. I wanted to avoid the shame of a participation award. After all,I was doing the triathlon with my son, Zane. I didn't want him to perceive his dad as a total loser.
I'm not much of an athlete. I find lung-burning competitive sports deeply unpleasant. But my son suggested we do a triathlon together. I felt I couldn't say no to my son. So I entered for a triathlon weeks later. When we got to the base camp, other competitors looked strong and well-trained. During the swimming part, the icy water took my breath away and made me gasp. Zane pulled away with strong freestyle strokes (游泳姿势). I used the breaststroke. Eventually, I made it back to land.
During the cycling part, I was repeatedly overtaken. The running portion was my least favorite. I was confident I could stay ahead of an elderly woman in her 70s. Yet she passed me in the final mile, leaving me completely last.
There I was. Alone. Worse, I was joined by a four-wheeled symbol of shame; the official ambulance behind me in case I collapsed. Finally, I finished 121st out of 121 racers. I felt embarrassed at first and made many excuses. But on the way home, my shame disappeared, replaced by pride.
I realized I had achieved something more impressive than competing in a triathlon. I had redefined my last-place finish as a victory. I wasn't raeing against others. I was racing against myself. I showed my son that it's okay not to win as long as you try your best. Last place can also be glorious, for it shows how much effort you have made, as well as your persistence and courage. I may not-be a good athlete, but I'm a champion at changing the way I see failure.
24. Why did the author refuse to finish last at first
A. He desired to outperform others. B. He feared to disappoint his son.
C. He hoped to win a special prize. D. He hated to lose face in public.
25. Which of the following can replace the underlined word“gasp” in paragraph 2
A. Panic greatly. B. Cheer silently. C. Shake violently. D. Breathe sharply.
26. What made the author's embarrassment disappear
A Beating the old woman in the final mile. B. Getting his son's comfort during the race.
C. Redefining what finishing the race means. D. Receiving audience praise along the way.
27. What message does the story convey
A. Effort itself is victory. B. Practice makes perfect.
C. Time waits for no man. D. Pride goes before a fall.
C
Imagine walking across endless rolling hills bathed in warm sunshine, filled with the soft songs of birds. This peaceful natural scene is growing rare in modern society. As bird populations drop, our natural soundscapes are becoming quieter. People are losing touch with nature, a situation called the“extinction of experience”, which has been connected to worsening physical and mental health.
Birds' bright colors and cheerful songs make our time outdoors more enjoyable. A full dawn chorus is like a rich orchestra performance. However, without a wide variety of birds, the natural“music” becomes dull and unimpressive.
Our research focused on English vineyards (葡萄园), where grapes are grown in order to produce wine and wine tourism is rapidly developing. We studied bird communities on 21 vineyards and recorded the natural sounds to analyze the complexity and loudness. The results showed that vineyards with more bird species had much more lively and varied soundscapes.
To find out if such soundscapes affect human well-being, we tested 186 wine-tour visitors across three vineyards. In some areas, we added recorded songs of extra bird species through hidden speakers.Visitors exposed to richer, louder birdsong responded very positively. They reported greater enjoyment,stronger connection with nature, and higher satisfaction with the tour. They also felt more relaxed,peaceful and free from daily pressure.
People often benefit from natural sounds subconsciously, easily taking these benefits for granted. The study clearly proves that birdsong directly improves human well-being, meaning protecting birds can also enrich our nature experience and bring positive emotions.
Today, people are more disconnected from nature than older generations. What makes researchers concerned is that this growing separation is often considered normal, known as“ shifting baseline syndrome”. It goes to show how important nature is for humanity on so many levels and hopefully the researchers’ findings will encourage more investment in protecting natural soundscapes and reating nature-friendly spaces, helping people reconnect with the natural world.
28. What is the main idea of the first paragraph
A. Fewer birds make nature quieter. B. Nature loss harms human well-being.
C. Ouiet scenes harm modern society. D. Bird songs affect mental health greatly.
29. What did the researchers do in the vineyards
A. They attracted more bird speeies. B. They promoted the wine production.
C. They collected the sounds of birds. D. They studied the birds’ natural habitat.
30. How did the visitors feel when exposed to richer birdsong soundscapes
A. Settled. B. Anxious. C. Grateful. D. Distracted.
31. According to the author, the findings of the research are .
A. amusing B. inspiring C. misleading D. demanding
D
For decades, arthritis(关节炎) patients have been told that once cartilage(软骨) wears away, it cannot grow back. With no drug able to slow or restore the disease, treatment usually focuses on easing pain and maintaining movement through physical therapy. When damage becomes severe, joint replacement surgery is often the only option. The common belief has been that cartilage loss is mescapable.
Now scientists are beginning to challenge this belief. Instead of only reducing damage or replacing joints, they are exploring whether cartilage can be helped to repair itself.
One approach focuses on rebuilding cartilage from the start. Samuel Stupp, a scientist atNorthwestern University, has designed an injectable material that is delivered directly into damaged areas of the joint. Once inside, it forms tiny fibers that create a structure similar to healthy cartilage. This structure guides nearby cells to build new tissue. Tests in sheep showed that after six months, treated joints began forming new cartilage with the same strength and flexibility as native tissue.
Researehers from Stanford University are studying how aging affects cartilage repair. Helen Blau discovered that a protein called 15-PGDH increases with age. This protein degrades an essential molecule(分子) that the body needs to fix damaged tissue. In older mice, stopping this protein from working helped bring back lost cartilage. After treatment, the older mice were able to move normally. When this treatment was used on human cartilage samples, they started making new and healthy tissue too.
In Mayo, Christopher Evans is working on stopping the inflammation (炎症) that destroys joints. He uses gene therapy to deliver instructions into the knee, allowing joint cells to produce their own anti-inflammatory protein. In an early safety trial, levels of this protein remained high for at least a year, and patients reported less pain and better movement.
These innovative strategies, though still under large-scale human testing, have already brought new hope to arthritis treatment. The old belief is being overturned. With ongoing breakthroughs in new research,a future where damaged cartilage repairs itself is firmly in sight.
32. What is the conventional view on cartilage damage
A. It can be recovered with physical therapy.
B. It has a rich blood supply to support self-repair.
C. It causes unavoidable losses once damaged.
D. It requires immediate joint replacement surgery.
33. What can be concluded about Samuel Stupp's material
A. It kills the cells that damage joint cartilage. B. It can help sheep form new healthy cartilage.
C. It has been widely used on human patients. D. It can take the place of the damaged cartilage.
34. Why is 15-PGDH bad for cartilage repair
A. It causes people to grow old faster. B. It stops the reproduction of cartilage.
C. It prevents the mice's joint function. D. It breaks down a necessary molecule.
35. What is the best title for the passage
A. Arthritis: An Unavoidable Fate for the Elderly
B. Arthritis: New Hope from Self-repairing Cartilage
C. Joint Replacement: The Final Solution to Arthritis
D. Gene Therapy: The Breakthrough in Treating Joint
第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Music is a universal language that goes beyond borders, cultures, and generations. It is an integral rt of our daily lives, influencing our moods, behaviors, and even our identities. Music has the power to mulate emotions, create connections among people and tell stories. 36
One of the most remarkable aspects of music is its ability to inspire emotions. Research has shown at listening to music can contribute to the release of dopamine(多巴胺), a brain chemical associated th pleasure and reward. 37 Whether it's a heartwarming ballad or an upbeat pop tune, music can t our spirits, calm our nerves and lift us out of low moods, helping us regain inner peace and emotional lance.
Experiencing music live can create an even deeper connection. 38 Stage shows also allow for a ique interaction between the artist and the audience. The energy of a live performance, the collective aging of lyrics, and the atmosphere of excitement can create a bond between the performer and the iteners.
39 Songwriters and musicians often channel their personal experiences, thoughts, and feelings to their work. This form of expression can touch listeners deeply, allowing them to connect with the tist on a personal level. When we hear a song that captures our own feelings or experiences, it can ovide a sense. of belonging and understanding.
As we' ve explored, music is much more than mere entertainment. 40 As we face the complexities life, let us turn up the volume, embrace the rhythm, and let the music-play on.
A. Music can improve our productivity.
B. It is a powerful force that shapes our lives.
C. Let's explore the transformative power of music.
D. Concerts and music festivals bring people together.
E. Playing musical instruments can improve brain development.
F. For many people, music serves as a powerful form of self-expression.
G. This is why we often turn to our favorite songs when we need a pick-me-up.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30 分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题Ⅰ分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
When I first met Amy, we were at a dinner party in Chicago. I was only a background 41 . Iidn't even have a name 42 to me although I played several characters while Amy was 43 with ome well-known directors. I was too uneasy and 44 to talk with anyone. It was Amy who approached ad we 45 over the food. Our conversation just came easily, without walls.
After the party, we often hung out and shared a lot of interests in common. I can't explain this amazing 46 . I thought it was the most organic relationship I had ever had in my 47 .
After a year, I was writing a play of my own. Instead of reading the draft herself, Amy 48 it with a very famous playwright. Several days later, we got to the playwright's office and he told me that my characters were brainless, 49 , and the whole plot was“unengaging.” It 50 me so much.
Later, I told Amy that I wanted to quit writing. She stared at my eyes and said seriously, “Don't say that. I think you should keep 51 . And I believe you' ve got something 52 that makes you who you are. Just have faith, all right Your hard work will 53 some day.” Hearing the encouraging words, I realized that I wasn't alone. So, I 54 myself together. I washed my face, dried it off, and took a deep breath 55 . To me, she was not only my friend but also my family I could lean on.
41. A. actress B. singer C. director D. dancer
42. A. opposed B. submitted C. credited D. addicted
43. A. tired B. familiar C. content D. bored
44. A. thirsty B. excited C. confident D. nervous
45. A. thought B. bonded C. handed D. left
46. A. friendship B. happiness C. agreement D. invitation
47. A. film B. hall C. life D. plan
48. A. mixed B. filled C. covered D. shared
49. A. unfair B. unaware C. unfriendly D. unrelatable
50. A. burnt B. upset C. relaxed D. scared
51. A. crying B. trying C. talking D. waiting
52. A. special B. weak C. honest D. emotional
53. A. run out B. take off C. pay off D. set out
54. A. put B. fit C. pulled D. worked
55. A. disappointedly B. embarrassedly C. shamefully D. gratefully
第二节 (共10 小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
I'm Robert John Murray, an English teacher from New Zealand. Last weekend, I explored the beautiful countryside of Baoding — 56 (locate) about 150 kilometers southwest of downtown Beijing — cycling with my Chinese wife and our two kids. Together with well over a hundred cycling 57 (enthusiast),we also visited scenic spots like Ranzhuang Cultural Town and Jiahe Farm, all featuring natural 58 (beautiful) and folk arts. Having worked at Hebei Finance University since 2015, I 59 (witness)rapid development here, especially in rural areas 60 people lead a happy and well-off life.
During my time in Baoding, I have enjoyed various activities to engage 61 (I) in Chinese culture, from exploring traditional Chinese medicine to celebrating the Mid-Autumn Festival. These cultural experiences have deepened my love for China, and this cycling trip has shown me another side of the country. During the trip, my family rode along the countryside roads, making occasional stops along the way and 62 (enjoy) breathtaking views over the open countryside. I feel lucky to have been part of such a meaningful experience.
More than just 63 family adventure, our ride was part of the“Riding in Baoding” event, which not only showcases the unique features and charm of Baoding’ s beautiful countryside, 64 allows more people to see the dynamic new look of China's rural areas. I will 65 (regular) share these stories on my social media, hoping to let more people know the real and thriving China.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
假定你是华星中学交换生 Henry，请给你的英国家人写封邮件，分享你校近期成功举办的校园艺术节，内容包括：
(1)你最喜欢的一个节目；
(2)对比节目中体现的中外文化差异；
(3)你的观看感受与收获。
注意：
(1)写作词数应为80个左右；
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Mom and Dad,
Yours,
Henry
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
I still clearly remember it was a day just before the New Year. The whole neighborhood was filled with the festive atmosphere, but my family couldn't even afford a full meal. It was cold outside, and my younger brother stared at the empty table, disappointed. There was a soft knock suddenly. Two people stood at the door, holding a box full of vegetables, fruit and beef, with the volunteer logo on their coats.“A warm-hearted neighbor told us about your situation,” they said.“Hope these will be helpful and wish you a happy New Year!” The moment they turned away, a wave of warmth welled up inside my heart,
driving away the winter chill.
As I grew up, I would recall that heartwarming scene every now and then. Gradually, the desire to help others, like a tiny seed, took root in my heart.
After I got a decent job, I made it an annual tradition to pass on warmth to others. With the help of the local volunteer association, I helped the elderly living alone and struggling families with kids in the community. By setting aside part of my income, I prepared daily supplies for the elderly and books for children. Every year, I delivered the gifts in person, chatted with the elderly and laughed with kids, their eves shining with joy. Their heartfelt gratitude reminded me that the small acts of kindness could make a ditterence, bringing me more satisfaction than anything else.
Years later, on a business trip before the New Year, I shared my yearly tradition with my business partners over lunch, suggesting spreading warmth to the needy families in a neighboring area. They readily agreed. We bought daily supplies and gifts, sorting and packing them. Just then, I got an unexpected call,“I have to attend a meeting right now,” I said with regret, asking them to rent a van(中小型货车.;“We' ll get it ready on time,” my partners promised. As I hurried off, I was excited at the thought of the smiling faces of those in need.
However, upon finishing the meeting and hurrying back, I found my partners wearing worried looks—— no vans were available for rent as the New Year was approaching.
注意：
(1)续写词数应为150个左右；
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
“What should we do next ” my partners asked anxiously.
Later that afternoon, the head of the Volunteer Association appeared, driving his van.
高考模拟检测
英语试题参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
1. A 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. C
第二节(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
6. C 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. A16. B 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. C
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
A)21. D 22. B 23. C
B)24. B 25. D 26. C 27. A
C)28. B 29. C 30. A 31. B
D)32. C 33. B 34. D 35. B
第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
36. C 37. G 38. D 39. F 40. B
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
41. A 42. C 43. B 44. D 45. B 46. A 47. C 48. D 49. D 50. B
51. B 52. A 53. C 54. C 55. D
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
56. located 57. enthusiasts 58. beauty 59. have witnessed 60. where
61. myself 62. enjoying 63. a 64. but 65. regularly
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
参考范文：
Dear Mom and Dad,
How is everything going I can't wait to shar^ tbc amazing school art festival with you, which was a huge hit.
My favorite show was a cross-cultural performance combining Chinese kung fu and British tap dance.Chinese kung fu, a symbol of traditional Chinese culture, reflects the spirit of perseverance and modesty,while British tap dance features casual styles, lively rhythms and personal expression.
This performance made me realize that even with different cultural backgrounds, we can communicate through the universal language of art. I feel so lucky to be able to experience this cultural exchange firsthand.
Yours,
Henry
第二节(满分25分)
参考范文：
“What should we do next ” my partners asked anxiously. My mind went blank for a second, and Iscratched my head, saying,“Let's try some other ways.” We attempted to call the community service center, only to be told there were no spare vans. Hearing the bad news, we sighed helplessly. Just as we were about to give up, it occurred to me that we could turn to the volunteer association. We made a call immediately, and a volunteer replied,“I' ll manage to arrange one as soon as possible.” Though we had to wait, calmness replaced our earlier panic.
Later that afternoon, the head of the Volunteer Association appeared, driving his van. We waved to him, feeling surprised but relieved. After loading the van together, we were satisfied to see the neatly packed supplies.“It feels so good to help others,” we sighed. As we were heading for the destination, Ithought of the New Year years ago. Back then, a box of food warmed my family; now, a van full of supplies was carrying the same warmth forward. We finally made it in a place where“there were no vans.”
写作第一节评分标准
一、评分程序
评分时，先根据文章内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或者调整档次，最后给分。
二、评分原则
应用文总分是15分，按5个档次给分。
1、词数少于 60或多于100的，从总分中减去2分。
2、书写与卷面较差，以至于影响交际的，将分数降低一个档次。
3、英、美拼写与词汇用法均可接受。
三、各档次给分范围与具体要求
给分范围 具体要求
第五档(优) (13-15分) 很好地完成了试题规定的任务， ·包含所有内容与要点； ·使用丰富、准确、恰当的词汇和语法结构；词汇、语法结构与标点虽有极少数错误，但为尽力使用较为复杂结构或者高级词汇所致； ·有效地采用了衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
第四档(良) (10-12分) 较好地完成了试题规定的任务。 ● 包含所有主要内容与要点； ·使用较为丰富的词汇和语法结构；词汇、语法结构与标点虽有少数错误，但为尽力使用较为复杂结构或者高级词汇所致； ● 较好地使用了衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档(中) (7-9分) 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 ● 包含至少一半的主要内容与要点； 使用简单的词汇和语法结构；词汇、语法结构与标点虽有较多错误，但不影响理解； 使用了简单的衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档(差) (4-6分) 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 ● 包含极少数主要内容与要点； 使用简单与单调的词汇和语法结构；词汇、语法结构与标点错误很多，明显影响理解； 极少使用衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第一档(极差) (1-3分) 未完成试题规定的任务。 ● 基本没有主要内容与要点； ·使用简单、单调与极为有限的词汇与语法结构，且词汇、语法结构与标点错误太多，无法清楚理解； ● 未使用衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
0分 未作答；或内容与题目要求完全不相关；或所写内容无法看清；或完全抄写试题内容。
写作第二节评分标准
一、评分程序
首先根据续文主题、篇章结构和主要情节，初定确定所属档次；再从内容的完整性、语言的准确性、衔接与连贯等方面，确定或调整档次。
二、评分原则
1、读后续写总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2、如果仅写出一个段落内容，三档中位12.5分为上限。
3、词数少于130或多于170的，从总分中减去2分。
4、书写与卷面较差，以至于影响交际的，可将分数降低一个档次。
5、英、美拼写与词汇用法均可接受。
三、各档次给分范围与具体要求
给分范围 具体要求
第五档(优) (21-25分) 很好地完成了试题规定的任务。 ·内容完整、清楚、合理、生动、新颖，与原文情景融洽度高；续写部分与所给短文之间的逻辑、续写两段内容之间的逻辑、续写部分与所给开头语之间的逻辑完全一致； ·使用了多样、准确、恰当的词汇和语法结构，拼写、语法与标点可能有个别小错，主要是因为尝试较复杂的语法结构或高级词汇所致，但完全不影响理解； ·有效的使用了句间与段间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，前后呼应，意义连贯。
第四档(良) (16-20分) 较好地完成了试题规定的任务。 ·内容完整、清楚、合理，与原文情景融洽度比较高；续写部分与所给短文之间的逻辑、续写两段内容之间的逻辑、续写部分与所给开头语之间的逻辑一致； ·使用了比较多样且准确的词汇和语法结构，拼写、语法与标点可能有一些错误，主要是因为尝试较复杂的语法结构或高级词汇所致，但基本不影响理解； ● 较好地使用了句间与段间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档(中) (11-15分) 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 ·内容基本完整、基本清楚、基本合理，与原文情景基本相关；续写部分与所给短文之间的逻辑、续写两段内容之间的逻辑、续写部分与所给开头语之间的逻辑基本一致； ·使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，拼写、语法与标点有较多错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解； ·使用了简单的句间与段间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档(差) (6-10分) 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 ·内容不够完整、不够清楚、不够合理，与原文情景有一定程度的脱节；续写部分与所给短文之间的逻辑、续写两段内容之间的逻辑、续写部分与所给开头语之间的逻辑不够一致； ·所使用的词汇有限，句子结构单调，拼写、语法与标点错误很多，影响理解； ·极少使用句间与段间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第一档(极差) (1-5分) 未完成试题规定的任务。 ·内容不完整、不清楚、不合理，与原文情景基本脱节；续写部分与所给短文之间的逻辑、续写两段内容之间的逻辑、续写部分与所给开头语之间的逻辑不一致；或有较多内容抄自原文，产出内容太少； ·所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构单调，拼写、语法与标点错误特别多，严重影响理解； ·未使用句间与段间衔接成分，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
0分 未作答；或内容与题目要求完全不相关；或所写内容无法看清；或所写内容全部抄自原文。
听力材料
第一节
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(Text 1)
M: I'm looking for a gift for my sister. She loves gardening.
W: How about this set of tools It's on sale for $ 40.
M: That's a bit over my budget. I' ll take that watering can instead. It's only half the price.
(Text 2)
M: Hi, Emily! It's Mr. Brown. I heard you' re going to help with the community clean-up this Saturday.
W: You bet! I'd be the last person to miss an opportunity to protect our environment. We want the
riverbank to look its best for the summer festival.
(Text 3)
W: Welcome back! How was your trip to the coast Did you finally fly solo
M: It was tough! I spent two days waiting for better weather, but the actual flight was incredible. Ihandled the takeoff and landing all by myself!
(Text 4)
M: I was planning to go cycling in the countryside this afternoon. Do you want to join me
W: I'd love to, but have you checked the wind speed The wind is supposed to be quite strong. We'd better stay indoors.
(Text 5)
W: I need to pick up my suit from the dry cleaner's before they close at 6:30.
M: It's 5:45 now. If you take a car or a bus, you' ll spend at least 40 minutes in heavy traffic. You should use the subway instead. It only takes ten minutes.
第一节到此结束。
第二节
听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这2个小题。
(Text 6)
M: Sarah, I' ve checked your draft for our new running shoes brochure. The picture you used is very attractive, and I think the length is just right —— three pages is perfect.
W: Thanks, Peter. I was worried it might be too long for the readers.
M: No, the length is fine. However, I have some concerns about the language. It is a bit too formal for younger runners.
W: I see. I was using a professional tone.
M: We need something more lively to catch their attention.
W: Got it. I' ll polish the language tonight and send you the updated version tomorrow morning.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这3个小题。
(Text 7)
W: Hi, Alex! I saw your car back in the driveway this morning. Welcome home!
M: Hi, Jane! It's nice to see you. My trip to Scotland was an eye-opener! I finally saw the HighlandGames.
W: That sounds impressive. Did anything surprise you
M: Yes, the atmosphere was amazing. I also took some photos. You can walk over later, and I' ll show them to you on my laptop.
W: I'd love to. Did you try any local food
M: Yes, but the flavor was very strange.
W:(Laughs) Well, I'm heading out to water my garden now. I' ll see you in a bit!
听下面一段对话，回答第11 至第13 三个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这3个小题。
(Text 8)
W: Hello, Sun Fashion. How can I help you
M: Hi. I'm calling about a jacket I received this morning. I visited your shop last week, but they didn't have my size, so I ordered it on your website instead.
W: I see. Is there a problem with the delivery
M: Well, I really love the material and the color. However, when I tried it on, I found the size was completely wrong. I ordered a large, but you sent a small.
W: I'm so sorry. We can send a replacement, but it won't arrive until next Monday.
M: That's too late for my Sunday party!
W: How about a full refund, or keeping the small one for half price
M: That won't work for me. But if you use Special Express to deliver it tomorrow, I' ll pay the extra fee.
W: No problem. We’ ll send the right size immediately.
听下面一段对话，回答第14至第16三个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这3个小题。
(Text 9)
W: Excuse me! I'm a bit lost. Could you help me find the Olympic Tower on this map
M: Certainly! I'm Bob, a volunteer here at the park gate. Let's mark our current position first. We are here at the South Gate.
W: Okay, I' ve marked it on the map.
M: Then walk straight north until you see a large lake.
W: I see it. It looks quite far.
M: Well, most people walk around it or stay on the main road, but that takes too long. To save time, Isuggest heading to the left of the lake.
W: Oh, I see. I'm quite worn out. Is there anywhere to sit in the tower Can I watch a movie or have a coffee there
M: I'm afraid that's not possible. The cinema is currently closed for repairs, and there isn't a coffee shop yet. However, a photography exhibition is being held today. It's a quiet place with plenty of seats for a rest.
W: That sounds perfect! I' ll go there right away.
听下面一段独白，回答第17 至第20 四个小题。现在你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。
(Text 10)
Good morning, science lovers! Today we' ll discuss a remarkable“soft robot” recently tested in the deepest parts of the ocean. Firstly, let's look at its design. Traditional machines use thick metal shells,but they often fail in the deep sea. While people think freezing water is the main problem, or that the loss of power is to blame, the real danger is the heavy snelis cracking under extreme pressure. Once the shell breaks, the machine fails immediately. Our new soft robot is different. Inspired by the fish, it doesn't need to move to shallow water or have a stronger body. Instead, it handles pressure by changing its flexible shape to distribute the external force. Secondly, regarding its current task, the robot uses high-quality cameras to gather data about rare species. Interestingly, the team once considered using it to collect stones or explore caves, but they dropped those ideas to focus on biology. Finally, for the future, since the team has already perfected the robot's flexible skin, they will continue the filming work. Their main plan for next year is to improve its power system, which will help the robot stay underwater much longer.
第二节到此结束。
现在，你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
听力部分到此结束。

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