湖南长沙市雅礼中学2025-2026学年高一下学期期中考试英语试卷(含解析,有听力音频有听力原文)

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湖南长沙市雅礼中学2025-2026学年高一下学期期中考试英语试卷(含解析,有听力音频有听力原文)

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雅礼中学2026年上学期期中考试试卷
高一英语
时量:120分钟 分值:150分
命题人:
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节
听下面5段录音。每段录音后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段录音后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。
听下面的录音,回答第1小题。
1. Where are the speakers going first
The market. B. The park. C. The post office.
听下面的录音,回答第2小题。
2. How does the woman get to work
A. By train. B. By car. C. On foot.
听下面的录音,回答第3小题。
3. What are the speakers talking about
A. A country concert. B. A famous singer. C. A special place.
听下面的录音,回答第4小题。
4. How does the man probably feel now
A. Anxious. B. Regretful. C. Grateful.
听下面的录音,回答第5小题。
5. What does the man plan to do
A. Find a full time job. B. Do volunteer work. C. Join a cooking class.
第二节
听下面5段录音。每段录音后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段录音前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,每小题都有5秒钟的作答时间。每段录音播放两遍。
听下面的录音,回答第6和第7小题。
6. When is the film
A. On Saturday morning. B. On Saturday evening. C. On Sunday evening.
7. What does John probably do
A. An actor. B. A lawyer. C. A teacher.
听下面的录音,回答第8至第10小题。
8. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a hotel. B. In an airport. C. In a taxi.
9. How much is the coffee
A. 5 dollars. B. 6 dollars. C. 10 dollars.
10. What will the woman do at 7 pm
A. Buy a plane ticket. B. Get her suitcase. C. Call a taxi.
听下面的录音,回答第11至第13小题。
11. Where can Linda study Computer Science
A. At Stanford. B. At Columbia. C. At UC Berkeley.
12. What problem does Linda have with Columbia
A. The cost. B. The distance. C. The major.
13. What does the man suggest Linda do
A. Listen to her parents’ advice. B. Tour each campus. C. Follow her heart.
听下面的录音,回答第14至第17小题。
14. Why does Sophie look tired
A. She had a long meeting.
B. She stayed up late working.
C. She messed up the meeting.
15. What is the man trying to do
A. Teach Sophie a lesson. B. Give Sophie advice. C. Comfort Sophie.
16. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Relatives. B. Workmates. C. Husband and wife.
17. What happened to the man this morning
A. He missed the concert.
B. He hurt his leg.
C. He fell from the bike.
听下面的录音,回答第18至第20小题。
18. Who can take part in the competition
A. Middle and high school students worldwide.
B. Middle and high school students in America.
C. Middle and high school students in Michigan.
19. What do gamers realize after playing Port Pickup
A. It’s challenging to clean the ocean.
B. It’s necessary to build a port.
C. It’s hard to control a boat.
20. What is the main purpose of the competition
A. To help people relax with video games.
B. To encourage creativity in the game industry.
C. To help find solutions for real-world problems.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
For travelers who love food, attending an international food festival is a perfect way to experience different cultures. The table below lists four of the most famous festivals, each with its unique appeal. At these events, you can taste local specialties, watch cooking shows, and enjoy cultural performances.
Melbourne Food and Wine Festival in Australia (Mar. 10-20) The Festival is Australia’s most famous culinary (美食的) event. Held annually, the festival features local produce, sustainable farming, and green wine-making practices. Visitors can enjoy wine tastings, chef-led cooking classes, and a range of outdoor dining experiences that showcase Melbourne’s diverse food scene—from street food to fine dining. Mistura Food Festival in Peru (Sep. 6-27) As Latin America’s largest food festival, Mistura celebrates Peru’s rich food diversity. It features ingredients from different regions—from Andean potatoes to foreign fruits from the Amazon. Visitors can taste traditional dishes like roast ribs, attend food workshops, watch cultural performances, and shop at handcrafted markets.
Taste of Chicago in USA (Jul. 1-31) Taste of Chicago is the world’s largest food festival, drawing millions of visitors yearly to Grant Park. This vibrant event features live music from renowned performers, cooking demonstrations by top chefs, and family-centered fun activities. The festival showcases the diversity of Chicago’s culinary scene, offering everything from the city’s famous deep-dish pizza and Chicago-style hot dogs to high-end international cuisine, suitable for all ages. Oktoberfest in Germany (Sep. 14-28) Oktoberfest, held annually in Munich, is the world’s biggest beer festival. It centers on Bavarian culture, offering traditional foods such as roast chicken and special beers from Munich’s historic breweries (啤酒厂). The festival features lively beer tents, folk music, parades, and cultural performances in traditional Bavarian clothes. Guests enjoy carnival rides and games, making it a fun celebration for all kinds of gatherings.
21. What makes the Melbourne Festival different from the other festivals
A. It offers a variety of cuisines. B. It includes outdoor activities.
C. It features master chefs. D. It promotes eco-friendliness.
22. A big family of all ages with various tastes would find ________ the best choice.
A. Taste of Chicago B. Melbourne Food and Wine Festival
C. Mistura Food Festival D. Oktoberfest
23. In which part of a magazine would you most likely find this article
A. Cooking Good, Feeling Good. B. Breaking News.
C. Embracing the World. D. The Opinion Corner.
B
On a lively afternoon at a senior center, Grace Sun, a talented high school student and classical pianist, was performing for a talent show, her fingers gracefully moving over the piano keys and her eyes filled with determination. Observing the huge happiness music brought to the elderly audience, Grace decided to organize musical events for seniors in her community.
At just 16 years old, Grace set up a school service club to arrange concerts in care centers, hospitals, and nursing homes. Grace and her classmates started with both virtual and in-person performances, which received heartfelt praise from seniors. The positive response encouraged Grace to continue exploring new ideas, especially for seniors experiencing cognitive(认知的) challenges, such as those with Alzheimer’s disease. After learning about the benefits of music therapy(治疗), Grace began adding familiar 1960s songs to their performances. The recognizable music reminded the elderly of joyful memories of past experiences, proving the deep emotional impact of music.
Driven by her desire to make a wider impact, Grace turned her student club into a non-profit organization in 2023, named Melodies for Remedies. The organization now aims not only to bring comfort and joy through performances, but also to raise awareness of and funds for music therapy research and treatment. With the support of over 100 student musician volunteers, Melodies for Remedies has hosted concerts and music therapy programs across the country, significantly improving the lives of many.
Grace’s story illustrates the amazing power of music to bridge generations and build a strong sense of community. By bringing together student musicians and seniors, she has created meaningful connections and brought happiness to countless individuals. Grace Sun is a true inspiration, encouraging the youth to use their talents and enthusiasm to help those in emotional need.
How did the talent show impact Grace
A. She gained a sense of satisfaction.
B. She decided to learn more classical piano music.
C. She began to improve her performing skills.
D. She got inspiration to help the elderly.
25. What was Grace Sun’s purpose of adding 1960s songs to their performance
A. To explore new musical styles.
B. To create an emotional connection.
C. To show her broad knowledge of music.
D. To teach the elderly about songwriting.
26. What can we learn about Melodies for Remedies
A. It supports music therapy with funding.
B. It focuses on training senior musicians.
C. It has cured some seniors with Alzheimer’s.
D. It profits from the musicians’ performances.
27. Which of the following best describes Grace
A. Helpful and curious. B. Grateful and selfless.
C. Caring and inspiring. D. Outgoing and honest.
C
Have you ever joyously stepped out to your backyard garden, freshly brewed coffee in hand, only to find your cared-for plants and herbs wilted (枯萎的) and dying Was the soil too dry Did pests find their way in During times like these, some frustrated gardeners may wish their fickle ficus (榕树) would just tell them what it needs. A new Microsoft-partnered project in the UK is trying to see if that concept can be demonstrated in the real-world.
Next year, the Royal Horticultural Society in England will show off an “intelligent garden” that uses an AI model to monitor the garden’s environment and inform gardeners when it needs care. Visitors can ask the AI-powered garden questions. The model could then respond with phrases like “I need a bit more water,” or “I could use a haircut” depending on data captured in the soil.
The technical components(组成部分) of the garden are the product of a partnership between AI start-up Avande and Microsoft. The garden relies on a network of sensors placed throughout the garden measuring environmental factors like soil moisture (湿度), alkalinity (碱度), and nutrient levels as well as wind and projected rainfall. All of that data is then sent to a specially designed AI model at the back of the garden. The model, powered by Microsoft’s Azure Open AI Service, can then analyze those factors and inform gardeners on best feeding, watering, or trimming (修剪).
In theory, insights provided by models like this one could help gardeners manage resources efficiently and avoid over-watering plants before rainfall, both of which can aid in sustainability efforts. Those tools could be a welcome convenience for casual growers or businesses looking to reduce costs. It’s unclear, however, whether even the best models can consider something abnormal and individual plant tendencies with the same level of care as experienced gardeners.
Several currently available apps also use AI to help gardeners identify unknown plants by comparing a photo of them against a large online database. But as past reporting has shown, simply trusting an AI to tell you whether a plant or fungi of unknown origin is safe to eat isn’t wise, and could have dangerous results.
28. What will AI be used to do in gardening according to the text
A. Look after the plants in place of gardeners.
B. Design the environmentally-friendly gardens.
C. Improve the condition of soil in the garden.
D. Help the gardeners communicate with the plants.
29. What is paragraph 3 mainly about
A. How the intelligent garden works.
B. Why the intelligent garden is popular.
C. How the intelligent garden was invented.
D. What advantages the intelligent garden has.
30. What do we know about the AI tools for gardening from paragraph 4
A. They can take care of plants as well as skilled gardeners.
B. They guide gardeners to use resources more wisely.
C. They are widely applied in commercial gardens.
D. They play an irreplaceable role in sustainable gardening.
31. What is the author’s attitude toward AI’s use in gardening
A. Unclear. B. Approving. C. Objective. D. Negative.
D
Losing unwanted pounds is what many of us dream of when starting exercising. Unquestionably, aiming to be more active is a good thing. But if the main reason is to lose weight, your decision could very well come to nothing.
For starters, exercise is typically futile for weight loss. Take walking for example. A 150-pound person who walks for 30 minutes will burn, on average, around 140 calories. That’s equal to one can of soda — not exactly a great return on your investment of time and effort. It’s much easier just to skip the soda.
When exercise is added to a diet, the results are equally unimpressive. Researchers found that a combination of dieting and exercising produced no greater weight loss than dieting alone after six months. At 12 months, the diet-and-exercise combination showed an advantage, but it was slight — about 4 pounds on average.
In studies where exercise has produced meaningful weight loss, participants burned at least 400 to 500 calories per session on five or more days a week. To achieve that, a 150-pound person would need to walk a minimum of 90 minutes or run 30 minutes per day. In short, sessions need to go well beyond what most of us are willing or able to do. And even if we manage to make that much effort, our bodies often compensate (抵消) by increasing appetite(食欲) and slowing down metabolism (新陈代谢), effects that over time limit how many pounds we lose.
When exercise fails to meet our weight-loss expectations, we often stop working out. Perhaps the biggest problem with exercising to drop pounds is that it turns physical activity into punishment — a price we have to pay for a slimmer body. How many times have you heard someone say “I’ll need to do extra exercise” after eating too much We treat exercise as a form of self-punishment for being “bad”. In this case, we’re unlikely to keep doing it for very long.
The conclusion is that we’re more likely to treat exercise positively and actually do it when we focus on our well-being rather than our weight.
What does the underlined word “futile” in paragraph 2 mean
A. Necessary. B. Popular. C. Dangerous. D. Useless.
33. What happens when you run 30 minutes on a daily basis
A. You might eat more than usual.
B. You will lose 4 pounds in a month.
C. You will burn 140 calories every day.
D. You might have a higher metabolic rate.
34. Why do people who want to lose weight through exercise often give up
A. They are not likely to really enjoy it.
B. They find it too challenging physically.
C. They turn their attention to their well-being.
D. They have difficulty refusing delicious food.
35. What can be the best title for the text
A. Exercise and weight loss: a pair of brothers
B. Weight loss: why exercise is the wrong path
C. What are the best exercises for losing weight
D. How long should you exercise a day to lose weight
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,选项中有两项为多余选项。
For most of my life, I always treated taste as fixed. When I moved to London, I threw myself into work while my housemates were endlessly trying new things. My automatic “no” to anything that “wasn’t my thing” only kept me trapped in the same daily routine. That left me feeling flat and a little empty. I began to question whether my taste is fixed or could be trained. I once read that children need eight to fifteen tries to accept a new food. 36
I decided to start small. When a friend invited me to a book club, I resisted the instinct (本能) to refuse it despite my longstanding dislike of reading and went anyway. 37 Now I spend mornings reading physical books instead of wandering aimlessly.
Then came music and performance — all things I had previously disregarded. 38 Gradually, I became fascinated by the unfamiliar rhythms and movements and felt proud of my survival in the end.
39 However, I stopped saying no before I had even begun. Most recently, I tried out my local library’s chess club. I was easily 30 years younger than everyone else, but that didn’t matter. Sitting opposite people with wildly different life stories made me realize how rarely I speak with other generations. We talked about their past careers, local news and new chess moves. Interestingly, I felt more connected there than with people of my age.
Research suggests that engaging your curiosity in new activities can help protect against age-related cognitive (认知的) decline. 40 Getting outside my comfort zone now gives me a rush.
A. Yet, I was eager for engagement.
B. I didn’t love everything right away.
C. For me, it is far more than brain health.
D. Initially, I was awkward and sometimes confused.
E. As expected, new tastes rarely come without discomfort.
F. To my surprise, I enjoyed the discussion and the people there.
G. Why shouldn’t the same principle apply to social activities for adults
第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Several months ago, a powerful tornado hit our city without any signs before. We hadn’t 41 for it in advance, so we were just forced to go into our emergency action. I 42 not to be in the classroom when it struck. Hearing the sound of alarm, I rushed 43 as fast as I could back to the classroom. The wind tore off part of the school roof and sent pieces from the hallways flying across the floor.
Never did I imagine that we would put our regular 44 to use. Never did I imagine that my students had already 45 against the wall and crouched down on their knees. Their eyes were obviously filled with 46 as they asked if their parents, pets, and friends would be okay. Together with other teachers, I tried our best to comfort them, though we actually had no idea what the 47 would be.
I couldn’t 48 the tornado more. However, I’m very proud of my students, who behaved so well. In such a (an) 49 situation, they acted beyond their ages. Never in my life had I seen them 50 instructions so quickly, without any 51 . Though some tears were dropping and some hearts were racing, the kids remained unbelievably 52 . And I’m extremely proud that they made an effort to calm down because of their trust in me.
Because of the tornado, I 53 that my job as a teacher meant a lot. Behind every well-behaved student is a long line of teachers who have made it their 54 to educate them with safety, courage, calmness and trust. Though the tornado has 55 challenges , I’m sure we can deal with them one by one.
41.A. applied B. secured C. defended D. prepared
42.A. pretended B. decided C. happened D. attempted
43.A. suddenly B. early C. entirely D. immediately
44.A. warnings B. trainings C. meetings D. savings
45.A. built up B. turned around C. lined up D. taken place
46.A. fear B. embarrassment C. shame D. confusion
47.A. problem B. result C. excuse D. reason
48.A. hate B. expect C. prevent D. survive
49.A. exciting B. odd C. threatening D. common
50.A. follow B. receive C. repeat D. give
51.A. reaction B. question C. hesitation D. action
52.A. fortunate B. honest C. confident D. brave
53.A. doubted B. realized C. stressed D. hoped
54.A. reward B. power C. wisdom D. goal
55.A. designed B. presented C. overcome D. faced
第二节 语法填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
第一部分 (共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
The game of Go, known as weiqi in Chinese, is widely regarded as one of the oldest strategic board games still 56 (play) today. Originating in China more than 4,000 years ago, it has long been considered 57 essential part of a scholar’s four arts, alongside the guqin, calligraphy, and painting.
58 first glance, the rules of Go appear 59 (relative) simple. Two players take turns placing black and white stones on a grid(方格) of 19 by 19 lines. The goal is 60 (surround) more territory (领土) on the board than the opponent. However, the strategic depth behind each move is profound. Each placement must balance short-term gains against long-term goals, reflecting fundamental ideas of Eastern philosophy such as yin and yang.
In recent years, Go 61 (experience) a remarkable revival, not only in East Asia but across the globe. This renewed interest has been significantly boosted by artificial intelligence. In 2016, the world was amazed when AlphaGo, an AI program, defeated Lee Sedol, a famous professional player. The match sparked a 62 (globe) conversation about human creativity versus machine logic, 63 (establish) Go as a bridge between ancient tradition and cutting-edge technology.
Unlike chess, 64 pieces become more powerful as the game progresses, the power in Go depends entirely on the ever-changing relationships between the stones. A single move can change the fate of a large group. “In Go, you learn not only how to win, but also how to lose gracefully,” says a Chinese master. “It teaches you patience, foresight, and the 65 (aware) that every move has a consequence.”
第二部分 (共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
课文句子原文填空,根据提示在空白处填入答案。
66. Yet there is one major danger __________ these irreplaceable plants and animals: us.
67. We also work hand in hand with other branches of government to ensure that development strategies are followed in an _______________________ (环保的) way.
68.She warned her parents of the danger, _________ at first they just thought she was joking.
69. Sabrina was frightened, but she soon ___________ (保持冷静).
70. Over the empty streets — over the forum — far and wide — with many a noisy crash in the stormy sea — ________ (fall) that awful shower.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
假定你是李华,你校计划开展“守护湘江”环保活动。校英语报就以下两种方案征求学生意见:
Option 1: The Green Voice (an ecology-themed English speaking contest)
Option 2: Hands-on Help (environmental volunteering along the river)
请你给校英语报编辑写一封邮件,内容包括:
(1)你的选择;
(2)说明理由。
注意:
(1)写作词数应为80个左右;
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Jack used to be a librarian. He loved reading books more than anything else in the world. Every week, he made it a rule to finish two books. His favorite thing was getting lost in stories by great writers. For years, he dreamed of writing and publishing his own novel and even started working on one.
But when Jack turned forty-five, something terrible happened. He developed a serious eye problem. Day by day, his eyesight got worse. Soon, reading a page made his eyes burn, and watching TV for more than ten minutes felt like a struggle. What he loved most became impossible. The sight of his bookshelf, filled with unread novels and his half-finished novel, only deepened his pain. Jack stopped smiling. He stayed in his room all day, feeling hopeless and alone.
On the other side of the town, a 15-year-old student named Clare learned about Reading Friends, a charity program in Britain, which invites volunteers to visit people who can’t read anymore and read books aloud to them. Clare thought it sounded amazing and signed up right away. He imagined the joy of bringing stories back to those who had lost access to them, hoping his young voice could bridge the gap of silence. When he heard about Jack’s story, he decided to help.
At first, Jack refused Clare’s offer. “What’s the point ” he told his wife Sadie who couldn’t read due to her illness. “I’m not the reader I used to be.” Three times, he closed the door on Clare. But the young volunteer didn’t give up. One day, he called Sadie and asked what kind of books Jack liked. “Ernest Hemingway,” Sadie replied. “He’s read all of Hemingway’s novels at least twice.” Hearing this, Clare had an idea.
注意:
续写词数应为150个左右;
请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
The next Saturday afternoon, Clare came to Jack’s house again. On a sunny Saturday, Jack mentioned his half-finished novel.
雅礼中学2026年上学期期中考试试卷
高一英语答案解析
一、听力
1-5 AACAB 6-10 BCACB 11-15 ABBCC 16-20 BCBAC
阅读理解
21-25 DACDB 26-30 ACDAB 31-35 CDAAB 36-40 GFDBC
完形填空
41-45 DCDBC 46-50 ABACA 51-55 CDBDB
语法填空
56. played 57. an 58. At 59. relatively 60. to surround
61. has experienced 62. global 63. establishing 64. where 65.awareness
课文填空
66. to 67. environmentally friendly 68. though/although 69. kept her head 70. fell
A
21-23 DAC(21-23的答案格式和后面不太一致,后面是“21.D。细节理解题”这样)
【语篇导读】本文是一篇应用文。主要介绍世界四大知名美食节,包括举办时间、特色内容与文化亮点,供美食爱好者参考。
【21题详解】
细节理解题。根据Melbourne Food and Wine Festival in Australia (Mar. 10-20)部分中的“the festival features local produce, sustainable farming, and green winemaking practices.(该节日以本地农产品、可持续农业和绿色酿酒工艺为特色。)”可知,墨尔本美食节的独特之处在于推广环保理念。故选D项。其他三个美食节也有a variety of cuisines、outdoor activities、master chefs,不是Melbourne Food and Wine Festival in Australia的独特之处,故排除。
【22题详解】
细节理解题。根据Taste of Chicago in USA (Jul. 1-31)部分中的“The festival showcases the diversity of Chicago’s culinary scene, offering everything from the city’s famous deep-dish pizza and Chicago-style hot dogs to high-end international cuisine, suitable for all ages.(该节日展现芝加哥丰富的美食种类,从招牌深盘披萨、芝加哥热狗到高端国际菜肴应有尽有,适合各个年龄段。)”可知,年龄不同、口味多样的大家庭会最适合选择芝加哥美食节。故选A项。
【23题详解】
推理判断题。通读全文,根据第一段中的“For travelers who love food, attending an international food festival is a perfect way to experience different cultures.(对于热爱美食的旅行者而言,参加国际美食节是体验不同文化的绝佳方式。)”可知,文章面向环球旅行者介绍世界各地美食文化,最可能出现在杂志的“拥抱世界”板块。故选C项。
B
24-27 DBAC
【语篇导读】本文讲述了高中生Grace Sun用音乐为老年人,尤其是认知能力下降的老年人,带来快乐与安慰的故事。
24. D 细节理解题。根据第一段中的“Observing the huge happiness music brought to the elderly audience, Grace decided to organize musical events for seniors in her community”可知,Grace在才艺表演中看到音乐给老年人带来的巨大快乐,决定在她的社区为老年人组织音乐活动。因此她从这次在老年中心的才艺表演中得到了帮助老年人的灵感。
25. B 推理判断题。根据第二段中的“After learning about the benefits of music therapy(治疗), Grace began adding familiar 1960s songs...proving the deep emotional impact of music”可知,在了解了音乐疗法的好处之后,Grace开始加入老年人熟悉的20世纪60年代的歌曲。这种容易辨认出来的音乐让老年人想起了过去的快乐回忆,这证明了音乐对情感的深刻影响。故可推知,Grace在演奏中加入20世纪60年代的音乐是为了建立与老年人的情感联系,让音乐疗法更有效。
26. A 细节理解题。根据第三段中的“The organization now aims not only to bring comfort and joy through performances, but also to raise awareness of and funds for music therapy research and treatment”可知,Melodies for Remedies不仅通过表演带来安慰和快乐,还提高人们对有关音乐治疗的研究和疗法的认识,并为其筹集资金。即该组织为音乐治疗提供经济支持。
27. C 推理判断题。根据全文叙述,尤其是第一段中的“Observing the huge happiness...musical events for seniors in her community”、第三段中的“Grace turned her student club into a non-profit organization in 2023”以及最后一段中的“she has created meaningful connections...enthusiasm(热情) to help those in emotional need”可知,Grace Sun关爱老年人,为老年人组织音乐表演,激励着更多年轻人用自己的才能和热情去帮助有情感需要的人,因此她是乐于助人和激励人心的。
C
28-31 DABC
【语篇导读】本文是一篇说明文。本文主要讲述英国皇家园艺学会将展示一个“智能花园”,该花园利用人工智能模型监测环境并在植物需要照顾时通知园丁。
28.细节理解题。原文仅提到 AI “inform gardeners when it needs care”(告知园丁植物需求),并未说 AI 会代替园丁照顾植物,属于过度推断,排除A项。原文仅提到 AI 监测土壤湿度、碱度等数据,并未说 AI 会改善土壤状况,无中生有,排除C项。原文未提及 AI 用于设计环保花园,仅提到 AI 助力可持续园艺,偷换概念,排除B项。根据第 1 段末尾 “some frustrated gardeners may wish their fickle ficus would just tell them what it needs. A new Microsoft-partnered project... is trying to see if that concept can be demonstrated”,以及第 2 段 “Visitors can ask the AI-powered garden questions. The model could then respond with phrases like ‘I need a bit more water’(已改为英文的单引号)”,可知 AI 的作用是让园丁能和植物 “对话”,即帮助园丁与植物互动。故选D项。
29.主旨大意题。段落未提及智能花园 “受欢迎的原因”,无中生有,排除B项。段落仅介绍了技术合作方,未说明智能花园的发明过程,排除C项。段落未讨论智能花园的 “优势”,仅说明其工作机制,排除D项。第 3 段详细介绍了智能花园的技术原理:传感器采集土壤、环境数据→数据传输到 AI 模型→AI 分析数据并给园丁养护建议,完整说明了智能花园的工作原理,符合段落主旨。故选A项。
30.细节理解题。原文第4段明确指出...unclear whether… the same level of care as experienced gardeners,说明 AI无法和熟练园丁做得一样好,排除A项。原文仅提到 “tools could be a welcome convenience for... businesses”,并未说明 AI 工具 “已在商业花园广泛使用”,属于过度推断,排除C项。文章没有说 AI 在可持续园艺中是不可替代的,表述过于绝对,与原文不符,排除D项。根据第 4 段第 1 句 “insights provided by models like this one could help gardeners manage resources efficiently and avoid over-watering plants before rainfall”,可知 AI 工具能帮助园丁高效分配资源、避免过度浇水,即帮助园丁更合理地使用资源。故选B项。
31. 推理判断题。作者明确表达了对 AI 优缺点的看法,并非 “态度不明确”,排除A项。作者未一味赞同,也指出了 AI 的风险和不足,并非 “完全支持”,排除B项。作者认可了 AI 的实用价值,并非 “完全否定”,排除D项。作者既提到了 AI 在园艺中的优势(帮助高效分配资源、降低成本、助力可持续发展),也客观指出了其局限性(无法替代有经验的园丁、AI 识别植物存在安全风险),既不盲目肯定,也不全盘否定,态度是客观的。故选C项。
D
(D篇阅读无【语篇导读】,未标注“细节理解题”等题目类型)
32-35 DAAB
32. D。在第2段中,作者举了步行30分钟只燃烧大约140卡路里的例子,这相当于一罐汽水的热量。作者随后评论说:“这对你投入的时间和精力来说,回报并不高。不喝那罐汽水要容易得多。” 这暗示了运动对于减肥来说是无效的,无法达到预期的效果。因此,“futile”在这里的意思是“无用的、无效的”。
33. A。第4段指出:“即使我们努力做到那么多运动量,我们的身体常常会通过增加食欲和减缓新陈代谢来抵消。” 文中提到,一个150磅的人每天需要跑30分钟才能燃烧400-500卡路里。这种运动量会触发身体的补偿机制,包括增加食欲,所以你可能会比平时吃得更多。
34. A。第5段解释道:“也许通过运动减肥最大的问题在于,它把体育活动变成了一种惩罚……我们把运动当作对自己‘不乖’的一种自我惩罚。在这种情况下,我们不太可能长期坚持下去。” 这意味着人们把运动看作惩罚,而不是享受的事情,所以会放弃。
35. B。整篇文章都在论证:如果把运动的主要目的定为减肥,效果往往很差——燃烧的卡路里太少、身体会产生补偿机制、人们会因为感觉像受惩罚而放弃。最后一段的结论是:当我们关注健康而非体重时,才更可能积极运动并坚持下去。因此,文章的核心信息是运动不是好的减肥策略,“为什么运动是错误之路”最贴合主旨。
第二节
36. G 37. F 38. D 39. B 40. C
【语篇导读】这是一篇记叙文。主要讲述了作者过去固守固有喜好、生活单调空虚,后来效仿儿童尝试新事物的道理,主动参与读书、音乐、象棋等活动,收获快乐与归属感,也认识到尝试新事物意义远超健康本身。
36. G 前文“I once read that children need eight to fifteen tries to accept a new food.( 我曾经读到过,孩子需要八到十五次尝试才能接受一种新的食物。)”提到儿童需要多次尝试才能接受新食物,后文“I decided to start small. When a friend invited me to a book club, I resisted the instinct (本能) to refuse it despite my longstanding dislike of reading and went anyway.( 我决定从小事做起。当一个朋友邀请我参加一个读书俱乐部时,尽管我长期以来一直讨厌阅读,但我还是抑制住了拒绝的冲动,还是去了。)”作者开始尝试新的社交活动,G选项“Why shouldn’t the same principle apply to social activities for adults ( 为什么同样的原则不能适用于成年人的社交活动呢?)”将“食物接受原理”类比到成人社交活动,形成逻辑衔接。故选G项。
37. F 前文“When a friend invited me to a book club, I resisted the instinct to refuse it despite my longstanding dislike of reading and went anyway.( 当一个朋友邀请我参加读书俱乐部时,尽管我长期以来一直讨厌阅读,但我还是抑制住了拒绝的冲动,还是去了。)”提到作者本不喜欢阅读却参加了读书俱乐部,后文“Now I spend mornings reading physical books instead of wandering aimlessly.( 现在,我早上会花时间阅读实体书籍,而不是漫无目的地闲逛。)”提到如今养成晨读习惯,此处应说明意外地喜欢上了读书俱乐部的氛围。F选项“To my surprise, I enjoyed the discussion and the people there.( 让我惊讶的是,我享受了这次讨论以及那里的每一个人。)”符合此推断,上下文语意连贯。故选F项。
38. D 前文“Then came music and performance — all things I had previously disregarded. (接下来是音乐和表演——这些都是我之前不屑一顾的东西。)”作者尝试此前忽视的音乐和表演,后文“Gradually, I became fascinated by the unfamiliar rhythms and movements and felt proud of my survival in the end.( 逐渐地,我对那些陌生的节奏和动作产生了兴趣,并最终为自己的坚持感到自豪。)”“Gradually(逐渐地)”体现从生疏到适应的过程,此处应描述初期的窘迫与困惑。D选项“Initially, I was awkward and sometimes confused.( 起初,我感到有些笨拙和困惑。)”符合此推断,起到上下文的承上启下作用。故选D项。
39. B 后文“However, I stopped saying no before I had even begun.( 然而,在我甚至还没开始之前,我就不再说“不”了。)”“However”表转折,说明作者不再轻易拒绝新事物,前文应体现不会立刻爱上所有新事物的客观事实。B选项“I didn’t love everything right away.( 我并非一开始就喜欢上所有的东西。)”符合此推断,和下文紧密连接,符合语境。故选B项。
40. C 前文“Research suggests that engaging your curiosity in new activities can help protect against age-related cognitive (认知的) decline.( 研究表明,对新活动保持好奇心有助于预防与年龄相关的认知能力下降。)”提到新活动利于大脑认知健康,后文“Getting outside my comfort zone now gives me a rush.( 现在走出自己的舒适区让我感到兴奋不已。)”强调走出舒适区带来的精神愉悦,说明意义远超大脑健康本身。C选项“For me, it is far more than brain health.( 对我而言,这远不止关乎大脑健康。)”起到上下文的承上启下作用,符合语境。故选C项。
三、英语知识运用
第一节 完形填空
41-45 DCDBC 46-50 ABACA 51-55 CDBDB
【语篇导读】本文是一篇记叙文。作者讲述了工作中突遇龙卷风来袭,学生们有序避难,以及通过这次事件得出的感悟。
41. 考查动词词义辨析。根据上文“... without any signs before.”及下文“... we were just forced to go into our emergency action.”可知,龙卷风毫无征兆地袭击了作者的城市,他们因为没有提前做好准备(prepared),被迫采取紧急行动,故D项符合语境。
42. 考查动词词义辨析。根据下文“I rushed 43 as fast as I could back to the classroom.”可知,龙卷风来临时作者碰巧不在教室,happen to do sth意为“碰巧做某事”,符合语境。pretend to do 假装做某事;decide to do 决定做某事; attempt to do 试图做某事。
43. 考查副词词义辨析。龙卷风来袭,警报响起,作者应该是立刻地 (immediately)赶回教室。A.“突然地” B.“早早地” C.“完全地” D.“立刻地”。
44. 考查名词词义辨析。根据下文学生们有序地靠墙避难的行动可知,他们平时进行过演练 (trainings)。A.“警告” B.“训练” C.“会议;见面” D.“储蓄”。
45. 考查动词短语辨析。根据避难的常识及“ against the wall”可知,学生们靠着墙排成一行(lined up)。build up增大; turn around转过身; take place发生。
46. 考查名词词义辨析。由龙卷风来袭及学生们担心家人朋友的语境可知,他们是感到害怕(fear)。A.“恐惧” B.“尴尬” C.“羞愧” D.“困惑”。
47. 考查名词词义辨析。 因为龙卷风来袭,老师们也无法得知会造成什么样的后果(result)。A.“问题” B.“结果” C.“借口” D.“理由”。
48. 考查动词词义辨析。根据后一句中的However转折和“I m very proud of my students who behaved so well.”可知,作者虽讨厌(hate)龙卷风,但为学生们应对龙卷风的表现而感到自豪。couldn t ... more表示“非常”。 A.“讨厌” B.“期待” C.“阻止” D.“幸存”。
49. 考查形容词词义辨析。根据龙卷风的特性可知,它是危险(threatening)的。A.“令人兴奋的” B.“奇怪的” C.“有威胁的;危险的” D.“常见的”。
50. 考查动词词义辨析。根据上文学生们有序地靠墙蹲地的避难行动可知,学生们遵循了(follow)平常演练的指示。A.“遵循” B.“收到” C.“重复” D.“给予”。
51.考查名词词义辨析。根据上文 “Never in my life had I seen them 50 instructions so quickly”可知学生迅速地听从老师的指令,故而是“without any hesitation” 毫不犹豫。A.“反应” B.“问题;质疑” C. “犹豫”D.“行动”。
52. 考查形容词词义辨析。根据上文作者为学生们应对龙卷风的表现而感到自豪以及下文“... they made an effort to calm down ...”可知,面对龙卷风来袭,作者的学生们是非常勇敢的(brave)。A.“幸运的” B.“诚实的” C.“自信的” D.“勇敢的”。
53. 考查动词词义辨析。本段主要讲述作者的感悟,也就是作者从这次龙卷风袭击中意识到 (realized)教师这一职业的意义。A.“质疑” B.“意识到” C.“强调” D.“希望”。
54. 考查名词词义辨析。to educate them with safety, courage, calmness and trust.”可知,用安全、勇气、冷静和信任教育学生,是老师教育的目标(goal)。A.“回报” B.“力量” C.“智慧” D.“目标”。
55. 考查动词词义辨析。根据后半句“I m sure we can deal with them one by one.”可知,作者相信学生们能够一一应对挑战,为积极信息,而though表示转折,故而前半句应为负面信息,即龙卷风带来挑战,或符合语境。A.“设计” B.“带来;呈现” C.“克服” D.“面临”。
第二节 语法填空
第一节
56. played 57. an 58. At 59. relatively 60. to surround
61. has experienced 62. global 63. establishing 64. where 65.awareness
【语篇导读】
本文是一篇介绍中国传统文化项目—围棋的说明文。文章从围棋的起源、基本规则、战略思想,一直延伸到人工智能(AlphaGo)带来的当代复兴,将东方哲学与现代科技有机融合。
56. played。 考查非谓语动词。 围棋是“被玩的游戏”,所以用过去分词played。
57. an。 考查冠词。essential 以元音音素开头,表示“一个重要部分”,所以用an。
58. At考查介词。at first glance(乍一看,初看起来)。
59. relatively。 考查词性转换。副词修饰形容词 simple。
60. to surround。表示目的、任务以及梦想的词做主语时,其表语须用不定式。
61. has experienced。考查动词时态。in recent years 是典型现在完成时态标志词。
62. global。考查词性转换。形容词修饰名词conversation。
63. establishing。 考查非谓语动词。 现在分词作结果状语(自然而然的结果)。
64. where。考查定语从句。 先行词chess在定语从句中做地点状语,故填关系副词where。
65. awareness。 考查词性转换。名词做宾语。
第二节
66. to 67. environmentally friendly 68. though/although 69. kept her head 70. fell
四、写作
Dear Editor,
Knowing our school plans to launch activities to protect the Xiangjiang River, I firmly prefer The Green Voice, the ecology-themed English speaking contest, and the reasons are as follows.
For one thing, it perfectly combines English learning with environmental education. Unlike Hands-on Help, the on-site volunteering which only benefits participants directly, speech preparation encourages all students to reflect on practical ways to guard local water resources, gain a deeper understanding of our mother river, and polish their language skills at the same time. For another, inspiring speeches can spread green ideas across the whole campus, raise public environmental awareness and motivate more peers to take consistent action to preserve the river ecosystem, creating a far-reaching influence beyond one-time volunteer work.
I am convinced that this meaningful activity will encourage us to develop eco-friendly habits and contribute to long-term environmental protection in our community.
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
Dear Editor,
Hearing that our school will launch activities to protect the Xiangjiang River, I strongly recommend Hands-on Help, the environmental volunteering along the river, and am writing to express my views.
To begin with, we can carry out our school’s traditional program “Little Fish for River Governance”. Unlike The Green Voice, the English speaking contest which only spreads ideas verbally, releasing young fish into the river helps purify the water naturally and directly reduce potential hidden pollution. In addition, cleaning up the riverbanks enables us to witness litter, plastic waste and subtle signs of pollution firsthand, which will further strengthen our awareness of environmental protection far more deeply than theoretical speech preparation.
Let’s join hands and turn ideas into concrete action to protect our mother river together.
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
读后续写:
【参考范文】
The next Saturday afternoon, Clare came to Jack’s house again. This time, he carried a worn copy of The Old Man and the Sea, determined to reach Jack through the author he once loved. Instead of knocking again, Clare sat down outside the door and began reading, his voice clear and calm. Tired and hopeless, Jack did not respond at first. But the familiar story slowly worked its magic. After several minutes, the door creaked open. Jack said nothing, still leaving the door open. Clare took that as permission, stepped inside, and continued reading. By the end of the afternoon, Jack’s expression had softened. He nodded when Clare asked if he could come again.
On a sunny Saturday, Jack mentioned his half-finished novel. His voice trembled slightly as he described the story he had left behind years ago. Without a word, Clare pulled out his laptop and placed it on the table. Word by word, Jack dictated, and Clare typed. Encouraged by the young volunteer, Jack poured his heart into the book. After months of hard work, the novel was finally completed and then published with Clare’s help. When the printed book arrived, Jack held it in his trembling hands, a wide smile spreading across his face. He realized that his dream as a writer had never truly been lost. More importantly, he had gained something just as precious—a friendship that reminded him he was never alone.
【导语】
本文以人物为线索展开,讲述了爱读书的Jack因眼疾无法阅读和写作而陷入痛苦与绝望,15岁志愿者Clare通过“Reading Friends”慈善项目得知他的故事后,决心用海明威的作品打开Jack的心门,最终帮助他重拾写作梦想并收获珍贵友谊的故事
【详解】
1.段落续写:
1)由原文结尾“He’s read all of Hemingway’s novels at least twice.” Hearing this, Clare had an idea. 以及第一段首句“The next Saturday afternoon, Clare came to Jack’s house again.”可知,第一段应描写Clare如何用海明威的《老人与海》打动Jack,成功破冰并开启每周共读之旅。重点展现Jack从抗拒到接受、从绝望中看到希望的情感转变过程。
2)由第二段首句“One sunny Saturday, Jack mentioned his half-finished novel.”可知,第二段应描写两人在固定共读的基础上,如何进一步发展为深度合作——Clare帮助Jack完成并出版他多年前搁置的小说。这一部分需要与前文“For years, he dreamed of writing and publishing his own novel and even started working on one”的伏笔形成闭环,最后升华主题,点明梦想从未真正消失,以及友谊的珍贵。
2.Clare带来海明威作品→ 朗读破冰 → Jack同意共读 → Jack提起未完成的小说 → Clare帮忙记录 → 小说完成并出版 → 圆梦与感悟
3.词汇激活
determined 坚定的 tired and hopeless疲惫而绝望的
soften 变得柔和 precious — 珍贵的
pour one's heart into 全身心投入
【点睛】
【高分句型1】形容词作状语Tired and hopeless, Jack did not respond at first.
【高分句型2】独立主格结构 Clare began reading, his voice clear and calm.
Jack held the book in his trembling hands, a wide smile spreading across his face.
【高分句型3】分词作状语Determined to reach Jack, Clare sat down outside the door.
Jack said nothing, still leaving the door open.
Encouraged by the young volunteer, Jack poured his heart into the book.
听力原文
1-5 AACAB 6-10 BCACB11-15 ABBCC16-20 BCBAC
(Text 1)
W: Louis, the central market is on the corner. Behind it are the post office and Riverside Park.
M: Let’s buy some snacks at the market first. Then we can picnic at the park.
(Text 2)
W: Honey, the train station’s packed every morning, and I’m tired of standing all the way to work.
M: Yeah … maybe it’s time we thought about getting a car.
(Text 3)
W: Did you hear that Buck Owens’ Crystal Palace is closing down, David
M: Yeah, I saw that. It’s been around for 28 years, hosting so many big names in country music.
W: I bet even people like Taylor Swift have happy memories of playing at places like that.
(Text 4)
W: George, have you heard back from the interview yet It’s been three days.
M: Not yet. Why
W: You keep checking your phone.
M: Just ... wondering if I missed the callback.
(Text 5)
M: Susan, my schedule’s been so empty since I quit my part-time job. I need something to do.
W: Why not volunteer at the food bank They are always short on help.
M: That’s a great idea! I’ll head there right now.
W: Perfect! I’ll join you after my cooking class.
(Text 6) 听下面的录音,回答第6至第7小题。
M: Olivia, I bought two tickets for your favorite actor’s latest film. Do you want to go with me The movie is playing on Saturday evening and Sunday morning.
W: I wish I could, John, but I am tied up with a meeting.
M: You’ve been busy from Monday to Friday. Can’t you take a break
W: Well, with a lawyer’s schedule, weekends often get filled with last-minute cases.
M: Ah, I get it. It’s like how I’m always dealing with student questions over the weekend.
W: At least now you can finally enjoy your summer break.
(Text 7) 听下面的录音,回答第8至第10小题。
W: Hi, I’m checking out of Room 409.
M: Alright. Hmm ... I see two bottles of water, two breakfasts and it looks like you requested a late checkout as well. There’s also a coffee from the minibar. The total is 66 dollars.
W: I didn’t have the coffee. That might be a mistake.
M: No problem, I’ll remove it. That brings your total to 56 dollars! Would you like to pay by cash or card
W: Card, please. Could I leave my suitcase here and pick it up around 7 pm
M: Of course. Here’s your claim ticket.
W: Thank you. Could you call a taxi for me now
M: Absolutely, madam. It should arrive in about five minutes.
W: Thanks for all your help.
(Text 8) 听下面的录音,回答第11至第13小题。
M: Have you decided which college you’re going to, Linda
W: Ah, don’t remind me. I’ve been struggling with that decision.
M: What’s the issue I thought you got accepted into many places.
W: I did — Stanford for Computer Science, Columbia for International Relations, and UC Berkeley for Environmental Studies. But each one has its own problem.
M: Like what
W: Stanford’s my dream school for Computer Science, but the school fees are way too high. Columbia’s program is amazing, but it’s so far from home. Berkeley’s closer and cheaper, but the major isn’t really my passion.
M: That’s tough. Have you talked to your parents about it
W: I have, but they just tell me to choose what feels right. Not exactly helpful.
M: Maybe take a day to visit each campus. I can come with you.
W: That’s a good idea.
(Text 9) 听下面的录音,回答第14至第17小题。
M: Sophie, what’s up You look tired.
W: Oh, you have no idea. I had the worst morning at work. Mr. Baker asked me to organize the meeting, but I forgot to print the papers and the projector wasn’t working. In brief, it was a disaster.
M: That sounds like a lot to deal with. But at least you tried, right
W: Yeah, but it’s embarrassing. I feel like I can’t do anything right.
M: Don’t worry, everyone makes mistakes. It’s how you learn. Plus, half of your terrible morning wasn’t even something you could control.
W: I guess you’re right. By the way, I didn’t see you in the meeting. Where were you
M: I went to the hospital. I hurt my arm.
W: Oh no. I’m sorry to hear that. How did that happen
M: I went to a concert last night and stayed up late. I was so sleepy on my way to the office that I lost control of my bike.
W: That’s awful. I hope you will get well soon.
M: Thanks.
(Text 10) 听下面的录音,回答第18至第20小题。
Good evening, I’m Andrew Anderson, and I’ll be hosting today’s news program. Our top story today is how young people are dealing with global issues through digital games. The nonprofit Games for Change organized a competition to encourage middle and high school students across the U.S. to design games that deal with issues impacting their communities.
One of the winning games, Port Pickup, was created by Logan Lawler and Drew Oleski from Michigan. In this game, players collect pollution in the sea until their boat is full, then return to the port to put it down. In their race back and forth to the port, gamers get a sense for just how big a task cleaning up the ocean would be — a realization its designers made too.
This competition aims to show how games can be more than fun — they can help us think about significant real-life issues and find solutions. It’s really amazing to see young people using their creativity to make a difference.

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