资源简介

2025~2026 学年度高二第二学期期中考试·英语
参考答案、提示及评分细则
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30分）
1~5 CACBB 6~10 CACAB 11~15 ACABB 16~20 ABCAB
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50分）
第一节（共 15小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 37.5分）
21. A 22. C 23. D 24. D 25. A 26. D 27. A 28. C 29. B 30. B
31. D 32. A 33. B 34. D 35. B
第二节（共 5小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 12.5分）
36. F 37. E 38. C 39. G 40. A
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分 30分）
第一节（共 15小题；每小题 1分，满分 15分）
41. C 42. D 43. B 44. C 45. A 46. D 47. D 48. C 49. B 50. B
51. A 52. A 53. D 54. C 55. B
第二节（共 10小题；每小题 1分，满分 10分）
56. kicked 57. a 58. regularly 59. professional 60. which
61. from 62. individuals 63. lying 64. to turn 65. be seen
第三节（共 5小题；每小题 1分，满分 5分）
66. interrupt 67. humble 68. absorb 69. sensitive 70. advertise
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 40分）
第一节 应用文写作（满分 15分）
One possible version:
Dear Alice,
How is everything going I’m writing to share an unforgettable experience with you.
Last Friday, I attended our school’s painting exhibition themed “The Most Beautiful Campus”. Many students
showed their works, including lively drawings of campus life, smiling students, beautiful scenery and creative
scenes about youth. The paintings were colourful and full of energy.
I was deeply impressed by the students’ creativity and love for our school. The exhibition not only enriched
our school life but also encouraged us to discover beauty around us. It was really a meaningful activity.
Looking forward to hearing from you.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 读后续写（满分 25分）
One possible version:
We ran up to her and asked what was wrong. “I twisted my ankle by accident I can’t walk now, but I have
called my parents,” she responded, her face pale. Looking at her frightened eyes, Joe’s words echoed in my mind:
“Just pass it on.” My husband immediately knelt down to examine her ankle. “It is a sprain,” he said with certainty.
Then he, using his first aid knowledge, stabilized her ankle with a bandage from our backpack. Meanwhile, I sat
beside her, reassuring her all the while. “Now we get you back to our cabin; it’s not far,” my husband suggested.
The girl nodded gratefully. Together, we supported her, making our way back towards the cabin.
As soon as we took her back to the cabin, her parents came. They rushed over, worried and tearful, and
thanked us repeatedly. The girl told them what had happened and how we helped her. Her father insisted on giving
us some money as a thank-you, but we shook our heads and said, “Just pass it on.” Those words felt natural, just as
Joe had said to us. The girl smiled and promised she would. Watching their warm hugs, I felt a warm current in my
heart. We truly understood Joe’s words — kindness is not a burden, but a light that can be passed from one person
to another, brightening everyone’s way.
写作的评分细则
第一节 应用文写作（满分 15分）
（一）评分原则
1．本题总分为 15分，按 5个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整
档次，最后给分。
3．词数少于 60词或多于 100词的，从总分中减去 2分。
4．评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯
性。
5．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼
写及词汇用法均可接受。
6．若书写较差以致影响交际，酌情扣分。
（二）各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（13~15分）
——完全完成试题规定的任务。
——覆盖所有内容要点。
——应用较多的语法结构和词汇。
——语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言
运用能力。
——有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
——完全达到预期的写作目的。
第四档（10~12分）
——完成试题规定的任务。
——虽漏掉 1-2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂的语法结构或词汇所致。
——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
——达到预期的写作目的。
第三档（7~9分）
——基本完成试题规定的任务。
——虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
——整体而言，基本达到预期的写作目的。
第二档（4~6分）
——未适当完成试题规定的任务。
——漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
——语法结构单调，词汇有限。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。
——较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺乏连贯性。
——信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档（1~3分）
——未完成试题规定的任务。
——明显漏掉主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题的要求。
——语法结构单调，词汇有限。
——较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。
——缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
——信息未能传达给读者。
0分
——未能传达给读者任何信息：白卷、内容太少，无法评判；所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内
容无法看清。
第二节 读后续写（满分 25分）
（一）评分原则
1．本题总分为 25分，按 5个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定
或调整档次，最后给分。
3．词数少于 120词的，酌情扣分；只写一段的原则上不超过 10分。
4．评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑：
（1）与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；
（2）内容的丰富性和关键信息的利用情况；
（3）应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；
（4）上下文的连贯性。
5．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、
美拼写及词汇用法均接受。
6．若书写较差以致影响交际，酌情扣分。
（二）各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（21~25分）
——与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接合理。
——内容丰富，利用了文中的关键信息。
——所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达。
——有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档（16~20分）
——与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接较为合理。
——内容比较丰富，基本利用了文中的关键信息。
——所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。
——比较有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写的短文结构紧凑。
第三档（11~15分）
——与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
——写出了若干有关内容，部分利用了文中的关键信息。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义表达。
——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
第二档（6~10分）
——与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
——写出了一些有关内容，较少利用文中的关键信息。
——语法结构单调，词汇有限，有语法结构和词汇方面的错误，且影响了意义的表达。
——较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档（1~5分）
——与所给短文和所提供的各段落开头语的衔接较差。
——写出的内容较少，很少利用文中的关键信息。
——语法结构单调，词汇很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达。
——缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。
0分
——未能传达给读者任何信息：白卷、内容太少，无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
听力部分录音材料
(Text 1)
W: David, forget about Peter. His aunt is in town, so he can’t go with us today.
M: Oh, what a pity! It’s the last day of the art show.
(Text 2)
M: Well, we start our new school next week. How are you going to get there, Mary
W: It’s not far, so I don’t need to take a bus. I’ll cycle because walking there with some heavy books would be too
tiring.
(Text 3)
W: Look straight ahead and read out the letters and numbers on the lowest line. Can you see them clearly
M: Sure, I see 4, L, G, B, O, and 7.
W: Right. So there is nothing wrong with your eyes.
(Text 4)
M: What a big stomach I have! I ought to take some exercise to keep my weight down.
W: Maybe stopping drinking so much beer would be a lot of help to you.
(Text 5)
M: How was your holiday
W: It wasn’t bad.
M: I heard the weather was really stormy there, though.
W: Oh, it was terrible on some of the nearby islands. But we were lucky on the mainland—not a cloud in the sky.
(Text 6)
M: Have you noticed the empty land outside our office window It’s been empty since I started working here.
W: Yeah. There used to be several small shops. After the construction of several office buildings, the shops were
pulled down.
M: Then will it be a subway station
W: It’s hardly likely.
M: Well, I hope a mall can be built there so that we can get some food or coffee during our lunch break.
(Text 7)
M: Hey! Hi there! Sharon. Fancy meeting you here. Paris, France of all places!
W: Donald! What a coincidence! It’s a small world, isn’t it
M: Yeah. We’ve just finished our tour. We’re going back tomorrow, but I wish I had more time.
W: So do I.
M: So where’ve you been, Sharon
W: Well…we started in London. You know, the Tower of London.
M: Oh yeah, we did that. I liked the Bloody Tower. Did you enjoy it
W: I don’t think we went there. But I’m sure my son wishes he’d been there. They should improve the brochure. I
didn’t see anything in it about that.
M: You mean you didn’t go to the Bloody Tower! What a pity! Well, what about Italy then
W: Well, we had a great time in Italy.
(Text 8)
W: Hi, Simon. I wanted to ask you about the school table tennis team. Who’s our coach this term
M: It’s Mr. Winters. Are you coming to the first practice next week, then
W: If I can. Is it still on a Tuesday after school
M: It’s been changed to Monday now. I had a talk with Mr. Winters last week. He is busy from Tuesday to Friday.
W: Oh, I have a music lesson at 4:30 that day.
M: I also have an English examination from 5:00 to 5:50. But we don’t start till 6:30. You finish before that, don’t
you
W: Yeah. Do we still have to pay one pound for each practice
M: No, it’s one pound more this term.
W: That’s OK.
M: Mr. Winters told everyone to take water. We always get thirsty.
W: OK. I’ll see you there, then.
(Text 9)
M: So Lily, your kitchen garden looks excellent. What made you turn to social media to record your vegetable
growing
W: Initially, I used the online platform as a diary, something to look back on, giving me a sense of achievement and
keeping me motivated and moving forward.
M: I know you grow lots of fruit on your land. Which would you recommend to beginners as the best to grow
W: Strawberries would be a good choice. They produce a lot of fruit in their first season.
M: That’s cool. Well, do you have plans to try new or any particular crops next year
W: Next season I will be adding some pear trees to the fruit area. I will be adding more herbs. And after a couple of
years of failure, I will try growing carrots again.
M: What advice would you offer someone thinking of doing kitchen gardening
W: Have a plan of what you want your kitchen garden to look like. Don’t be too discouraged if things don’t go
according to plan. Learn from your mistakes and move on. There’s always next season.
(Text 10)
W: Good afternoon, everyone. I’m Michelle. Not too long ago, I took on the challenge of learning to play the guitar.
As an athlete, I thought mastering the guitar would be easy with enough discipline. But it wasn’t just about physical
discipline. It tested my patience, strategy, and a different kind of mental commitment. I tried to play complex
pieces before mastering the basics. It was a struggle, but I learned to respect the process. Soon my first public
performance arrived. I thought I would be very nervous, but strangely, I wasn’t. I played without missing a beat.
The applause and cheers were truly amazing. Every struggle, every wrong note was worth it in that moment. In
conclusion, I want to remind you that taking on any new skill requires more than just physical strength; it demands
respect for the process and the courage to keep pushing forward. Thank you.高二英语试题
（试卷满分：150分，考试时间：120分钟）
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并将条形码粘贴在答题卡上
的指定位置。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如
需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号；回答非选择题时，用 0.5mm的黑色字迹签
字笔将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，请将答题卡上交。
4．本卷主要命题范围：选择性必修第二册 U4~选择性必修第三册 U4。
第一部分听力（共两节，满分 30分）
第一节（共 5小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 7.5分）
听下面 5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. What will the speakers do today
A. Meet the woman’s aunt.
B. Eat out with Peter.
C. Go to an art show.
2. How will the woman get to school
A. By bike. B. On foot. C. By bus.
3. What is the man probably doing
A. Studying English.
B. Playing chess.
C. Seeing an eye doctor.
4. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Where to have a drink.
B. How to lose weight.
C. When to do exercise.
5. How was the weather on the mainland
A. Cloudy. B. Bright. C. Stormy.
第二节（共 15小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 22.5分）
听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中
选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟；听完后，
各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6段材料，回答第 6、7题。
6. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Shopkeeper and customer. B. Architect and worker.C. Workmates.
7. What does the man hope will be built on the empty land
A. A mall. B. An office building. C. A subway station.
听第 7段材料，回答第 8至 10题。
8. Where are the speakers now
A. In Italy. B. In England. C. In France.
9. Why didn’t the woman visit the Bloody Tower
A. She didn’t know it.
B. Her son disliked it.
C. She lost the brochure.
10. What do we know about the woman
A. She started her tour in Paris.
B. She enjoyed herself in Italy.
C. She will go back home the day after tomorrow.
听第 8段材料，回答第 11至 13题。
11. When will the woman have the music lesson on Monday
A. At 4:30. B. At 6:30. C At 5:50.
12. How much should Simon pay for each practice this term
A. 1 pound. B. 3 pounds. C.2 pounds.
13. What did Mr. Winters tell team members to take with them
A. Some water.
B. A table tennis ball.
C. Some food.
听第 9段材料，回答第 14至 17题。
14. Why did Lily post her kitchen gardening online at first
A. To make herself well-known.
B. To keep records of her progress.
C. To sell her own vegetables.
15. Why does Lily recommend beginners to grow strawberries
A. They grow faster than other fruits.
B. They bear a lot of fruit soon.
C. They are more popular.
16. What will Lily grow again after years of failure
A. Carrots. B. Pears. C. Herbs.
17. What does Lily suggest those interested in kitchen gardening do
A. Aim high. B. Stay optimistic. C. Avoid mistakes.
听第 10段材料，回答第 18至 20题。
18. What did the speaker initially think of learning the guitar
A. It requires strategy.
B. It is a mental challenge.
C. It is easy.
19. How did the speaker feel when giving her first performance
A. Calm. B. Upset. C. Proud.
20. What does the speaker remind people about learning new skills
A. Struggling at first is normal.
B. It is important to value the learning journey.
C. Physical strength is the key factor.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50分）
第一节 （共 15小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
3 DAYS KENYA BUDGET SAFARI AMBOSELI
Overview
Have an particular and amazing tour with great exposure of Mount Kilimanjaro and great view of the peak,
not leaving behind the breath-taking view of the sunrise. Land Rail Safaris enables an amazing and great
experience to the tourists with great memories.
TOUR PACKAGE INCLUDES:
Transport in safari van with hatch roof.
Accommodation as per route
Services of our Professional Guide/Driver
All park entrance fees
All meals (B, L & D)
Statutory taxes (法定税)
Schedule
DAY 1: NAIROBI-AMBOSELI
Pick up from the hotel and drive to Amboseli National Park, arriving in the evening to have a great view of the
sunset on the edge of Amboseli. Later have a relaxing evening in preparation for the next day. Have refreshment
with dinner and overnight at the Nyati Safari Camp.
DAY 2: AMBOSELI FULL DAY
The driver guide will pick you after breakfast and proceed for early morning viewing in this park which
contains swamp (沼泽地) in which elephants and hippos bathe in abundance. You will be able to see a variety of
antelopes and birds too and the highest mountain in Africa. Break for your picnic lunch and go for game viewing to
track the animals later in the afternoon. Drive back to the campsite for dinner and overnight stay.
DAY 3: AMBOSELI — NAIROBI
Have an early morning rise and check out of the camp going on a memorable last sightseeing morning drive
and being able to see the beautiful view of the sunrise and an amazing view of the peak of Mount Kilimanjaro.
Later start your journey back and be dropped at Emali to continue your tour to Mombasa or proceed to Nairobi and
be dropped at the airport to catch your flight in time and close the amazing journey of a lifetime.
21. Which service is covered by the package tour
A. Professional guide services. B. Transport on a regular coach.
C. Wines with meals. D. Sugary snacks.
22. Which one can tourists experience during Day 2
A. Campfire gathering on the edge of Amboseli.
B. Hot air balloon safari at sunset.
C. The observation of animals in the swamp.
D. Optional cultural village visits.
23. Where is the text taken from
A. A report. B. A novel. C. A blog. D. A brochure.
B
Dear Editor,
After I attended your summer camp about health and lifestyle choices, I realised I hardly ever felt well, either
physically or mentally. I often felt sleepy and dizzy, and lacked passion. Most worrying, though, I got the flu easily
and experienced many toothaches, too.
At the end of the camp I heard, “Change the world by changing yourself.” This stimulated my motivation. A
dentist once examined me and told me that too much sugar in my meals had damaged my teeth and health. I made
up my mind to change two things in my life: to eat nothing with sugar and to exercise regularly.
After that I stopped buying all the sweets, biscuits, and sugary drinks that I used to have every day. Whenever
I went out with friends, I brought snacks from home, things that didn’t have any added sugar: fruit, nuts, dried meat,
etc.
My exercise was very simple: I went outside every day for at least 30 minutes and did something active.
Sometimes I played table tennis or badminton with my cousins. Other times I jumped on my skateboard and rode
around my neighbourhood, or just took a long walk.
The results have been fantastic. I feel more dynamic and stronger than ever, in both body and mind. I sleep
soundly at night now. I no longer suffer from a flu virus or toothaches either. Best of all, in my opinion, is how I
feel about myself. I feel like I’m in control of my own life. To make choices about myself is within my own power.
I CAN change myself. I just need to try.
Yours truly,
Wang Lu
Dear Editor,
As I took part in the summer camp about personal life choices, I started to analyse my choices, especially what
I did to relax and how it was affecting my whole life.
After starting high school, I felt stressed out and always relaxed by playing computer games. I got so absorbed
that I played the games day and night. Playing was fun, but I felt even more worn out afterwards! So after the camp,
I realised that it was very, very important to adjust my lifestyle. I decided to take control of my life and find other
ways to relax.
It was a big struggle not to join my friends in playing online games as I’m mad for them. However, I realised
that to succeed in quitting, I had to replace it with something else. So I thought about what to try. Rock climbing,
bowling, watching comedies, and playing basketball were the things I thought of doing instead.
Now my dad and I go rock climbing together monthly! It has enhanced the quality of my life, improving my
health and increasing my happiness. I get refreshed through climbing, spend more time with my dad, and get to
meet new friends.
After six months of trying out new ways of relaxing, I feel much more energetic. I feel that I can change
myself for the better. And if that’s true for me, then it might truly be possible to change the world for the better. As
Gandhi said, “Be the change you want to see in the world.”
Sincerely,
George Fielding
24. What can we learn from the two passages
A. George Fielding likes eating things without sugar.
B. Wang Lu likes playing computer games.
C. They both perform badly in school.
D. They both benefit a lot from the summer camp.
25. Which is TRUE about the summer camp mentioned in the letters
A. Wang Lu learned “Change the world by changing yourself.” in the camp.
B. Wang Lu met a dentist in the camp.
C. The camp is about how to exercise properly.
D. George Fielding did not attend the camp.
26. How did Wang Lu change himself
A. He exercised regularly.
B. He decided not to eat anything with sugar.
C. He often jumped on his skateboard and rode around his neighbourhood.
D. A, B and C.
27. What can be inferred in the second letter
A. George Fielding felt it important to adjust his lifestyle.
B. George Fielding played computer games better than others.
C. George Fielding felt better after playing computer games.
D. George Fielding felt he can not change himself for the better.
C
Past research suggested drinking alcohol (酒) in moderate (适中的) amounts could be good for the heart. But
a growing number of public health experts now advise people to limit alcohol intake as much as possible to
improve health.
Earlier in 2025, US Surgeon General Dr. Vivek Murthy called for changing his agency’s existing health
warning on alcoholic drinks to include cancer risks. Alcohol breaks down in the body into a substance called
acetaldehyde. This chemical can damage cells and stop them from repairing themselves. The process can create
conditions for cancer to grow.
Estimates show thousands of US deaths could be prevented each year if people followed government dietary
guidelines on drinking alcohol. The guidelines advise men to limit themselves to two drinks or fewer per day and
women to one drink or fewer per day. An example of one drink would be equal to one 12-ounce can of beer, a
5-ounce glass of wine or one serving of liquor.
Medical experts say the idea that moderate drinking can cause health improvements, or benefits, came from
imperfect studies. The research compared groups of people based on how much they drank, with amounts usually
measured at only one point in time. Since some earlier studies did not follow rules about what groups were
measured, researchers say they did not effectively prove cause and effect. People who report drinking moderately
generally have higher levels of education, higher earnings and better resources for health care.
Another problem was that most studies did not include younger people. Almost half of people who die from
alcohol-related causes do so before the age of 50. The studied groups did not effectively represent all drinkers. This
likely created “an appearance” of a benefit for moderate drinkers that is not real.
Health guidelines related to alcohol intake have wide differences from country to country. But the overall
message today is that drinking less is better for health. Britain, France, Denmark, Holland and Australia recently
examined new evidence and lowered their guidelines for safe amounts of alcohol. Ireland plans to begin requiring
cancer warnings on alcohol containers starting in 2026.
28. What does Vivek Murthy think of the existing alcohol warnings in the US
A. They are baseless. B. They are reasonable.
C. They need further improvement. D. They need to be ended.
29. What does the underlined word “liquor” in Paragraph 3 refer to
A. A substance that causes cancer.
B. Strong alcoholic drink.
C. A food containing alcohol.
D. A soft drink similar to fruit juice.
30. What does Paragraph 4 mainly talk about
A. How alcohol affects your health.
B. Limitations of original studies about moderate drinking.
C. Potential risks related to drinking alcohol.
D. Alcohol abuse among young people.
31. What is the author’s purpose in writing the last paragraph
A. To warn people to give up bad lifestyle habits.
B. To encourage people to do more studies.
C. To provide readers with more knowledge.
D. To show most countries suggest drinking less for health.
D
With climate change increasing and an El Nino weather pattern in effect for the western hemisphere, heat
island effect (热岛效应) has become a real problem for cities under the summer sun. GAF created a product called
StreetBond Pavement Coating (路面涂层) that aims to turn that heat island effect around by reflecting heat back
into space.
The GAF Cool Community project is working to help ease urban heat island effects by painting hot city
surfaces such as pavement that absorbs heat and can cause burns on contact. GAF StreetBond pavement coatings
feature an innovative technology called Invisible Shade — named by TIME magazine as one of its Best Inventions
of 2022. It’s a product that can reduce temperatures of hot paved surfaces. And, of course, it comes in all shades
and colours so you can coat a playground to make it less dangerously hot as easily as you could paint your city
parking lots and streets to avoid the worst of a heat wave.
It’s possible to coat more than just the road surfaces. Rooftops also account for a large portion of heat island
effect through radiation absorption. By painting city streets, roofs and other large surface areas with reflective
coatings, it is possible to significantly reduce the heat island effect and keep citizens much more comfortable in the
summer sun. “The US has four million miles of roads and 61 billion square feet of roofing on commercial buildings
(roughly equivalent to one million football fields), trapping heat at increasingly dangerous levels as global
temperatures rise,” GAF reported.
And this isn’t just about comfort: heat worldwide is getting dangerous as temperatures push into the triple
figures beyond what the human body can deal with. From heat stroke (中暑 ) to excessive heat deaths now
numbering in the millions worldwide every year to social impacts like depression and suicide (自杀 ), excessive
heat is a threat to a peaceful society if it continues to rise. There have even been reports of increased crimes and
even hate speech is going up during heat waves.
32. What is the working principle of StreetBond Pavement Coating
A. Reflecting heat into space. B. Absorbing the sunlight.
C. Smoothing the road surface. D. Increasing the rainwater.
33. What can we know about the reflective coating from Paragraph 2
A. It’s the greatest invention to date.
B. It’s very practical.
C. It’s out of date.
D. It brings some risks.
34. What gets worse in extreme heat according to the last paragraph
A. Water supply. B. Birth rate. C. Air quality. D. Social stability.
35. Which of the following is the best title for the text
A. The Severe Dangers of Global Climate Change
B. Coating Streets and Roofs to Minimize Heat Island Effect
C. Why Urban Roads Regularly Need Carefully Repainting
D. New Smart Inventions for Truly Cooling Homes
第二节 （共 5小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Each year, the number of accidental drownings rises sharply in summer. We are dedicated to reducing
drownings and raising awareness about the preventable issue. 36
Use barriers and alarms
Four-sided fences, self-closing gates, safety alarms and pool covers are the best to protect unrestricted access
of children and even of adults into a body of water, whether it be a pool or a pond. 37 If a person goes
underwater with it, there’s a device that can be sounded off.
Supervise (监督) swimmers and water activities
The second layer is to appoint a supervisor or a water watcher whenever children are in, near, or around the
water, even when there’s a lifeguard in place. We advocate fully focused supervision. 38 not being
engaged in conversation, and not doing household chores while kids are in the water, because drowning is fast and
silent.
Learn how to swim
39 Choose brightly coloured swimsuits to be easily spotted. Everyone is supposed to learn to swim. It’
s about building water-smart skills: floating on your back, treading water, making it to the edge, and shouting for
help if you need to. Such basic competence can save lives.
Use life jackets
In addition, we urge the use of life jackets that are sized appropriately for use in, near or around bodies of
water and while boating. It keeps you above the surface and helps you float. Adults need to teach young children
about how life jackets work and why it’s important to wear one and what can happen if one isn’t worn.
40
We suggest learning to perform first aid and keeping rescue equipment in hand. Know how to recognize
someone who’s in trouble and then what to do in that case, call for help and reach or throw something that floats to
them.
A. Prepare for emergencies
B. Ensure greater accessibility
C. That means not being on a cell phone
D. If you lack rescue training, do not supervise others
E. Modern wearable technology further enhances safety
F. Here are five layers of protection to prevent drownings
G. Another key to preventing drownings is to learn how to swim — plain and simple
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分 30分）
第一节 （共 15小题；每小题 1分，满分 15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I used to hide my sketchbook (素描本) whenever guests came over. Drawing was my secret 41 , but
showing my art to others felt like 42 my feelings. Even my closest friend had never seen my drawings —
what if they thought my work was 43
Last semester, our art teacher announced a school exhibition. “Anyone can submit pieces,” she said, smiling.
My heart 44 at the idea, but fear quickly 45 . I ignored the notice, 46 not to care. But that
night, I leafed through my sketchbook and stopped at a drawing of my neighbourhood. It took me weeks to capture
the way sunlight filtered (透过) through the oak trees.
“Why are you so afraid to share it ” my mum asked, noticing my 47 . “What if people laugh at it ” I
murmured (小声嘀咕). She sat beside me and pointed to a dirty point on the paper. “Even this 48 tells a
story. Art isn’t about being perfect — it’s about being true.”
Her words stayed with me. The next day, I 49 gathered my courage and handed in the drawing. For
weeks, I avoided thinking about the exhibition, afraid of failure. Then the opening night arrived. I stood in the
doorway, 50 to enter.
Suddenly, a voice called my name. It was my art teacher, leading a group of students to my drawing. “The
details here are 51 ,” one student said. Another nodded: “It makes me feel like I’m walking down that street.”
I felt a warmth spread through my chest.
That night, I realized hiding my art had been robbing (抢劫 ) myself of 52 . Now, I keep my
sketchbook on my desk, open to anyone who asks. Sharing our passions, I learned, is how we 53
connections with others. And sometimes, the very thing we fear most can become our greatest 54 .
Months later, that drawing still hangs in the school library. When I pass it, I always remember the day I
stopped letting fear 55 my dreams.
41. A. thought B. mystery C. passion D. desire
42. A. spotting B. ignoring C. pursuing D. exposing
43. A. great B. meaningless C. creative D. imaginary
44. A. stopped B. opened C. raced D. sank
45. A. took over B. took in C. took up D. took out
46. A. appearing B. managing C. refusing D. pretending
47. A. tiredness B. kindness C. discoveries D. hesitation
48. A. progress B. decision C. imperfection D. mistake
49. A. gradually B. eventually C. regularly D. suddenly
50. A. sorry B. scared C. eager D. disappointed
51. A. amazing B. shallow C. regular D. obvious
52. A. joy B. beauty C. freedom D. calm
53. A. value B. destroy C. escape D. build
54. A. leap B. regret C. pride D. intention
55. A. follow B. limit C. determine D. realize
第二节 （共 10小题；每小题 1分，满分 10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式
On the occasion of World Sleep Day, a sleep-in-forest competition 56 (kick) off on Saturday at
Dongping National Forest Park on Shanghai’s Chongming Island, with a first batch of 50 participants immersed in
fresh air and greenery for 57 good sleep and a cash prize.
The competition will be 58 (regular) held from 9 a.m. to 7:20 p.m. on Saturdays through April 26, as
well as on May 2 and 3. Competitors’ sleep conditions will be objectively recorded by 59 (profession) sleep
monitoring devices. These will comprehensively evaluate each one’s sleep quality and decide the winners.
The organizers disclosed that the monitoring equipment would collect real-time data on participants’ heart
rates, sleep duration and other information, 60 will be displayed simultaneously (同步地) on a large screen
on-site.
Aiming to free urban residents 61 their daily hustle and bustle (喧嚣), the contest is extensively open
to healthy 62 (individual) aged 18 to 50. Falling asleep is not mandatory (强制性的) for the competition.
Participants are allowed restful activities such as simply closing their eyes or lying still.
Throughout the entire event, participants should remain 63 (lie) down on the provided standard
mattress (床垫). They are allowed 64 (turn) over, but no part of the body should extend beyond one-third of
the mattress’ surface area. Significant movements such as sitting up, standing or leaving the bed to visit a restroom
will 65 (see) as the end of their challenge.
第三节 单词拼写（共 5小题；每小题 1分，满分 5分）
66. Can I ______ (打断) you just for a minute
67. His views come from his own ______ (卑微的) beginnings.
68. His mind was like a sponge (海绵), ready to ______ (吸收) anything.
69. Employment is a very ______ (敏感的) issue.
70. The company is spending heavily to ______ (宣传；做广告) its strongest brands.
第四部分写作（共两节，满分 40分）
第一节 （满分 15分）
假定你是李华，上周五你参观了你校举办的以“最美校园”为主题的绘画作品展，收获颇多。请你给
新西兰笔友 Alice写一份电子邮件分享这次经历。内容包括：
1．活动内容；
2．你的感受。
注意：
1．写作词数应为 80个左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Alice,
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 （满分 25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
My husband and I were driving through the countryside in Pennsylvania. We were excited to get to our cabin
for a relaxing weekend. Halfway, our truck suddenly stopped working on a narrow country road. The sun was
going down, colouring the sky orange and pink.
“We’re stuck here,” I said sadly. “This will ruin our weekend.” My husband tried to start the engine many
times, but it still wouldn’t work. We felt very disappointed.
Just then, an old pickup truck stopped beside us. The driver was an old man with a rough face and strong
hands. He asked, “Do you need help ” We told him what happened.
“I’m Joe. I have a garage about a mile away. I can pull your truck there,” he said. He connected our truck to his
and drove slowly ahead. He talked with us about the local farms and his grandchildren. His kindness made us feel
much better.
When we got to Joe’s small garage, he examined our truck. “The fuel pump is broken,” he said. “I can’t repair
it tonight, but you can stay at my house. My wife is cooking meatloaf, and we have a spare room. I’ll drive you to
the cabin early tomorrow morning.” We felt unsure at first, but his warm smile made us feel relaxed. His wife
Martha welcomed us with a hug and put more plates on the table. The meatloaf tasted great, and their stories about
small-town life made us feel at home.
As we settled into the guest room, I thought about how our “disaster” had turned into something unexpected
— a chance to meet kind strangers who restored (恢复) our faith in humanity. The next day, Joe dropped us off,
refusing any payment. “Just pass it on,” he said, his eyes twinkling with sincerity. We thanked him repeatedly and
headed to the cabin, still talking about their kindness as we unpacked our hiking equipment.
That afternoon, as we hiked through the woods, the fresh air and beautiful scenery lifting our spirits, we heard
a faint cry for help. Following the sound, we found a teenage girl sitting on a rock, holding her ankle tightly.
注意：
1．续写词数应为 150个左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
We ran up to her and asked what was wrong.
As soon as we took her back to the cabin, her parents came.

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