山西省2025—2026学年下学期4月高考适应性模拟(二模)英语试题(含解析,无听力音频有听力原文)

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山西省2025—2026学年下学期4月高考适应性模拟(二模)英语试题(含解析,无听力音频有听力原文)

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山西省2025—2026学年下学期4月高考适应性模拟(二模)英语试题
2026.04
考生注意:
1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
考试时间为 120分钟,满分150分
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. What will the man do next
A. Look at the map. B. Review the route plan. C. Check the car's condition.
2. Who is Daniel probably
A. The man's son. B. The man's father. C. The woman's son.
3. What is the woman probably doing
A. Asking for help. B. Giving advice. C. Rowing the boat.
4. How does the woman feel about the art exhibition
A. It's very disappointing. B. It's quite satisfactory. C. It's just so-so.
5. What are the speakers mainly discussing
A. The bad weather. B. A beautiful umbrella. C. A kind little girl.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. Where does the conversation most probably take place
A. On the high-speed train. B. On the hot air balloon. C. On the plane.
7. When will the man arrive in London
A. At around 8:15 a. m. B. At around 2:15 p. m. C. At around 6:00 p. m.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8. What has Lucy been busy doing recently
A. Preparing for the exams. B. Doing volunteer work. C. Practicing guitar.
9. What does Lucy promise to do
A. Give up her interests. B. Consider another hobby. C. Plan her career path.
听第8段材料,回答第10至 12题。
10. What's wrong with the man
A. He has high blood pressure.
B. He has a sleep problem.
C. He has a stomachache.
11. What does the woman say about the Chinese medicine hospital
A. It is outside the city center.
B. It has many skilled doctors.
C. It has been open for a century.
12. What is the most probable relationship between the speakers
A. Relatives. B. Schoolmates. C. Colleagues.
听第9段材料,回答第13 至 16题。
13. What is a feature of the park
A. Naming after Van Gogh.
B. Being equipped with creative lights.
C. Looking like a famous artwork.
14. When did the man get inspired for the park
A. 6 years ago. B. 14 years ago. C. 20 years ago.
15. What gave the man the idea of the park
A. Garden plants in six colors.
B. Shapes created by harvest machines.
C. An art program related to Van Gogh.
16. What is the woman most probably
A. A tour guide. B. A TV presenter. C. A school teacher.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. What benefit does outdoor time bring to children according to Janine Domingues
A. It helps develop their curiosity and creativity.
B. It makes them attend social events more often.
C. It helps them have better moods and adaptability.
18. Where does Sarah Milligan-Toffler work
A. At the Children and Nature Network.
B. At the Environmental Protection Agency.
C. At the Child Mind Institute.
19. Who is the experts’ advice for
A. Children. B. Teachers. C. Parents.
20. What is the third piece of advice from the experts
A. Avoiding using technology outdoors.
B. Visiting national parks frequently.
C. Inviting other children to play with.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15 小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Welcome to InnoAI 2026
It is the most important global summit (峰会) which is committed to advancing the frontiers of Artificial Intelligence (AI). This distinguished three-day event brings together leading industry managers, world-famous academics, visionary innovators, and active AI practitioners to shape the future of AI technology and its transformative impact across diverse fields. As we start a new era ofAI, InnoAI promises to deliver significant discussions, new research, and exceptional networking opportunities. Join us from April 6-8, 2026, in Phuket, Thailand for an engaging experience,where the world's most influential AI thought, leaders will get together to drive innovation and boost cooperation.
Why Attend InnoAI 2026
●Gain insights from global AI leaders, famous researchers, and industry pioneers as they share perspectives on the future of AI.
●Discover the latest breakthroughs in generative AI, robotics, and ethical (道德的) AIapplications shaping industries worldwide.
●Explore opportunities for partnerships between academia, industry, and policymakers to promote responsible AI adoption.
●Join thought-provoking (引人深思的) group discussions where leading professionals,students, and organizations exchange perspectives on the most pressing challenges and opportunities in AI.
Registration s
Registration s Open: August 25, 2025
Early Bird Registration: November 15, 2025
Registration Closes: April 6, 2026
Early Bird Registration
Academic $599
Industry $699
Student $399
Register Early to Save!
Registration charges will increase by 10% after November 15, 2025.
If you have any questions please contact us at secretary@ .
21. What is the main purpose of the InnoAI 2026
A. To award prizes for AI research. B. To create robots for home use.
C. To popularize programming courses. D. To innovate the future of AI.
22. Which of the following highlights InnoAI 2026
A. Offering an interesting experience for kids.
B. Selling advanced AI products to attendees.
C. Building partnerships across different fields.
D. Focusing mainly on machine learning techniques.
23. How much would ten students pay if they register on December 15, 2025
A. $3,591. B. $3,990. C. $4,389. D. $4,500.
B
Kristina Smithe was running the California International Marathon in 2019, drinking cups of water at an aid station, when she started to think about how much waste such events produce. On the flight home, she did the math: 9,000 runners, 17 aid stations and something like 150,000cups used once and thrown away.更多试题与答案,
That gave her an idea for something more sustainable——a lightweight silicone (硅胶) cup that could be used again and again. After working out a design, Smithe ordered some cups and tested them at a race in 2021. Now her business, Hiceup Earth, has 70,000 cups that can be rented out to interested races to replace the typical white paper cups.
Billions of disposable cups are used around the world each year. These cups are often made of plastic, but even if they are made of paper, they typically have a plastic lining that makes it difficult for them to biodegrade (生物降解). Making these cups, and disposing or burning them,also generates planet-warming greenhouse gas emissions.“It's something that generates a lot of waste, and the waste—— depending on what exactly it's made of—— can really last in landfills for hundreds of years,” said Sarah Gleeson, an expert at climate nonprofit Project Drawdown.
Now, Smithe rents out thousands of reusable cups, driving them to events in big boxes and leaving recycling bins with the company logo for collection after use. By the start of May this year,Smithe estimated she's taken her cups to 137 races and spared more than 900,000 disposable ones from the landfills.
Gleeson sees the reusable cups as an effective way that innovators are looking to cut down on waste. Such solutions often have to be rooted in convenience and grounded in local or small applications to get more people to adopt them. Some cities, for instance, are experimenting with reusable food takeout containers that customers return to nearby recycling bins later on. High adoption of sustainable solutions really maximizes environmental benefits.
24. What inspired Smithe's business idea
A. The popularity of lightweight cups. B. The disposable cups in the Marathon.
C. Runners' demands for quality cups. D. Insufficient cup supply at aid stations.
25. Why does the author mention Sarah Gleeson's words in paragraph 3
A. To highlight the value of waste sorting.
B. To illustrate the growing global warming.
C. To show the determining factor of pollution.
D. To stress the necessity of reducing plastic waste.
26. What is Hiccup Earth's primary service
A. Selling reusable cups directly to runners.
B. Donating silicone cups to race organizers.
C. Renting recyclable cups to sports events.
D. Offering eco-friendly materials to cup producers.
27. What is the purpose of the last paragraph
A. To call on more sustainable practice. B. To analyze potential challenges.
C. To compare waste reduction measures. D. To introduce another innovation.
C
Group interactions are an essential part of personal and professional life, and mastering them can significantly benefit our social, work, and personal munication is a complex process, with body language playing a vital role in how messages are perceived and understood. Understanding body language can significantly improve group interactions, making them more positive and productive.
Unlike verbal language, body language often reveals true thoughts and feelings unconsciously. It can share emotions more directly than words. For example, a bright smile and relaxed shoulders usually show happiness, while leaning back means being not interested. Even small movements, like tapping fingers or avoiding eye contact, can suggest nervousness, which words may try to hide.
Gestures are a valuable component of body language, aiding in clarifying and emphasizing spoken messages during group interactions. Skillful use of gestures can help show passion, support understanding, and maintain engagement within a group setting. Descriptive gestures, such as using hands to illustrate a concept or directional movements to indicate options, can provide visual strengthening to verbal communication. These gestures help ensure that the group can follow the discussion, especially in complex or technical conversations.
However, too many gestures may become distracting or annoying in group settings. The key is to ensure gestures are purposeful and relevant, naturally adding to the verbal message. Practicing consistency in gestures that match the tone and content of your speech helps strengthen the intended message, enabling clearer communication and understanding among group members.
Despite its importance, common misunderstandings about body language often cause misinterpretation. A usual one is treating single movements as absolute cues: many think crossed arms equal defensiveness, but it could just be a comfortable posture or a response to cold. Another is ignoring context—— avoiding eye contact in a serious talk might seem dishonest, but it could result from cultural respect for others. These oversimplified judgments ignore the complexity of body language and its influencing factors.
28. What can we learn about the relationship between body language and verbal language
A. They have the same cultural meanings. B. Verbal language is more widely used.
C. Words share emotions more directly. D. Body language is more truthful at times.
29. How can descriptive gestures help group interactions
A. Emphasizing key points. B. Clarifying the group setting.
C. Hiding nervousness easily. D. Avoiding communication mistakes.
30. What does the author suggest in paragraph 4
A. Be mindful of overusing gestures. B. Use certain gestures on purpose.
C. Maintain unity in language tones. D. Stick to your intended message.
31. Why people often treat single movements as absolute cues
A. They are often influenced by others. B. They fail to understand other factors.
C. They are used to observing contexts. D. They have simple communication skills.
D
Over the last few years, walking 10,000 steps a day has become a popular goal among those aiming for a fit lifestyle. But while this target looks cool on fitness trackers and it's certainly something to talk proudly about when achieved, there's reportedly no scientific basis to it.Instead, researchers have looked up the number of steps you really need to keep yourself healthy.And surprisingly, it's less than previously thought.
A team of scientists from Yale University School of Medicine recently published a study where they seemed to have found this sweet spot for walking. They found that health risks were significantly reduced with step counts at 8,250 steps a day, while 9,700 steps are the ideal amount for those with cardiovascular (心血管) conditions.
While this offers a fixed goal, the researchers add that doing moderate physical activity is helpful, regardless of the amount.“ Increasing daily step count is associated with reduced cardiovascular death rate in hypertensive (高血压的) individuals, with optimal (最佳的)benefits observed below 8,250 and 9,700 daily steps, respectively,” they write.“Moderate levels of physical activity provide substantial health benefits, highlighting the importance of setting realistic and reachable activity goals for hypertensive populations.”
This is in line with the findings from a study in Jama International Medicine in 2022. Back then, researchers discovered that the more you walk, the lower your risk of cancer and other conditions. But while those who walk 10,000 steps have a lower risk of cancer than those who take8,000 and a lower risk than those who take 6,000, the benefits plateau after the 10,000 mark——so there's really no reason to push it, especially if you struggle to make it that far.
What's more, walking is not only great for your body, but also for your mental health. And while you' re at it, if you have the chance to do it in nature rather than a gym or an urban setting,the benefits are even higher. So put on your walking shoes, and get going!
32. What is the author's attitude towards walking 10,000 steps a day to keep fit
A. Supportive. B. Doubtful. C. Worried. D. Unclear.
33. What do we know about hypertensive individuals
A. Their death rate is higher than others. B. They need extremely high step counts.
C. Moderate walking works well for them. D. They should avoid any physical activity.
34. What does the underlined word“plateau” mean in paragraph 4
A. Stay at a steady level. B. Continue to increase.
C. Fade dramatically. D. Achieve the maximum effect.
35. What can be a suitable title for the text
A. Ways to Realize Daily Step Goal B. Walking: Great for Your Mental Health
C. How to Balance Walking and Resting D. Is Walking 10,000 Steps a Day a Myth
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Time Management Strategies for Students
Time management is a crucial skill for students to balance academic workload,extracurricular activities, and personal well-being. Here are five practical strategies to help you maximize productivity and reduce stress.
Prioritize tasks with a To-Do list.
Start each day by listing all academic and personal tasks, then categorize them into urgent,important, and optional. For instance, completing homework with tight deadlines should be more important than leisure activities like watching TV. 36 This clear structure helps you stay focused and prevents feelings of being overwhelmed.
Break large tasks into manageable steps.
Complex assignments, such as writing a research paper, can feel frightening. Divide them into smaller, actionable parts: research, outline, draft, revision, and finalization. 37 Celebrate small milestones (e. g., finishing the outline) to maintain motivation.
Avoid multitasking—— focus single-mindedly.
Contrary to common belief, multitasking actually reduces productivity. Switching between tasks increases errors and delays. 38 Try the Pomodoro Technique (番茄工作法): perfect balance of 25-minute focus and 5-minute rest. This method enhances concentration and helps you stay on track.
39
Be honest about the time required for each task. Overestimating leads to procrastination (拖延), while underestimating causes unnecessary stress. Remember, flexibility is key—— adjust your schedule in time if unexpected tasks arise. A realistic plan ensures you stay productive without burning out.
Review and reflect daily.
End each day by evaluating your progress: Did you complete priority tasks What distractions could you avoid tomorrow This reflection not only clarifies your workload but also builds confidence. 40
By integrating these strategies, you' ll gain control over your schedule, reduce stress, and enhance both academic performance and quality of life. With consistency, these techniques will become lifelong habits, empowering you to achieve goals with confidence and ease.
A. Increase productivity.
B. Set realistic deadlines.
C. Instead, dedicate specific time to each activity.
D. However, it's essential to include short breaks to recharge.
E. Regularly improving your strategies helps you stay efficient.
F. Use a physical planner or digital app to visualize your tasks.
G. This systematic approach allows you to tackle each step without pressure.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15 小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
This month, a special event brightened up our Sun Chlorella Healing Center—— the seventh-month celebration of our loved cow, Rumi. He lives in this safe place with his mom, Serenity,whose life we spared from the 41 . Little did we know that our rescue mission would soon bring a new 42 into the world.
At our center, birth is 43 as we don't breed (繁殖) animals. Our encounter with Rumi's birth was 44 . When we first saw Serenity with her tiny baby cow, she was carefully drying and cleaning him, 45 him to take his first shaky steps. We were 46 to be part of this amazing moment, so we approached quietly. But Serenity’ s reaction 47 us. She instantly stepped over Rumi, 48 herself on top of him and looked at us with 49 , as if saying,“Please, don't take my baby away.” We 50 stepped back so she would not feel scared.
We gave them 51 , reassuring Serenity and her baby stay together in peace. Over time,she could 52 us enough to let us pet them. Now at seven month old, Rumi has a lot of friends, but Serenity still 53 him daily, grooming (梳毛) and resting together.
Their 54 reminds us animals love their families deeply. We' re honored to have them, and hope their story 55 a world where all moms—— of any species—— can raise their young in a safe and free environment.
41. A. shelter B. butcher-house C. center D. hospital
42. A. chance B. solution C. challenge D. life
43. A. rare B. natural C. unwelcome D. difficult
44. A. predictable B. unforgettable C. careless D. awkward
45. A. threatening B. preventing C. urging D. promising
46. A. hesitant B. eager C. confused D. suitable
47. A. amused B. stimulated C. alarmed D. embarrassed
48. A. preserved B. lifted C. adapted D. positioned
49. A. fear B. question C. anger D. curiosity
50. A. randomly B. independently C. unwillingly D. immediately
51. A. attention B. privacy C. medicine D. food
52. A. understand B. distinguish C. trust D. recognize
53. A. fights for B. picks out C. watches over D. checks out
54. A. bond B. generosity C. kindness D. growth
55. A. follows B. reminds C. produces D. inspires
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
China is riding the wave of an AI-powered transformation. AI is not only driving automation and increasing 56 (efficient) but also unlocking new possibilities.
Picture this: The classroom blackboard 57 (replace) with a big screen and students click on tablets(平板电脑) to answer questions instead of writing with pencils. AI makes it a reality, offering new learning pathways for Chinese students and 58 (bridge) the urban-rural digital divide.
At a middle school in Guiyang, Guizhou province, English teacher Zeng Xing found AI to be a game-changer during her 17-year career thanks to a smart classroom system developed byChinese AI giant iFLYTEK. Zeng assigns exercises 59 her students through teaching tablets and the students 60 (instant) submit their answers back. Then, the big screen shows the detailed answers of each student. By analyzing results with AI, the system enables Zeng to deliver 61 (tailor) instructions that address the specific needs of each student.
Moreover, the smart classroom system also enables students to improve their speaking skills through 62 (interaction) dialogues sourced from a vast database of English movies, news and poetry.“AI has created opportunities for basic education in remote areas like Guizhou,” saysHuang Hui, head of Zeng's middle school 63 complex terrain (地形) and challenging transportation systems limit educational resources.
In addition to basic education, AI has 64 significant impact on higher education. Ever since Chinese AI assistant DeepSeek gained popularity, many colleges and universities 65 (announce) its integration into their campus server systems.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40 分)
第一节(满分15 分)
假定你是李华,你校将在下周五举办“校园艺术节”(Campus Art Festival),活动包含绘画展览、书法体验、古典舞表演等板块。你的英国笔友 Tom 对此活动很感兴趣,来信询问相关情况。请你给他写一封回信,内容包括:
1.艺术节举办的目的;
2.简要介绍特色活动;
3.邀请他线上看直播。
注意:
1.词数80左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Tom,
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
I still remember the first day of art class. Sarah sat by the window, her fingers skillfully shaping a piece of clay into a beautiful bird.“Incredible,” I whispered. I'm Tom, who had just transferred to this school. Feeling like an outsider, I was drawn to Sarah's passion, which was so similar to my own love for painting. I gathered my courage and showed her a painting of my own.To my surprise, her eyes lit up.“That's amazing, Tom!” she said. From that day on, we became inseparable best friends.
However, everything changed when the school art competition was announced. The winner would receive a full scholarship to a famous art summer camp. Both Sarah and I decided to enter.We promised to support each other, no matter the outcome. But as the deadline neared, Sarah spent less time with me. I felt a growing distance between us. One afternoon, I saw her talking quietly with Mr. Davis, our art teacher, pointing at my half-finished painting. A bad thought came into my mind:“Was she trying to ruin my chances by asking the teacher for secret help ” The seed of misunderstanding was planted.
The day before the submission, I stayed late to put the final touches on my painting. As Ileft, I saw a beautiful, finished sculpture on Sarah's desk——a dancer so lifelike that it almost took my breath away. A mix of admiration and bitter jealousy (嫉妒) washed over me. The next morning, chaos erupted in the art room. Sarah's sculpture was lying on the floor, breaking into many pieces. She was crying sadly. Everyone was looking for the trouble-maker. My heart sank when Mr. Davis asked where I had been last night. Remembering my late stay, I froze. Seeing my panic, Sarah looked at me, her eyes filled with not just sadness, but held a look of blame. Icouldn't form any words to defend myself.
For two days, we didn't speak. The weight of her unspoken blame was crushing me. I couldn't focus on my studies or my winning painting. Finally, I couldn't bear it anymore.
注意:
1.续写词数应为150 左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
“Sarah, I need to talk to you,” I said, my voice trembling (颤抖).
“What It's our school cleaner's cat ” I asked in surprise.
参考答案及评分意见
听力
1-5 CABBC 6-10 CBACB 11-15 BCCAB 16-20 BAACA
阅读
A篇 本文是一篇应用文,介绍了将于2026年4月6日至8日在泰国普吉岛举行的InnoAI2026全球人工智能峰会。文章详细说明了会议的目的、亮点、重要日期及注册费用等信息,旨在吸引全球AI领域的专业人士、学者和学生参与,共同探讨AI技术的前沿发展、跨领域合作及未来机遇。
21. D 细节理解题。文章开篇即指出该峰会是“致力于推进人工智能前沿发展的最重要全球盛会”,并提及将汇聚各界领袖“塑造 AI技术的未来”。
22. C细节理解题。在“为何参与”部分的第三点明确写道“探索学术界、工业界与政策制定者之间建立伙伴关系的机会”。选项C“建立跨领域合作伙伴关系”是对原文的同义转述。
23. C 数字计算题。根据“早鸟注册”费用表可知,学生注册费为 399美元。文中明确说明“在2025年 11月 15 日之后,注册费用将上涨10%”。题干中的注册日期为 2025年 12月 15 日,已超过早鸟截止日期,因此适用 10%的价格上浮。十名学生的总费用计算过程为:$399× 10=$3990;上涨后的总费用为$3990× 1.1=$4389。
B篇 本文是一篇记叙文。Kristina Smith e 在参加马拉松时意识到赛事产生的大量一次性杯子的浪费问题,于是设计了一种可重复使用的硅胶杯。她创立了 Hiccup Earth公司,向赛事出租这种杯子,以减少一次性杯子的使用。
24. B 细节理解题。根据第一段“Kristina Smith e was running the California International Marathon in 2019…something like 150,000 cups used once and thrown away”以及第二段首句“That gave her an idea...”可知, Smith e在跑步时看到一次性杯子被大量丢弃,并在飞机上计算了浪费量(9,000名跑者使用约 150,000个杯子),这直接启发了她的商业想法。
25. D 推理判断题。第三段提到:全世界每年使用数十亿个一次性杯子。这些杯子通常是塑料做的,但即使它们是纸做的,它们通常也有一层塑料衬里,这使得它们很难被生物降解。制造这些杯子,处理或燃烧它们,也会产生导致地球变暖的排放物。“这是一种会产生大量废物的东西,而废物——取决于它的具体构成——真的可以在陆地上持续数百年,”气候非营利组织 Project Drawdown 的专家 Sarah Gleeson 说。作者在此处提到 SarahGleeson的话,是为了强调使用一次性杯子产生的危害,强调了减少塑料污染的必要性。
26. C 细节理解题。根据第四段“Now, Smith e rents out ... leaving recycling bins with the company logo for collectionafter use”可知, Hiccup Earth的主要服务是出租可回收的杯子给体育赛事。
27. A 推理判断题。根据最后一段可知,Project Drawdown的格里森认为,可重复使用的杯子是创新者寻求减少浪费的有效途径。此类解决方案通常以便利性为基础,并以本地或小型应用为基础,以使更多人采用它们。例如,一些城市正在试验可重复使用的食品外卖容器,顾客稍后可以将其送回附近的回收站。高度采用可持续的解决方案确实能最大限度地提高环境效益。由此可推知,本段的目的是呼吁进行更多的可持续实践。
C篇 本文为说明文,介绍了沟通是一个复杂的过程,肢体语言在如何感知和理解信息方面起着关键作用。
28. D 推理判断题。根据第二段第一句“Unlike verbal language, body language often reveals true thoughts andfeelings unconsciously.”可知,与口头语言不同,肢体语言经常无意识地揭示真实的想法和感受。这表明肢体语言有时更真实。
29. A 细节理解题。根据第三段“Descriptive gestures, such as using hands to illustrate a concept or directionalmovements to indicate options, can provide visual strengthening to verbal communication. These gestures help ensurethat the group can follow the discussion, especially in complex or technical conversations.”可知,描述性的手势,比如用手来说明一个概念,或者用方向运动来指示选项,可以为口头交流提供视觉强化。这些手势有助于确保小组能够跟上讨论,特别是在复杂的或技术性的对话中。这说明,描述性手势有助于强化重点。
30. A 细节理解题。根据第四段“However, too many gestures may become distracting or annoying in group settings.The key is to ensure gestures are purposeful and relevant, naturally adding to the verbal message.”可知,过多的手势可能会让人分心或在群体环境中令人厌烦。关键是要确保手势是有目的和相关的,自然地补充口头信息。所以要注意不要过度使用手势。
31. B 推理判断题。最后一段指出人们对肢体语言的常见误解会导致误读,还举例说明将单一动作当作绝对信号、忽视语境这些简单化判断的情况,比如认为交叉手臂就是有防备心理,却没考虑到对方可能只是觉得舒服或怕冷。作者认为把单个动作当作绝对暗示说明人们没能理解其他因素。
D篇 本文为议论文,围绕日常步行步数与健康的关系展开。一项研究发现,每天步行8250步可以显著降低健康风险,而对于有心血管疾病的人来说,9700步是理想的步数,而不是人们普遍认为的每天要走一万步。
32. B 推理判断题。根据第一段中“… there's reportedly no scientific basis to it.”可知,每天走一万步已经成为那些追求健康生活方式的人的一个流行目标。但据报道,这并没有科学依据。作者对此持怀疑态度。
33. C 细节理解题。根据第三段最后一句“Moderate levels of physical activity provide substantial health benefits,highlighting the importance of setting realistic and reachable activity goals for hypertensive populations.”可知,适度的身体活动可带来实质性的健康益处,这突出了为高血压人群设定现实和可实现的活动目标的重要性。
34. A 词义猜测题。第四段中划线词所在句叙述“But while those who walk 10,000 steps have a lower risk of cancerthan those who take 8,000 and a lower risk than those who take 6,000, the benefits plateau after the 10,000 mark”,尽管每天走 1 万步的人患癌症的风险比每天走8000步的人低,也比每天走6000步的人低,但是这个好处在10000步之后就 plateau。破折号之后解释说“so there's really no reason to push it, especially if you struggle tomake it that far”所以真的没有理由再进一步推进这一数字了,尤其是如果你很难走那么远的话。此处强调没有继续走更远的理由,意指在走完 1万步之后,好处就不再增加,趋于平稳。 Plateau意为 Stay at a steady level。
35. D 主旨大意题。本文开篇论述,每天走一万步已经成为那些追求健康生活的人的一个流行目标。但据报道,这并没有科学依据。相反,研究人员找到了保持健康真正需要的步数。令人惊讶的是,它比之前想象的要少。研究发现,每天步行8250步可以显著降低健康风险,而对于有心血管疾病的人来说,9700步是理想的步数。开篇通过对每天一万步提出疑问展开论述,下文对该问题进行阐述和回答,所以“每天走一万步是个神话吗 ”最适合作本文标题。
七选五 本文为说明文,介绍时间管理的方式与策略。
36. F 前文提到“用待办事项列表优先处理任务”,并建议将任务分类;后文指出“This clear structure helps you stayfocused...”。F 选项中的“physical planner or digital app”是具体实现“列清单”的工具,能让任务可视化,符合“清晰结构”的逻辑。
37. G 本段主题是“将大任务分解为可管理的步骤”,前文举例说明分解研究论文的步骤,后文提到“庆祝小里程碑”以保持动力。“Divide them into smaller parts”与G 选项中的“systematic approach”对应,“tackle each stepwithout pressure”解释了分解任务的好处,与后文“小里程碑”形成连贯逻辑。
38. C 本段反对多任务处理,指出其降低效率,后文推荐“番茄工作法”(专注 25 分钟+休息 5 分钟)。C选项“Instead, dedicate specifie time to each activity.”与前文“多任务”形成转折,符合语境。干扰项排除;D 选项中“休息”虽在后文有所提及,但此处重点在“专注单一任务”,而非休息的必要性。
39. B 后文强调“诚实评估每项任务所需时间”,“高估导致拖延,低估导致压力”,核心是“现实的时间规划”。B选项“Set realistic deadlines.”直接概括段落主题,“realistic”与后文“A realistic plan”形成呼应。
40. E 本段主题是“每日回顾与反思”,前文提问“是否完成优先任务 明天如何避免分心 ”后文总结反思的好处。E 选项“Regularly improving your strategies helps you stay efficient.”承接“反思”的动作,说明反思的目的是优化方法,与“builds confidence”共同构成反思的积极结果。
完形填空 本文为记叙文,通过讲述母牛 Serenity 和幼崽 Rumi 的故事,展现了动物的亲情与信任,以及救助中心对动物的保护。
41. B 考查名词。根据下文中“our rescue mission”可知,“spared from the...”后应接危险的地方。选项中“butcher-house”(屠宰场)最符合语境,指 Serenity 被从屠宰场救出。
42. D 考查名词。后文提到 Rumi 的出生,因此“bring a new life into the world”表示“为世界带来新生命”,符合语境。
43. A 考查形容词。后文提及该中心不繁殖小动物,因此出生事件在这里是“rare”(罕见的),符合语境。
44. B 考查形容词。根据后文对 Serenity 护崽细节的描述,这次经历应是“unforgettable”(难忘的)。
45. C 考查动词。Serenity 作为母牛,应该会“urging”(催促)幼崽迈出第一步,符合动物本能。
46. B 考查形容词。“eager to be part of this amazing moment”表示“渴望参与这一奇妙时刻”,与后文“approachedquietly”的行为一致。
47. C 考查动词。Serenity 的护崽反应让人们“alarmed”(警觉;惊慌),因为她的行为出乎意料。
48. D 考查动词。“positioned herself on top of him”表示“将自己置于幼崽上方”,描述 Serenity 保护幼崽的姿势。
49. A 考查名词。根据后文“Please, don't take my baby away”可知, Serenity的眼神应充满“fear”。
50. D 考查副词。为避免 Serenity 害怕,人们“immediately”(立即)后退,体现对动物情绪的尊重。
51. B 考查名词。“gave them privacy”表示“给它们私人空间”,与“reassuring Serenity and her baby stay together inpeace”(确保它们安静地生活在一起)呼应。
52. C 考查动词。随着时间推移, Serenity 足够“trust”(信任)人们,才允许被抚摸。
53. C 考查动词短语。“watches over”(照顾;守护)符合 Serenity 每天梳理和陪伴 Rumi 的行为。
54. A 考查名词。“bond”(纽带)指 Serenity 和 Rumi 之间的亲密关系,呼应后文“animals love their familiesdeeply”。
55. D 考查动词。“inspires a world where... can raise their young in a safe and free environment”表示“激励人们创造一个所有母亲都能在安全自由的环境中养育幼崽的世界”,符合主题。
语法填空 本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了人工智能引领的技术革命为中国的教育带来重大机遇,这将不仅方便师生、提高课堂效率而且能够缩短城乡教育差距。
56. efficiency 考查名词。 increasing 后需接名词作宾语, efficient 的名词形式为 efficiency,表示“效率”。
57. is replaced 考查动词时态语态和主谓一致。主语 The classroom blackboard 与谓语 replace 是被动关系;且后文student click 用一般现在时,表明此处描述普遍现象。故用 is replaced。
58. bridging考查非谓语动词。 and 连接并列成分,前文有 offering new learning pathways …,故后文也需用现在分词bridging,与 offering 保持形式一致。
59. to 考查介词。assign sth. to sb.意为“把某物分配给某人”,此处表示“教师通过教学平板给学生布置练习”。
60. instantly 考查副词。 instantly 表示“立刻,马上”,此处修饰动词 submit,指“立刻提交”。
61. tailored 考查过去分词。此处应用过去分词作前置定语修饰名词 instructions, tailor 的过去分词形式是 tailored,表示“量身定制的”。
62. interactive 考查形容词,此处应用形容词作定语修饰名词 dialogues, interaction 的形容词是 interactive,表示“交互式的,互动的”。
63. where 考查定语从句。分析句子结构可知,空格后为完整的句子,出现在 Zeng's middle school 之后应该是修饰限定,指复杂的地形和交通系统限制了这里的教育资源。
64. a 考查冠词。此处指“除了基础教育,AI对高等教育也有影响”,表泛指,故用a。
65. have announced 考查时态和主谓一致。 Ever since 是现在完成时的标志词,主语 many colleges and universities 是复数名词,故用 have announced。
书面表达
Dear Tom,
I'm glad to hear that you' re enthusiastic about our school's Campus Art Festival. It's such a fantastic event that I can't wait to share details with you.
To be held next Friday, the festival aims to enrich our art taste and help the students discover beauty in life. There will be a wide variety of amazing activities: the calligraphy experience, where we can learn to write Chinese characters with brushes under teachers' guidance; the classical dance show, performed by our school's dance club, which will present the grace of traditional Chinese dance; and the painting exhibition displaying students' creative works, etc.
I sincerely invite you to watch the live stream online. It will be a wonderful chance to appreciate Chinese traditional culture. Hope you' ll enjoy the the art festival!
Yours,
Li Hua
读后续写
“Sarah, I need to talk to you,” I said, my voice trembling (颤抖).“I know you may think I broke it because I was jealous, but I promise I didn't. You' re my best friend.” I looked straight into her eyes, hoping she would believe me. To my surprise, the anger on her face faded away, replaced by tiredness.“I know you didn't, Tom,” she said softly.“The school cleaner took her cat to the art room. Unfortunately, it knocked down my sculpture that night. Mr. Davis just told me.”
“What It's our school cleaner's cat ” I asked in surprise.“Yes, that little orange cat,” she nodded, wiping her tears.“I'm really sorry I ever doubted you.” I shook my head, feeling both relieved and guilty.“I should have trusted our friendship, too.” Then I had an idea.“Let's fix it together! We can make a new sculpture—— one that tells this story.”Sarah's face finally showed a real smile. We spent the afternoon gathering every broken piece, not to make it perfect again, but to create something new and meaningful. Our friendship, like the mended sculpture, became even stronger through this experience.
书面表达
各档次的给分范围和要求:
第四档(13分~15分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
1)内容完整,条理清楚;
2)交际得体,表达时充分考虑到了交际对象的需求,体现出较强的语言运用能力;
3)完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档(9分~12分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
1)内容、条理和交际等方面基本符合要求;
2)所用语法和词汇满足了任务的要求;
3)语法或用词方面有一些错误,但不影响理解;
4)基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档(4分~8分)
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
1)内容不完整;
2)所用词汇有限,语法或用词方面的错误影响了对写作内容的理解;
3)未能清楚地传达信息。
第一档(1分~3分)
未完成试题规定的任务。
1)写了少量相关信息;
2)语法或用词方面错误较多,严重影响了对写作内容的理解。
不得分(0分)
未传达任何信息;写的内容与要求无关。
读后续写
各档次的给分范围和要求:
第五档(21~25分)
1)与所给短文融洽度高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理;
2)所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达;
3)有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档(16~20分)
1)与所给短文融洽度较高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理;
2)所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但不影响意义表达;
3)比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第三档(11~15分)
1)与所给短文关系较为密切,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接;
2)应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,是有一些错误,但不影响意义表达;
3)应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
第二档(6~10分)
1)与所给短文有一定的关系,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接;
2)语法结构单调、词汇项目有限,有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,影响了意义的表达;
3)较少使用语句间的连接成分,全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档 (1~5 分)
1)与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差;
2)语法结构单调、词汇项目很有限,有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误,严重影响了意义的表达;
3)缺乏语句间的连接成分,全文内容不连贯。
不得分(0分)
白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
听力原文
Text 1
W: Honey, are you ready for the road trip
M: No, now I need to see if my car is in perfect condition. Have you planned the route
W: Yes, it's all mapped out.
Text 2
W: Grandpa, the restaurant looks really old! How many years ago was it built
M: I'm not sure. But I know it's older than me. And I brought Daniel here when he was young.
W: Dad told me that. Now, it's my turn.
Text 3
W: Denny, you' ve been rowing the boat for half an bour. Aren't you tired Why don't we take pictures on the bridge over there
M: Good idea. The water is so clear that I can see fish swimming around in it.
Text 4
M:I heard that you visited an art exhibition yesterday. How was it
W: There were many exhibits, but I only managed to see half of them. And I really liked some of the sculptures. It's a pity that I have to work today, or I' ll go there again.
Text 5
M: While it was pouring with rain today, I saw a little girl give her umbrella to an elderly man selling vegetables.
W: Then she just ran away directly into the rain
M: No. Her mother was right there, and they could share one umbrella.
Text 6
M: Excuse me, Miss
W: Yes.
M: My window shade is broken, and I can't open it to see out of the window. Would it be possible to change a seat so Ican have a window with a view This is my first flight to London, and I want to be able to see the scenery outside.
W: Of course! Let's move you to Row 38 Seat B. You will be able to see out from that window.
M: Thank you. And could you tell me how long this flight will take
W: Now it's 8:15 a. m. We still need to be in the air for about six hours.
M: Okay, thank you.
W: You' re welcome.
Text 7
M: Lucy, I'd like to know your thoughts for the future.
W: Well, Mr. White, I haven't had much time to think about it now. I' ve been studying all the time, for I have a lot of exams coming up.
M:I see. What about your activities this semester
W: Speaking of school activities, I'm part of the volunteer club. I also play the guitar in the school band and I'm on the girls' volleyball team.
M: You are a person of diverse interests. But as your career guidance teacher, I'd say having a clear career plan can offer you a sense of direction and purpose.
W: You' re right, Mr. White. I' ll definitely take some time to seriously consider where my future lies after the exams.
M: That'd be great.
Text 8
W: Jack, you don't look very well. What's the matter
M: I' ve had trouble falling asleep for a long time.
W: Have you been under a lot of pressure
M: No, I haven't.
W: Did you see a doctor
M: Yes, but it hasn't improved much.
W: Do you always use Western medicine Maybe you should try Chinese medicine.
M: I heard of Chinese medicine before, but I have never tried it.
W: Chinese medicine focuses on the balance of yin and yang. If you' re sick, it may treat the illness. At least, it can help take care of your body.
M: That sounds unbelievable. Where can I find a Chinese medicine hospital
W: In the city center there is one that has been open for 30 years. I went there once when I had a stomachache last year.Plenty of doctors there are very experienced. I can go with you tomorrow.
M: Thank you very much. It's so great to have you in this company.
Text 9
W: Good evening, Mr. Zukic. You' ve created a nature park in the form of one of Vincent van Gogh's most famous paintings—— The Starry Night. Why did you want to do that
M: It's a long story. I decided to build a park after buying some land and a small house in a village 20 years ago. But I had no clear idea of what the park should look like. Finally, 14 years later, I got inspired.
W: What inspired you
M: Well, one day I saw harvest machines moving among fields of tall crops. The machines made round shapes in the earth. This reminded me of similar shapes in Van Gogh's painting. From that moment, I was no longer in doubt.
W: So how did you build the park
M: To match the painting, I brought in 130,000 garden plants in six colors. Some other plants were also planted.Together, they form colorful circles and help create the appearance of Van Gogh's painting.
W: How will you use the park
M: I' ll use it to show art programs and promote central Bosnia's cultural heritage.
W: Well, thank you, Mr. Zukic, for creating such a special park. I'm sure our audience can't wait to visit it.
Text 10
The average American today spends nearly 90 percent of their time indoors, according to the EnvironmentalProtection Agency. Research indicates that time in nature can make children happier, healthier and more sociable.
“Outdoor time for children is beneficial not just to their physical health but also mental health for a large number of reasons. It helps develop curiosity and independence and helps kids get creative about what they can do,” says JanineDomingues, a psychologist at the Child Mind Institute.“Numerous studies have found that kids living in greener environments have better moods and more adaptability,” says Sarah Milligan-Toffler, CEO of the Children and NatureNetwork. There are social benefits, too. Another systematic review found that spending time outdoors can improve social behaviors, including sharing, cooperating and comforting others.
Experts offer advice to help your children benefit from nature. First, start small. You don't need to visit a national park. A simple walk around the neighborhood is also useful. Second, let your love of nature show out. If you show positive attitudes towards spending time in nature, and actually spend time in nature yourselves, children may follow suit. Third,put your phone away. A really important thing about being outside is putting away all technology. Finally, invite other children. Their creativity and sense of adventure can promote each other.

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