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云南省玉溪第一中学 2025-2026学年高一下学期期中考试英语试题
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分 30分)
第一节(共 5小题：每小题 1.5分，满分 7.5分)
听下面 5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. What is the man going to do tomorrow
A. Attend a book fair. B. Finish his project. C. Recommend a book.
2. Which record did the woman just break
A. The national record. B. The school record. C. Her personal record.
3. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Mother and son. B. Fellow workers. C. Teacher and student.
4. What time will the man’s presentation start
A. At around 3:00. B. At around 3:10. C. At around 3:15.
5. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. The weather. B. A picnic. C. A weekend plan.
第二节(共 15小题;每小题 1.5分，满分 22.5分)
听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中
选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟;听完后，各
小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第 6和第 7两个小题。
6. Why do Mike’s parents want to reward him
A. He won an e-sports competition.
B. He performed well in his final exam.
C. He proposed a good vacation plan.
7. What does Mike really want to do
A. Go to the beach as usual. B. Buy new video equipment. C. Visit the Science Museum.
听下面一段对话，回答第 8至第 9两个小题。
8. Why does the man make the call
A. To change the order. B. To check the receipt. C. To ask for a discount.
9. What problem did the man face
A. He failed to get any mice. B. He went over budget. C. He deleted an email.
听下面一段对话，回答第 10至第 12三个小题。
10. Where did Lily go for her holiday
A. A rural area in Croatia. B. A coastal town in Greece. C. Colosseum in Rome.
11. How did Lily find her way in the unfamiliar place
A. By asking the local people. B. By using electronic devices. C. By referring to the landmarks.
12. How does Jim feel about “alternative travel” in the end
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A. Worried. B. Doubtful. C. Interested.
听下面一段对话，回答第 13至第 16四个小题。
13. Where will the husband work
A. In Britain. B. In Canada. C. In America.
14. What leads to Jane’s decision to move
A. Her son’s further education. B. Her career change. C. Her husband’s job relocation.
15. What does Jane expect the apartment to provide
A. Some furniture. B. A fridge. C. Three bedrooms.
16. Where did Jane first know the rental company from
A. The Internet. B. TV advertisements. C. A college classmate.
听下面一段独白，回答第 17至第 20三个小题。
17. What percentage of people keep their health-related New Year’s resolutions after the first month
A. 10%. B. 20%. C. 30%.
18. Why do most people give up their initial resolutions
A. They set unrealistic fitness goals.
B. They ignore the importance of motivation.
C. They lack energy or devotion.
19. What is the key secret to achieving fitness goals
A. Sticking to an organized program.
B. Applying natural talent to daily exercise.
C. Studying training methods of great athletes.
20. What is the topic of the talk
A. Making New Year’s resolutions.
B. Maintaining an exercise program.
C. Preventing heart disease and cancer.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分 50分)
第一节(共 15小题;每小题 2.5分，满分 37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Attractive lakeside cottages and cabins Lafitte’s Landing Guest Quarters, Uncertain, Texas
There are five cottages featuring high ceilings and spacious bedrooms. Lafitte’s is a certified Backyard
Wildlife Habitat, so you don’t have to go far for bird-watching. Explore the lake on a steamboat, or head to Caddo
Lake State Park for night adventures such as Owl Nights and Bat Watches.
Rates: Summer nightly rates range from $559 to $1,899
Lake Placid Lodge, Lake Placid, New York
With 17 cabins sitting along the shores of Lake Placid, the arts-and-crafts-style Lake Placid Lodge offers an
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exciting summer lake experience. Lakefront cabins come outfitted with hand-built beds and stone fireplaces. Go for
a hike, or hit the lake for swimming, fishing, or boating.
Rates: Rates are $120 per night for double occupancy; each additional person is $20 per night.
Lake Crescent Lodge, Olympic National Park, Washington
Its cottages and cabins are listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Choose between one-and
two-bedroom Singer Tavern Cottages, or stay in the always favored (and often booked) Roosevelt Fireplace Cabins.
Spend your days hiking in the surrounding Olympic National Park, or exploring Lake Crescent by boat.
Rates: Nightly rates for cottages and cabins range between $317 and $398.
Tamarack Lodge Resort, Mammoth Lakes, California
It is on the peaceful shores of the Twin Lakes. Choose between recently built Deluxe Cabins and old
wood-and-stone cabins. Swimming, fishing, boating, biking, and hiking are popular pastimes.
Rates: Summer cabin rates range from $369 to $999 per night.
1. Where can you observe bats at night
A. At Caddo Lake State Park B. At Lake Placid
C. At Olympic National Park D. At the Twin Lakes
2. If three people share one room in Lake Placid Lodge, how much will they pay
A. $60 B. $120 C. $140 D. $360
3. Which of the following is difficult to reserve
A. Cottages at Lafitte’s Landing Guest Quarters B. Cabins at Lake Placid Lodge
C. Deluxe Cabins D. Roosevelt Fireplace Cabins
B
Artist Craig Greco was watching Super Bowl nervously. But while most people focused on the football, Greco’
s eyes were fixed on the kicker’s shoes. After all, they had a custom design he had created for the big game.
Painted in layers of bright gold and red, the shoes showed Greco’s skill in color composition — made even
more amazing by the fact that the artist is color blind. Greco doesn’t let his color blindness limit his creativity,
however. Instead, he bravely challenges himself to create one-of-a-kind artworks that bring joy to everyday objects.
Greco’s path to becoming an artist is unusual. Though interested in art as a kid, he couldn’t see colors the way
others could. He had a form of color blindness where reds and greens look like shades of brown and yellow. As he
grew older, he put aside his artistic dream, yet something was always missing.
It was an unfulfilling job and an inspiring e-mail that reignited his creativity. Through a work email, he
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learned about a 3D chalk artist whose detailed drawings pushed him to start his own art journey. With new purpose,
he taught himself art basics. He studied drawings, took online classes, and asked famous artists for advice. He also
learned to match colors using formulas to make sure the color was always right, even if he couldn’t see it. Within
six months, he was creating his own artworks and receiving commissions.
As his skills grew, so did his confidence. A lifelong Chiefs fan, he decided to contact players on social media,
asking if he could paint their game-day shoes. Kicker Harrison Butker was the first to accept his offer. Because
NFL players can be fined for wearing the wrong color, Greco had to do complex color matching to make sure the
shoes were exactly the right shades. His attention to detail paid off, and soon other players joined Team Greco.
Greco believes artists can bring out passion through painting. “It’s an opportunity to bring happiness and life
to an otherwise boring object,” he said.
While still creating custom shoes for players, Greco continues to expand his range, painting unique artworks
on everything from roller skates to table tops. His advice to young artists: “See what you like, and when you find
your passion, dive into it headfirst and don’t look back.”
4. Why did Craig Greco watch the Super Bowl so closely
A. To check the color of his shoes.
B. To see his artwork on TV.
C. To support his favorite team.
D. To learn from professional players.
5. What does the author mean by saying Greco’s path was “unusual” in paragraph 3
A. He started his art career very late in life.
B. He succeeded despite a visual disability.
C. He never received any formal art training.
D. He only painted on unconventional objects.
6. What can we infer about Greco from the way he learned to paint
A. He valued practice over theory.
B. He preferred working alone.
C. He found creative ways to overcome limits.
D. He relied on talent more than effort.
7. What does Greco suggest young artists do in the last paragraph
A. Paint on a wide variety of objects.
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B. Find their passion and pursue it fully.
C. Learn from successful football players.
D. Focus on bringing joy to everyday items.
C
Scientists have known that sperm whales communicate through patterns of clicks known as codas. These
sounds are not random. Instead, they form complex sequences that whales use when interacting with members of
their family groups. Yet the real meaning of these signals has long remained a mystery. Hidden within the ocean’s
depths is a communication system far more complicated than researchers once imagined. Many experts believe that
such a system may even include something similar to a basic language, but no one has been able to fully figure it
out so far.
To solve this long-standing puzzle, scientists have turned to AI for help. By feeding thousands of whale
recordings into advanced computer models, scientists have begun to detect patterns that human ears alone could
never recognize. Similar to the way large language models learn patterns in human speech, AI systems can analyze
enormous collections of whale codas and identify repeating structures within them. In early experiments, these
systems were able to predict the type of coda and even identify which whale produced it with remarkable accuracy.
Inspired by these results, researchers launched Project CETI （Cetacean Translation Initiative）, an
international collaboration bringing together marine biologists, linguists, engineers and computer scientists to
interpret the communication system of sperm whales. By combining underwater recording devices with powerful
AI models, the team hopes to map the hidden structure of whale sounds and eventually understand how whales
exchange information.
If successful, the project could transform how humans understand animal intelligence. Not only might it reveal
that whales possess a complicated communication system, but it could also show that language-like structures exist
far beyond the human world. In this sense, AI may become more than a technological tool. Properly used, it could
help humans listen, perhaps for the first time, to the voices of another species.
8. What can we learn about sperm whales’ codas from paragraph 1
A. They can only be heard in the deep ocean.
B. They are simple signals for daily communication.
C. They carry meanings that are waiting to be explained.
D. They differ greatly from other sea animals’ sound patterns.
9. What does paragraph 2 mainly focus on
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A. The importance of large language models.
B. The process of collecting whale recordings.
C. The role AI plays in studying whale codas.
D. The achievements in whale protection research.
10. What does the author say about Project CETI
A. It has solved the mystery of animal intelligence.
B. It aims to make whale research a separate discipline.
C. It helps develop advanced underwater recording devices.
D. It may improve human understanding of animal language.
11. Which of the following is the best title for the text
A. AI: A Bridge to Sperm Whales’ Hidden Communication.
B. Sperm Whales: Creatures with Special Languages.
C. New Discoveries in Ocean Ecosystem Protection.
D. International Efforts to Study Ocean Animals.
D
The next time you find yourself in a car, driving along a winding road, why not turn on a cheerful song It
might help you recover from car sickness. A team of researchers led by neuroscientist Yilun Li at China’s Henan
Institute of Science and Technology has found music may be a surprisingly effective way to reduce travel-related
discomfort and dizziness.
In the experiments, 30 volunteers used a machine that imitated (模仿) car driving, in which they were made to
feel carsick while wearing an electroencephalograph (EEG) cap. This allowed researchers to “read” the volunteers’
brain activity in real time, as it changed from a stable state to one of carsickness, and gradually back again.
Volunteers were divided into six groups. Four groups listened to a minute of music after the sick-making drive; one
group listened to no music after the drive, and instead spend one minute meditating (冥想), that is, staying calm
and focusing on their breathing; and one ended the drive right before volunteers were expected to feel discomfort.
The researchers found that joyful music reduced symptoms of carsickness by 14% compared to the group that
meditated. Soft music was the next best type. It reduced symptoms by 13.4% compared to the meditation controls.
It’s difficult to evaluate how significant these changes are, as the current experiments were grounded in a small
group of people with limited statistical power. Even so, the results have found music can be powerful — changing
the way we feel, for better or worse.
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Previous studies have also shown that a favorite music can reduce symptoms of visually caused carsickness or
“cybersickness” from virtual reality devices. But while some research suggests that sad music can improve mood
and make us feel good, it’s possible that in some situations, it can have the opposite effect. Sad music may worsen
discomfort through emotional connection, the authors suggest. In contrast, cheerful or relaxing music may help
volunteers maintain a good physical state, thus improving their comfort.
12. What is the author’s purpose in writing the first paragraph
A. To give practical advice to drivers. B. To introduce a research discovery.
C. To explain a new scientific theory. D. To question an old common belief.
13. How did the researchers measure the volunteers’ brain activity
A. By testing in a moving car. B. By playing different songs.
C. By observing their behavior. D. By using a special device.
14. What is one disadvantage of the experiments
A. Random volunteer subjects. B. Limited music types.
C. Short experiment time. D. Small sample size.
15. What is implied about music’s effect on motion sickness
A. Its effect relies on personal taste in music.
B. Its emotional types define its final effect.
C. It may produce unintended negative results.
D. It primarily addresses physical symptoms.
第二节 七选五(共 5小题;每小题 25分，满分 12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How to Create Good Study Habits for Exams
With good study habits, you can reduce your stress and face exams with confidence. While building lasting
study habits might seem challenging at first, soon these new habits will become part of your daily routine.
____16____
Set a daily study time.
You should plan your study time long before the exam day. You should set aside time every day to study so
that you can finish homework and review what you have learned. ____17____. Daily study periods are needed to
give yourself time to make connections between concepts.
____18____
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Choose an area that is clean, well-lit, and free of distractions so that you can focus on your study materials.
Avoid sitting in front of the television or around a busy part of your home. Some people like to study in the library
or coffee shop, but this may not work for you if you’re easily distracted by movement or noises.
Turn off your electronics.
Electronic devices are a big distraction, so remember to turn off your phone and television. When you need to
use your computer during your study session, stay away from social media, email, and off topic websites.
____19____ This way, your phone gets the power it needs, and you won’t be disturbed by it.
Make a study plan.
____20____. Then, work backward to plan how you will study for each one. Your plan doesn’t have to be very
detailed. Breaking the information into smaller parts and solving a little each day can prevent you from feeling
stressed. This method also makes it easier to reward yourself for following the plan.
A. Create a learning environment.
B. Regular study keeps you busy every day.
C. Mark your exam dates on a calendar.
D. You will enjoy the process of studying this way.
E. Here are some tips to improve your study habits.
F. Charge your phone in another room while studying.
G. It enables you to keep the knowledge fresh in your mind.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分 30分)
第一节 完形填空(共 15小题;每小题 1分，满分 15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I was never very neat, while my roommate Kate was extremely ____21____. Each of her objects had its
____22____, but mine always hid somewhere. She even labeled (贴标签 ) everything. I always looked for
everything. Over time, Kate got neater and I got ____23____. She would push my dirty clothing over, and I would
put my books on her tidy desk. We both got ____24____ each other.
War ____25____ one evening. Kate came into the room. Soon, I heard her screaming, “Take your shoes away!
Why under my bed! Deafened, I saw my shoes ____26____ at me. I jumped to my feet and started yelling. She
yelled back louder.
The room was filled with anger. We could not have stayed together for a single minute ____27____ a phone
call. Kate answered it. From her end of the conversation, I could tell right away her grandma was seriously
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____28____. When she hung up, she quickly crawled (爬 ) under her covers, sobbing. Obviously, that was
something she should not go through ____29____. All of a sudden, a warm feeling of sympathy (同情) rose up in
my heart.
Slowly, I collected the pencils, took back the books, made my bed, cleaned the socks and ____30____ the
floor, even on her side. I got so into my work that I didn’t even notice Kate had sat up. She was watching, her tears
dried and her expression one of ____31____. Then, she reached out her hands to take mine. I looked up into her
eyes. She ____32____ at me, “Thanks.”
Kate and I stayed roommates for the rest of the year. We didn’t always agree, but we learned the ____33____
to living together: giving in, cleaning up and holding on. That experience taught me that a little understanding can
turn conflict into harmony. The night we shared became the most valuable ____34____ of my college life, a
constant ____35____ that small acts of kindness can heal big wounds.
21. A. messy B. organized C. lazy D. careless
22. A. place B. name C. label D. price
23. A. calmer B. messier C. quieter D. neater
24. A. interested in B. worried about C. tired of D. addicted to
25. A. broke up B. broke down C. broke out D. broke in
26. A. walking B. lying C. flying D. resting
27. A. except for B. due to C. instead of D. but for
28. A. sick B. tired C. weak D. old
29. A. lonely B. sadly C. alone D. quietly
30. A. swept B. broke C. covered D. watered
31. A. anxiety B. relief C. fear D. disbelief
32. A. shouted B. smiled C. cried D. frowned
33. A. key B. story C. question D. problem
34. A. dream B. task C. burden D. treasure
35. A. sign B. reminder C. signal D. mark
第二节 语法填空(共 10小题;每小题 1.5分，满分 15分)
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
The 12th National Traditional Games of Ethnic Minorities of the People’s Republic of China ____36____
(open) in Sanya, Hainan province, which is a platform to boost understandings and unity among people from
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different ethnic groups.
The splendid opening ceremony of the games featured cultures of people from China’s 56 ethnic groups, with
approximately 10,000 athletes from all over China ____37____ (gather) on the tropical island to compete in 149
events. ____38____ grand party was also held for participants to showcase their different traditions and cultural
heritages.
China has attached great importance ____39____ preserving ethnic cultures of different ethnic groups.
Holding these games and formulating modern sets of rules ____40____ (wide) help endangered traditional ethnic
sports regain vitality. Unlike traditional sporting events, the games feature competitions ____41____ (root) in
traditional customs and the daily life of people from different ethnic groups in China. The games not only provide a
stage ____42____ athletes show their skills but also offer people a chance to learn the ____43____ (diverse) of
ethnic cultures. The unique charm of different ethnic groups can ____44____ (understand) deeply by the ones
participating in these games. Moreover, the games also contribute to the inheritance and development of traditional
ethnic sports.
In conclusion, we should support and take part in such events _____45_____ (preserve) our precious cultural
heritages.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分 40分)
第一节 应用文写作(满分 15分)
46. 假定你是李华，你校将举办以“Labor Shines Brightly on Life”为主题的英语演讲比赛。请你写一篇演讲
稿，内容包括：
1. 描述日常劳动场景；
2. 介绍劳动的意义；
3. 发起倡议。
注意：
1. 写作词数应为 80个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear fellow students,
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
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____________________________________________________________________________________________
Thank you!
第二节 读后续写(满分 25分)
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Sixteen-year-old Mia lived in Oakwood, a small town where everyone knew each other. Her parents ran a
local bakery that had been in the family for decades, but lately, business was declining. Supermarkets with cheaper
bread and pastries drew most customers away, and Mia often saw her parents sighing over empty cash registers at
night.
One Saturday morning, Mia was helping arrange bread on the shelf when an elderly man named Mr.
Henderson entered. He was a regular, but his steps looked unsteady. “Just a loaf of your mother’s wheat bread,
dear,” he said, his voice weak. Mia handed it to him, and when he fumbled with his wallet, she noticed his hands
shaking. “Take it on the house, Mr. Henderson,” she said softly. The old man smiled gratefully, mentioning that
many seniors in town struggled to afford fresh food since the community food bank closed last month.
Mia’s heart sank. That afternoon, she sat in the bakery’s backyard, thinking hard. The bakery was struggling,
but the seniors’ problem weighed on her. She remembered her grandma used to say, “Small kindnesses tie a town
together.” Suddenly, an idea popped into her head. She rushed inside to tell her parents, but they looked hesitant —
they could barely keep the bakery going, let alone take on more.
Undeterred, Mia decided to try anyway. She made a poster and hung it outside the bakery: “Free bread for
seniors every Friday — donations welcome.” The next morning, she waited anxiously by the door. Just as she
started to doubt herself, a car pulled up, and a woman she didn’t know rolled down the window...
注意：1. 续写词数应为 150左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Mia walked over to the car, wondering what the woman wanted.
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
Weeks later, the bakery and the town seemed to have changed.
____________________________________________________________________________________________
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____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
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云南省玉溪第一中学 2025-2026学年高一下学期期中考试英语试题
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分 30分)
第一节(共 5小题：每小题 1.5分，满分 7.5分)
听下面 5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. What is the man going to do tomorrow
A. Attend a book fair. B. Finish his project. C. Recommend a book.
2. Which record did the woman just break
A. The national record. B. The school record. C. Her personal record.
3. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Mother and son. B. Fellow workers. C. Teacher and student.
4. What time will the man’s presentation start
A. At around 3:00. B. At around 3:10. C. At around 3:15.
5. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. The weather. B. A picnic. C. A weekend plan.
第二节(共 15小题;每小题 1.5分，满分 22.5分)
听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中
选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟;听完后，各
小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第 6和第 7两个小题。
6. Why do Mike’s parents want to reward him
A. He won an e-sports competition.
B. He performed well in his final exam.
C. He proposed a good vacation plan.
7. What does Mike really want to do
A. Go to the beach as usual. B. Buy new video equipment. C. Visit the Science Museum.
听下面一段对话，回答第 8至第 9两个小题。
8. Why does the man make the call
A. To change the order. B. To check the receipt. C. To ask for a discount.
9. What problem did the man face
A. He failed to get any mice. B. He went over budget. C. He deleted an email.
听下面一段对话，回答第 10至第 12三个小题。
10. Where did Lily go for her holiday
A. A rural area in Croatia. B. A coastal town in Greece. C. Colosseum in Rome.
11. How did Lily find her way in the unfamiliar place
A. By asking the local people. B. By using electronic devices. C. By referring to the landmarks.
12. How does Jim feel about “alternative travel” in the end
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A. Worried. B. Doubtful. C. Interested.
听下面一段对话，回答第 13至第 16四个小题。
13. Where will the husband work
A. In Britain. B. In Canada. C. In America.
14. What leads to Jane’s decision to move
A. Her son’s further education. B. Her career change. C. Her husband’s job relocation.
15. What does Jane expect the apartment to provide
A. Some furniture. B. A fridge. C. Three bedrooms.
16. Where did Jane first know the rental company from
A. The Internet. B. TV advertisements. C. A college classmate.
听下面一段独白，回答第 17至第 20三个小题。
17. What percentage of people keep their health-related New Year’s resolutions after the first month
A. 10%. B. 20%. C. 30%.
18. Why do most people give up their initial resolutions
A. They set unrealistic fitness goals.
B. They ignore the importance of motivation.
C. They lack energy or devotion.
19. What is the key secret to achieving fitness goals
A. Sticking to an organized program.
B. Applying natural talent to daily exercise.
C. Studying training methods of great athletes.
20. What is the topic of the talk
A. Making New Year’s resolutions.
B. Maintaining an exercise program.
C. Preventing heart disease and cancer.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分 50分)
第一节(共 15小题;每小题 2.5分，满分 37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. A 2. C 3. D
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. B 5. B 6. C 7. B
C
【8~11题答案】
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【答案】8. C 9. C 10. D 11. A
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. B 13. D 14. D 15. C
第二节 七选五(共 5小题;每小题 25分，满分 12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. E 17. G 18. A 19. F 20. C
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分 30分)
第一节 完形填空(共 15小题;每小题 1分，满分 15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. B 22. A 23. B 24. C 25. C 26. C 27. D 28. A 29. C 30. A
31. D 32. B 33. A 34. D 35. B
第二节 语法填空(共 10小题;每小题 1.5分，满分 15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. opened
37. gathering
38. A 39. to
40. widely 41. rooted
42. where 43. diversity
44. be understood
45. to preserve
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分 40分)
第一节 应用文写作(满分 15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】
Dear fellow students,
Good morning! I’m Li Hua. I’m honored to be here to show you “Labor shines Brighthon Life”.
Labor is all around us in our daily lives. First of all, at home, we often do some housework within our ability,
such as washing the dishes or making our beds every morning. What’s more, we work together to clean classrooms,
and sometimes plant trees at school. Besides, we can be volunteers by helping elderly people carry heavy things in
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our neighborhood.
Through these activities, we get to know the importance of teamwork. It helps us learn new skills, become
more responsible, and feel good about what we do. So, let’s start doing more labor from now on and make our lives
better!
Thank you!
第二节 读后续写(满分 25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】
Mia walked over to the car, wondering what the woman wanted. “Hi, I’m Clara from the town’s community
center,” the woman said, handing her a box of flour. “I heard about your plan — many locals want to help. This is
from Mrs. Green’s grocery store, and Mr. Torres will bring butter later.” Mia’s eyes lit up. Soon, more people came
with donations: eggs, sugar, and even cash. Seniors started visiting on Fridays, chatting while picking up bread,
filling the bakery with laughter. Her parents, touched by the support, joined in, baking extra pastries for the seniors.
Weeks later, the bakery and the town seemed to have changed. The bakery was always busy — locals came
not just for bread, but to support the initiative. A new community food bank opened, funded by donations from the
bakery’s visitors. Mia often saw seniors helping out at the bakery, packing bread or greeting customers. Oakwood
felt warmer than ever; people smiled and helped each other more. Mia’s parents no longer sighed at empty registers,
and she realized: when a community stands together, no problem is too big. She turned a small kindness into
something that has tied the whole town.
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