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专题 04 阅读理解（期末题型精练）八年级英语下学期 新教材译林版
In our daily life, direct questions are usually used to ask for information we do not know. Direct questions are either Yes or No questions such as “Are you married ” or information questions such as “Where do you live ”
It’s OK to ask your friends or someone you know well direct questions. But they can seem abrupt and impolite at times, especially when you are asking a stranger. For example, if you come up to someone and ask “What time is it ” or “Can you move ”, he or she may refuse to answer you. It is certainly correct to ask questions in this way, but it’s very common to make these kinds of questions more polite by adding “Excuse me” or “Pardon me” to begin your questions.
It’s also possible to use “can” in more informal situations. In the past, “can” was not used when asking for something, but only to refer to abilities. In the United Kingdom, Cambridge University publishes books with the phrases “Can you lend me,” “Can I have”, etc. In the United States, this form is still considered to be incorrect, especially for written English, and “May I have” is preferred. Questions with “can” are made more polite by using “could”: “Pardon me, could you help me ”
“Would” can also be used to make questions more polite. “Would you lend me your pencil ” is also polite.
Another way of making direct questions more polite is to add “please” at the end of the questions. We can say “Could you help me, please ” “Please” should not appear at the beginning of the questions.
1．According to the passage, the writer thinks ________.
A．we shouldn’t ask direct questions in daily life
B．it’s OK to ask strangers direct questions
C．it’s not enough to ask questions correctly
D．we must know someone well before asking questions
2．From Paragraph 3, we can know ________.
A．“can” was only used to describe abilities before
B．people in America like using “can” better
C．questions with “can” are more polite in written English
D．questions with “can” are polite in the US
3．What does the passage mainly tell us
A．How to be a polite person. B．How to use some expressions correctly.
C．How to make direct questions more polite. D．How to change the ways we speak.
阅读以下内容，从其后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，有两项是多余的。
Since everyone likes to be around people with good manners, one can never learn too much about manners. Here are some rules that may help you become a more polite person.
In public, it is kind to hold the door open for others, especially when you see someone with arms full or who might have difficulty getting in. Never allow a door to shut heavily on anyone following you. But avoid holding a door open when someone is a bit far away. 4
Be kind to people who work for you, such as waiters, shopkeepers and postmen. It is kind to smile and say “thank you” to them when they are easily forgotten by most people. They work hard so that we can enjoy our lives. 5
Take off your headphones (耳机) before you speak to someone. At the end of a phone call with people older than you, it’s proper to make sure they end the phone call first. 6 Loud noise is always unwelcome and may even cause fights.
7 Hear them out before expressing your own opinion. Allow them to voice their opinions, even when you don’t agree with them. Use your communication skills instead of raising your voice to express yourself.
Also, when you are in a group conversation, make eye contact with others. This shows that you are paying attention. Try to share the “talking time” fairly. 8 And if you need to leave the conversation briefly (简短地), excuse yourself politely.
A．Don’t cut in on people when they talk.
B．This might cause them to hurry up to the door.
C．It’s important to let them know their work is seen by us.
D．Always remember to use words instead of fights to work out problems.
E．It’s wise to get to the meeting room 15 minutes before the meeting starts.
F．When in public, don’t play music or videos loudly on your mobile phones.
G．Don’t always be the one who talks the most, but also make sure you get a chance to share your ideas.
Isaac Kenevan was a 13-year-old boy. He loved playing video games and trying new challenges (挑战). But in March 2022, he died while doing an online “blackout” challenge. The BBC says this dangerous challenge asks people to hold their breath until they pass out.
Isaac’s mom told The Independent that he was just a curious boy. They never thought this challenge would hurt him.
To stop sad stories like Isaac’s and keep kids safe online, the UK made new safety rules on May 8, The Guardian reported. These rules say platforms (平台) like TikTok must check users’ ages to find out who is a child. They must also make sure the posts suggested to kids are safe.
Gill Whitehead from the UK’s online safety team told The Guardian, “The important thing is to block harmful videos that children might see.” Violent (暴力) or bad content (内容) should appear less often, she said.
If companies break these rules, they may have to pay big fines. They could lose up to 18 million pounds (about 165 million yuan) or 10% of their yearly money, according to Lianhe Zaobao.
Other countries are also trying to protect young social media users. The EU’s Digital Services Act wants to make sure kids spend less time on social media. In the US, the Kids Online Safety Act says companies must protect users under 18. In India and Brazil, kids need their parents’ permission (允许) to use websites that collect their information.
9．How does the writer start the story
A．By making a comparison. B．By listing some numbers.
C．By using a famous saying. D．By giving an example.
10．What do the UK guidelines (准则；指南) do according to the passage
a. Stop platforms offering harmful content.
b. Fine companies if they break the rules.
c. Make sure information on platforms is safe for kids.
d. Stop children using some apps.
e. Ask parents to watch their children.
A．a-b-c B．a-c-d C．b-d-e D．c-d-e
11．What is the last paragraph mainly about
A．The jobs of parents to protect their children.
B．Other countries’ ways to protect children online.
C．The new UK guidelines for young social media users.
D．The list of companies that are responsible for children.
Volunteers Are Needed●Clean People’s Park! We need five people who are strong and can help clean up People’s Park. We need help to collect rubbish. If you are free for four hours this weekend, come and join us! Tel: 0398-8651518 Email: park699@ ●Teach Music! We need three volunteers to work as music teachers in SOS Children’s Villages. You need to be good at singing and dancing. You also need to be glad to accept (接受) different opinions. That is to say you need to be a person with a loving heart. If you are free for two hours every weekend, join us! Tel: 0398-8858518 Email: lovekids@ ●Help Old People! We need four volunteers to help at Star Nursing Home. You need to be good with older people. Your job is to wash clothes for them. If you can spare three hours on May 6, come and join us! Tel: 0398-8656869 Email: homelove@
12．What are volunteers asked to do in People’s Park
A．Wash clothes. B．Collect rubbish. C．Teach music. D．Learn music.
13．How many volunteers are needed in total (总计) according to the passage
A．Three. B．Four. C．Five. D．Twelve.
14．Where can we probably read the passage
A．In a story book. B．In a science report.
C．On the Internet. D．In a textbook.
My wife and I liked keeping old things at home, even when they were broken. When a radio, an iron, or a table lamp broke, it became a trove (宝藏). Any chance our children got, they would take apart (拆开) each broken appliance (电器) to see the inside. I can’t say this activity is the only reason for their choosing technical (技术的) jobs but I’m sure it has something to do with that.
It all started when our clock radio stopped working after years of service. Some of you might remember the type: the plastic body with bright red numbers showing the time. On a whim, I didn’t throw it away but placed it on the floor and gave my kids some tools. “Have a try. Take it apart.” Our 8-year-old daughter was excited. With a cheer, she started working on it right away. Her younger brother joined soon. Once they opened the radio, the excitement only grew. “Look at all these wires” “Is this what lights up the numbers ” There were a lot of smiles and giggles.
Soon, it became a tradition. Any time an appliance broke, it didn’t go to the trash. They went to the “project pile” in the garage. When we had time, we broke them down together. I enjoyed showing the kids how to use various tools to do the work. One of my favorite moments came when the mother of our boy’s friend called my wife. She asked why her son suddenly wanted to take apart their perfectly good coffee maker. We laughed.
Of course, I was always there with the kids, watching carefully to keep things safe. I kept the kids away from sharp parts and anything possibly dangerous. But they still had freedom to explore, break, cut, and go at their own pace (节奏).
Through these fun times, our kids learned to be curious while also understanding something about patience and attention to details. As for my wife and me, we’ve learned to relax, simply watch, and realize that we didn’t have to guide their every step.
15．Why didn’t the author and his wife get rid of broken appliances
A．Because they could make new ones with broken appliances.
B．Because their children could find valuable parts in them.
C．Because their children loved to see what was inside.
D．Because they sold broken appliances for money.
16．What does the expression “on a whim” in Paragraph 2 probably mean
A．without worry B．with a sudden idea C．in a good mood D．according to a plan
17．Which of the following statements is TRUE about the tradition
A．The daughter was more excited about it than the son.
B．It started because of a recently bought clock radio.
C．The author and his wife didn’t really enjoy it.
D．It allowed the family to spend time together.
18．Why does the author mention the phone call from the friend’s mother
A．To prove children loved to take apart things.
B．To explain why he decided to stop the tradition.
C．To show the idea was spread and made other kids curious.
D．To prove other parents were against the author’s parenting style.
19．Which of the following best summarizes the idea of this passage
A．Letting children explore on their own can benefit them a lot.
B．A family tradition can help children to choose future jobs.
C．Children should be allowed to reuse broken machines.
D．It is a pity to throw away broken home appliances.
China’s 2025 concert calendar presents an exciting lineup (节目安排) of world-class performances. The following are some of the most exciting concerts.
Ed Sheeran|Hangzhou Olympic Sports Center Feb 24—Mar 2
Hangzhou will be the only stop in China for Ed Sheeran’s “+-=÷×Tour”. Ed Sheeran is an English singer-songwriter, whose musical style has been described as pop, folk-pop and soft rock. He has also added rap into his music. Sheeran has sold 200 million records worldwide, making him one of the world’s best-selling music artists.
Richard Marx|Jing’an Sports Centre May 10
Enjoy a night of pop and soft rock with Richard Marx at Jing’an Sports Centre, Shanghai. Chicago native Richard Marx became famous in the late 1980s. Marx is still exploring his musical career by releasing singles. What also excites the fans is his recently published memoir (回忆录) about his life and career.
Jay Chou|Kai Tak Stadium Jun 27—Jun 29
After performing seven shows at the Central Harbourfront last year, Jay Chou will return to Hong Kong in June to hold his “Carnival World Tour”. Jay Chou is the “King of Mandopop (华语流行音乐)” in many fans’ hearts. His works, which often blend Eastern and Western styles, have an impact on musical trends both at home and abroad.
David Tao|Shenyang Olympic Sports Center Stadium Jul 26
Grab tickets for David Tao’s concert in Shenyang before they’re sold out. He is well-known for creating a mixed genre of R&B and hard rock which has now become his signature style. He has also popularized R&B in China, and has written songs for artists such as A-Mei and S. H. E.
20．The information about the concerts is organized according to________.
A．the music styles included B．the date of the concert
C．the popularity of the singer D．the host city of the concert
21．Sally enjoys rock music and plans to travel to northern China. Which concert may she wish to go to
A．Ed Sheeran’s. B．Richard Marx’s. C．Jay Chou’s. D．David Tao’s
22．Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage
A．Jay Chou is the King of Pop Music.
B．Richard Marx expresses himself with music alone.
C．David Tao has made R&B music popular in China.
D．Ed Sheeran chose Hangzhou as his longest stop in China.
23．What do the four singers have in common according to the passage
A．The tickets to their concerts sell quickly.
B．Their works combine different musical styles.
C．They have more Chinese fans than foreign ones.
D．It will be their first time to hold concerts in Chinese cities.
24．Where will you most probably read this passage
A．On a ticketing platform. B．In a holiday brochure.
C．On a website of classical music. D．In a fashion magazine.
“Come and play with me,” the little prince suggested. “I am so unhappy.”
“I cannot play with you,” the fox said, “I am not tamed.”
“Ah! Please excuse me,” said the little prince. But after some thought, he added: “What does ‘tame’ mean ”
“It means to set up ties,” said the fox. “To me, you are still nothing more than a little boy...But if you tame me, we shall need each other. To me, you will be unique (独一无二的) in all the world.”
“Please tame me!” said the fox. “You must be patient. Sit down a little distance from me, like this, in the grass. I will watch you out of the corner of my eye, and you will say nothing. Words are the cause of misunderstandings. But each day, you may sit a little closer…”
The next day the prince returned. “It would have been better to come at the same hour,” said the fox. “If you come at four o’clock, I shall begin to be happy by three. The more time passes, the happier I’ll feel. But if you come at any random (随意的) time, I’ll never know when to prepare my heart.”
So the little prince tamed the fox. And when it’s time to leave...
“Ah,” said the fox, “I shall cry.”
“It is your own fault,” said the prince, “I never wished you harm, but you wanted me to tame you.”
“Yes,” said the fox, “But now, look at the golden wheat fields. They will remind (想起) me of your hair. And I shall love the sound of the wind in the wheat...”
Then he added, “Go and look again at the roses. You’ll understand yours is unique. Remember: Real importance is unseen.”
—Adapted from Little Prince
25．What does the word “tame” mean in the passage
A．To play games together. B．To give gifts to each other.
C．To travel to different places. D．To set up ties.
26．What should the little prince do FIRST to tame the fox
A．Sing a song for the fox. B．Promise to visit forever.
C．Sit at a distance and be silent. D．Bring him delicious food every day.
27．Why does the fox ask the prince to come “at the same hour” every day
A．To test the prince’s memory. B．To make it special and exciting.
C．To avoid meeting other animals. D．To save time for preparing food.
28．What is the main lesson the fox teaches the prince
A．Traveling makes people wiser. B．Animals are wiser than humans.
C．True connections (联系) need time and care. D．Happiness comes from owning expensive things.
29．People can take part in the event in Macau ________.
A．on May 10 B．on May 11
C．on May 18 D．on May 25
30．The picture shows ________.
A．the results of the event B．the costs of the event
C．the purpose of the event D．the history of the event
31．What’s the picture mainly about
A．Health. B．Charity. C．Lifestyle. D．Traveling.
阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的选项中选出能够填入短文空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项是多余选项。
Physical literacy (体育素养) is about our ability to be active, which is good for both our minds and bodies. For younger kids, adults can be important for helping them develop physical literacy. 32 Offering many types of activities
Taking part in activities like running, jumping, throwing, catching and kicking is important for physical literacy. 33 This variety helps people become skilled in plenty of movements and helps them develop how they think and feel about movement. 34
Activity clubs should use games and activities that are interesting and enjoyable for young people. Fun activities make kids want to take part and learn new skills. Adults should make sure that all young people feel relaxed and have a voice, choice, and the chance to develop. Taking things step by step
35 Providing clear instructions, examples, and allowing young people to explore movement helps kids learn and develop as fast or as slow as they can. Providing active feedback (反馈)
It is important for adults to realize young people’s improvements. When adults point out what young people are doing well and how they can improve, it builds confidence. 36 Simple sentences like “well done” often make kids’ bodies and minds feel good.
A．Everyone can take part
B．Taking part and having fun
C．Here’s how your parents, teachers, and coaches can help.
D．Young people should get the chance to work well with others.
E．This should be in different types of sports and also in different environments.
F．When kids feel confident in an activity, they are more likely to keep taking part.
G．Adults should break hard skills down into smaller steps for young people to learn.
Scientists have found a new way to study the health of soil—by listening to it. They think their way could help people monitor (监测) and improve soil around the world.
All living things — animals, insects, and even plants — make sounds, and by listening we can study those noises. The way has been used to watch bats, birds and sea animals. Scientists in Australia wanted to see if they could use listening to check how healthy soil was.
Soil can be filled with many living things, and the greater the variety (多样性) of living things, the healthier the soil. For example, animals without backbones like ants and worms help nutrients (营养) and water pass through soil. However, the change of the environment and human activities have reduced the variety of living things in soil. “It’s very important to monitor the variety of living things in soil,” Robinson said.
For the study, the scientists first put special microphones (麦克风) into the soil and then moved away and stood silently. Next, they collected many hours of recordings from the Mount Bold area of Australia. Finally, they took some to check soil health.
The recordings showed the different sounds living things make underground. The study found that more different kinds of sounds suggested healthier soil. It also showed that listening is a good way to test soil health. It costs less and causes less loss than other ways, such as digging up soil and testing it. In the future, Robinson said, “Everyone can just buy their own little microphone and hear the sounds of soil.”
37．What did scientists in Australia want to use listening for
A．Checking the health of soil. B．Studying living things’ noises.
C．Watching some living things. D．Making some animals’ sounds.
38．What can we learn about ants and worms from Paragraph 3
A．It’s necessary to monitor them.
B．It’s natural for them to live in soil.
C．They are helpful to the health of soil.
D．They add to the variety of living things.
39．Paragraph 4 mainly talks about the study’s ________.
A．steps B．tools C．result D．purpose
40．According to Robinson, what’s the future of listening to soil like
A．It will be used in other fields. B．It can be used by more people.
C．It can dig up life underground. D．It will bring more living things.
Six months pass and Dacty, the pterodactyl, is very big now. During the day, he sleeps in Aunt Elizabeth’s office, and at night he flies around the museum. But one night, something strange happens. At midnight, Dacty sees lights moving inside the museum. He flies closer to see what is happening. There are two men inside the museum. They are wearing masks and they are trying to open a box. Inside the box, there is an old picture.
Suddenly, one man looks up and sees Dacty. He is very scared. “Look, Bert,” he says to the other man. “There is a huge bird up there.” The other man looks up, but Dacty doesn’t move. “Shut up, Eric. Don’t be silly. It’s only a statue (雕像),” the man says. “Come on. I’ll open the box. You look for the gold medal.”
While Bert tries to open the box, Dacty flies down and catches Eric. The thief is so scared that he can’t say a thing. Dacty flies up and leaves him on top of a statue.
Bert is so busy opening the box that he doesn’t see what is happening.
“Hey, where’s the knife ” he says, but there is no answer.
“Eric Where are you, Eric ” he asks.
Then he looks up and sees his friend high above on the statue. Just then, Dacty flies down again and catches the second thief. He carries him up to the statue. The two men are very afraid. They start shouting, but there is nobody there to hear them.
In the morning, when Aunt Elizabeth comes into the museum, she hears the men shouting. Then she sees the broken box. “Help! Help! There’s a monster here,” the men shout while Dacty flies down to her.
“First things first,” Aunt Elizabeth says. She goes into the restaurant, opens the door of the fridge and takes out some fish.
“Here you are, Dacty,” She says and touches his head. “Here’s your breakfast. Thank you very much, you did a good job.” Then she phones the police.
41．What does “something strange” in Paragraph 1 refer to
A．Dacty suddenly grows big. B．Two men try to open a box.
C．Dacty sleeps in the museum. D．Two men want to buy a picture.
42．Which is the right order of the following events
a. Eric and Bert are afraid and shout for help.
b. Dacty flies around the museum at midnight.
c. Eric is caught and left on the statue by Dacty.
d. Dacty catches Bert, leaving him on the statue.
e. Bert and Eric see Dacty and think it is a statue.
A．e-b-c-d-a B．b-e-c-d-a C．e-b-d-c-a D．b-e-d-c-a
43．What does Aunt Elizabeth think of as the first thing
A．Feeding Dacty. B．Saving the two men.
C．Calling the police. D．Caring about the box.
44．What is Dacty
A．A statue. B．A policeman. C．A doorkeeper. D．A pterodactyl.
“SQ3R” is a reading strategy (策略) designed to help you get and understand information better. It stands for Survey, Question, Read, Recite (背诵), and Review. By following these steps, you can get the most out of your reading.
Survey: Get a main idea Look through the title, headings and pictures. Read the introduction and the conclusion.
Question: Try to understand Start asking questions. For example, turn titles and headings into questions. Ask yourself: “What do I already know about this subject ”
Read: Find the answers Look for the answers to your questions. Change your reading speed. Slow down for difficult parts.
Recite: Deepen your understanding Recite the main points you’ve just read. Without looking at your book, answer the questions you designed earlier again. Write down important information in your own words.
Review: Improve your learning Check your questions, answers, notes and the book to test how well you did at remembering the main ideas. Note the parts you still don’t understand and pay attention to (注意) them in class.
45．What’s the purpose of the first step Survey
A．To introduce a subject. B．To get the main idea.
C．To ask some questions. D．To study the pictures.
46．Which steps need readers to answer the questions asked by themselves
A．Read and Recite. B．Survey and Read.
C．Survey and Review. D．Recite and Review.
47．Which part of a magazine is the text probably from
A．Culture. B．History. C．Education. D．Science.
Writing in the Darkness
Pavel Korchagin sat by the window, though he could see nothing but darkness. After losing his eyesight in the war, his hands became his eyes. “I will write a book,” he told his wife Dasha. “Words will be my weapon to keep fighting.”
He began working on The Birth of the Storm, a novel about young revolutionaries (革命分子). Writing but unable to see was painful: his pencil slipped (滑落，脱落), words were tangled (缠结) up. Dasha begged to help, but Pavel refused. “If I surrender to this darkness, I lose everything,” he said.
He used a wooden board with grooves (凹槽), threading strings (线, 弦) across it to guide his pencil. Day after day, he put paper under the strings, tracing words along the grooves. When the first six chapters were destroyed in a post office fire, Pavel calmly resharpened his pencil. “Then I’ll rewrite them,” he said. “Steel only grows stronger in fire.”
After five months, he gave the full manuscript to Dasha’s hands. Dasha cried as she read the sentence Pavel wrote: “Even in eternal night, the human spirit can ignite (点燃) fire.”
—Adapted from How the Steel Was Tempered
48．Put the following statements in the correct order according to the passage.
a. Created a grooved writing board.
b. Planned to write The Birth of the Storm.
c. Rewrote chapters lost in a fire.
d. Traced letters using strings and grooves.
e. Finished the full manuscript.
A．b→a→d→c→e B．a→b→d→e→c C．b→c→a→d→e D．a→d→b→c→e
49．Which is NOT true about Pavel’s writing
A．He used strings to keep his writing straight. B．Dasha wrote the entire book for him.
C．He rewrote chapters destroyed by fire. D．He thought writing is a new weapon.
50．Why did Pavel refuse Dasha’s help
A．He believed that facing it alone was meaningful. B．Dasha couldn’t write articles.
C．Dasha was not willing to help him. D．He wanted to finish the book faster.
51．How many chapters were lost in the fire
A．The first three chapters. B．All completed chapters. C．The entire manuscript. D．The first six chapters.
52．What does “Steel only grows stronger in fire” in the paragraph 3 mean
A．Fire improves the quality of metal. B．Suffering makes people weaker.
C．Difficulties make people stronger. D．Manuscripts should be fireproof (防火).
Landslide Disaster in Papua New Guinea
On May 24, 2024, a big landslide (山体滑坡) hit a village in Papua New Guinea. It happened at 3 a.m. while people were sleeping. Over 2,000 people were buried under rocks and mud (泥). The landslide was as tall as a 70-floor building. It destroyed homes, schools, and roads. Rescue teams had trouble reaching the village because the road was blocked. People used shovels or hands to dig, but few were saved.
Scientists analyzed three reasons causing this disaster:
1. Nature: Papua New Guinea has many mountains and heavy rain (over 2,500 mm per year). Weeks of rain made the soil weak.
2. Human actions: People cut down forests for mining and farming. Without trees, the soil became loose (松的).
3. No warning: The country has no good systems to warn people about disasters.
After the landslide, survivors needed clean water and medicine. Many countries gave a helping hand. Experts said, “Planting trees and caring for our earth can help prevent such disasters”.
53．When did the landslide happen
A．During the daytime. B．In the early morning. C．In the afternoon. D．During school time.
54．Why couldn’t rescuers help quickly
A．Animals blocked the way. B．The road was blocked.
C．No one wanted to help. D．They had no tools to dig for saving people.
55．What made the soil weak
A．Cutting down trees. B．Building new schools. C．Planting more crops. D．Helping miners.
56．What lesson can we learn from the disaster
A．Build bigger houses. B．Move to cities. C．Protect forests. D．Give early warnings.
Ne Zha 2: The Devil Rises
The animated film Ne Zha 2, released on January 29, 2025, has become a huge success in the film industry. Directed by Jiaozi, it continues the exciting story of Ne Zha and Ao Bing from the first movie.Screening (放映) Details in Shuyang County (县) (Feb 13-16)
OMNIJOI International Cinema Address: The Central Mall, Shuyang. Sessions: 10:00 AM (2D)/1:30 PM (3D)/4:00 PM (2D)/7:30 PM (IMAX) Ticket Prices: Morning: 35/Afternoon: 55/IMAX: 85 Tel: 0527-83597888
Wanda IMAX Cinema Address: Wanda Plaza, Shuyang. Sessions: from 9:00 AM to 11:00 PM Ticket Prices: 2D: 50/3D: 65/IMAX: 90 ( 40 student tickets) Tel: 0527-80960808
SFC International Cinema Address: Wuyue Plaza, Shuyang. Sessions: 9:30 AM/11:00 AM/2:00 PM/5:00 PM/8:00 PM Ticket Prices: 45 (2D)/ 60 (3D) Tel: 0527-83511116
57．When was Ne Zha 2 released
A．January 26, 2025. B．February 29, 2025. C．January 29, 2025. D．February 27, 2025.
58．Which of the following cinemas does NOT have an IMAX screening
A．SFC International Cinema. B．Wanda IMAX Cinema.
C．OMNIJOI International Cinema. D．The Earth Cinema.
59．Sandy is a Grade 8 student, her parents want to take her to Wanda Cinema to watch a 3D version. How much will it cost
A． 195. B． 140. C． 170. D． 105.
《专题 04 阅读理解（期末题型精练）八年级英语下学期 新教材译林版》参考答案
题号 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
答案 C A C B C F A G D A
题号 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
答案 B B D C C B D C A B
题号 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
答案 D C B A D C B C D C
题号 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
答案 B C E B G F A C A B
题号 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
答案 B B A D B D C A B A
题号 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59
答案 D C B B A C C A C
1．C 2．A 3．C
【导语】本文介绍了在日常交流中如何通过添加礼貌用语使直接提问显得更得体。
1．细节理解题。根据“It’s OK to ask your friends or someone you know well direct questions. But they can seem abrupt and impolite at times, especially when you are asking a stranger.”可知，作者认为仅仅正确提问是不够的，还需注意礼貌。故选C。
2．细节理解题。根据“In the past, ‘can’ was not used when asking for something, but only to refer to abilities.”可知，“can”过去仅用于描述能力。故选A。
3．主旨大意题。根据全文内容可知，文章主要介绍了如何通过添加礼貌用语（如“Excuse me”“Could”“Would”“please”等）使直接提问更礼貌。故选C。
4．B 5．C 6．F 7．A 8．G
【导语】本文主要讲述了如何成为一个更有礼貌的人，并提供了几条具体的礼仪规则。
4．根据“But avoid holding a door open when someone is a bit far away.”可知，此段主要围绕在公共场合开门这一行为展开描述，选项B“这可能会让他们想赶紧往门口走。”进一步解释如果有人离得比较远，就不要一直扶着门的原因。故选B。
5．根据“Be kind to people who work for you, such as waiters, shopkeepers and postmen. It is kind to smile and say ‘thank you’ to them when they are easily forgotten by most people. They work hard so that we can enjoy our lives.”可知，此段强调要对为自己工作的人友善，要感谢他们，选项C“让他们知道我们看到了他们的工作，这很重要。”符合此段主旨，故选C。
6．根据“Loud noise is always unwelcome and may even cause fights.”可知，此段提到大声的噪音不受欢迎甚至可能引发争吵，选项F“在公共场合，不要在手机上大声播放音乐或视频。”符合语境，故选F。
7．根据“Hear them out before expressing your own opinion.”可知，此段主要讲在交流中要倾听他人意见，选项A“别人说话时不要打断他们。”符合此段关于交流方式的主题，故选A。
8．根据“Also, when you are in a group conversation, make eye contact with others. This shows that you are paying attention. Try to share the ‘talking time’ fairly.”可知，此段讲在群体对话中要注意眼神交流和公平分享说话时间，选项G“不要总是做说话最多的那个人，但也要确保自己有机会分享想法。”进一步阐述了在群体对话中关于说话时间的要点，符合语境，故选G。
9．D 10．A 11．B
【导语】本文主要讲述了13岁男孩Isaac因参与危险的“屏息挑战”不幸身亡的事件，并介绍了英国及其他国家为保护未成年网民安全采取的新规。
9．细节理解题。根据“Isaac Kenevan was a 13-year-old boy. He loved playing video games and trying new challenges (挑战). But in March 2022, he died while doing an online ‘blackout’ challenge.”可知，作者通过讲述Isaac的具体事例引入主题。故选D。
10．细节理解题。根据“They must also make sure the posts suggested to kids are safe.”、“The important thing is to block harmful videos that children might see.”及“If companies break these rules, they may have to pay big fines.”可知，准则包括阻止平台提供有害内容、对违规公司罚款、确保平台信息对孩子安全，abc符合。故选A。
11．主旨大意题。根据“Other countries are also trying to protect young social media users.”及本段内容可知，本段主要讲其他国家保护儿童在线安全的方法。故选B。
12．B 13．D 14．C
【导语】本文是一篇应用文，通过三个板块，分别招募5名人民公园清洁志愿者、3名SOS儿童村音乐教师志愿者、4名养老院助老志愿者，附具体要求与联系方式。
12．细节理解题。根据“We need help to collect rubbish.”可知，在人民公园志愿者被要求收集垃圾，故选B。
13．推理判断题。根据“Clean People’s Park! We need five people”“Teach Music! We need three volunteers”“Help Old People! We need four volunteers”可知，总共需要的志愿者数量为5+3+4=12名，故选D。
14．推理判断题。文章是招募志愿者的信息，通常会在网络上发布，在故事书、科学报告和课本中不太可能出现此类信息，故选C。
15．C 16．B 17．D 18．C 19．A
【导语】本文主要讲述了作者和妻子保留旧电器并让孩子拆解探索的经历，强调了让孩子自主探索的益处。文章最后提到孩子们通过这种活动培养了好奇心、耐心和注重细节的能力，同时父母也学会了放松和不过多干预。
15．细节理解题。根据第一段“Any chance our children got, they would take apart (拆开) each broken appliance (电器) to see the inside.”可知，作者和妻子不扔掉坏掉的电器是因为孩子们喜欢拆开看里面的构造。故选C。
16．词句猜测题。根据第二段“On a whim, I didn’t throw it away but placed it on the floor and gave my kids some tools.”可知，作者是突然想到不扔掉坏掉的收音机，而是给孩子们工具拆开它。因此“on a whim”意为“突然的想法”。故选B。
17．细节理解题。根据第三段“When we had time, we broke them down together.”可知，这个传统让全家人有时间一起拆解电器，共度时光。故选D。
18．推理判断题。根据第三段“She asked why her son suddenly wanted to take apart their perfectly good coffee maker.”可知，朋友的儿子受作者家孩子的影响，也开始对拆解电器感兴趣。这说明作者家的做法传播开来，引起了其他孩子的好奇心。故选C。
19．主旨大意题。 通读全文可知，文章主要讲述了作者让孩子们自由探索拆解坏掉的电器，孩子们从中受益良多。因此文章的主旨是让孩子们自由探索对他们有很大好处。故选A。
20．B 21．D 22．C 23．B 24．A
【导语】本文介绍了2025年中国几场世界级音乐会的节目安排，包括歌手、地点、时间和音乐风格等信息。
20．细节理解题。根据文章内容可知，每段音乐会信息均按时间顺序排列（Feb 24—Mar 2, May 10, Jun 27—Jun 29, Jul 26）。故选B。
21．推理判断题。根据“Grab tickets for David Tao’s concert in Shenyang before they’re sold out. He is well-known for creating a mixed genre of R&B and hard rock which has now become his signature style.”可知，萨莉喜欢摇滚乐，并计划去中国北方旅行，她应该是David Tao的音乐会。故选D。
22．细节理解题。根据“David Tao…He has also popularized R&B in China”可知，他在中国推广了R&B音乐。故选C。
23．细节理解题。根据文章内容可知，Ed Sheeran融合pop、folk-pop、rap；Richard Marx结合pop与soft rock；Jay Chou融合东西方风格；David Tao混合R&B与hard rock，所以四人音乐均融合不同风格。故选B。
24．推理判断题。通读全文可知，文章介绍了2025年中国几场世界级音乐会的节目安排，包括歌手、地点、时间和音乐风格等信息，最可能出现在票务平台。故选A。
25．D 26．C 27．B 28．C
【导语】本文节选自《小王子》，讲述了小王子与狐狸相遇并建立情感纽带的故事。狐狸通过“驯服”的概念向小王子阐释了建立独特关系需要时间与耐心的道理。
25．词义猜测题。根据“‘It means to set up ties,’ said the fox.”可知，tame在文中意为“建立联系”。故选D。
26．细节理解题。根据“Sit down a little distance from me, like this, in the grass. I will watch you out of the corner of my eye, and you will say nothing.”可知，驯服狐狸的第一步是保持距离并保持沉默。故选C。
27．细节理解题。根据“If you come at four o’clock, I shall begin to be happy by three. The more time passes, the happier I’ll feel…”可知，固定时间到访能让狐狸提前期待，使相聚更特别。故选B。
28．主旨大意题。通过狐狸强调“驯服需要耐心”“每天靠近一点”以及离别时的对话可知，故事核心是“真正的情感联系需要时间与用心经营”。故选C。
29．D 30．C 31．B
【导语】本文是一篇应用文，主要介绍的是乐施会的米饭节的一些信息，及其慈善意义。
29．细节理解题。根据“There will also be events in Macau on May 24 and 25.”可知，五月二十四和二十五日会在澳门举行，们可以在此期间在澳门参加这个活动，故选D。
30．推理判断题。根据图片中“FIGHT CLIMATE CHANGE”和“EMPOWER SMALLHOLDER FARMERS”可知，应对气候变化，赋能小农户，这是本次活动的目的。故选C。
31．推理判断题。根据“The money raised are used to support Oxfam’s poverty reduction and development programmes.”可知，提到了筹钱，所以照片是关于慈善的。故选B。
32．C 33．E 34．B 35．G 36．F
【导语】本文围绕体育素养展开，介绍成年人帮助孩子发展体育素养的多种方式，包括提供多样活动、确保参与乐趣、分步教学、积极反馈等。
32．前文说“For younger kids, adults can be important for helping them develop physical literacy”对年幼孩子而言，成年人对帮助他们发展体育素养很重要，后文开始讲具体帮助方式，选项C“以下是你的父母、老师和教练能提供帮助的方式”起到承上启下作用，符合语境，故选C。
33．前文提到“Taking part in activities like running... is important for physical literacy.”参与跑步等活动对体育素养重要，选项E“这应该涵盖不同类型运动及不同环境”中“this”指代参与活动这件事，说明活动要多样，符合语境，故选E。
34．后文讲“Activity clubs should use games and activities that are interesting and enjoyable…”活动俱乐部应采用有趣的活动，有趣的活动让孩子想参与……，强调参与活动并获得乐趣，选项B“参与并享受乐趣”契合段落主旨。故选B。
35．段落标题是“Taking things step by step”分步进行，选项G“成年人应把复杂技能分解成小步骤，让年轻人学习”符合“分步”逻辑，符合语境，故选G。
36．前文说“When adults point out what young people are doing well and how they can improve, it builds confidence.”当成年人指出年轻人做得好的地方及改进方法，能建立信心，选项F“当孩子在活动中感到自信，他们更可能持续参与”承接“建立信心”，说明信心带来的积极结果，符合语境。故选F。
37．A 38．C 39．A 40．B
【导语】本文主要介绍了科学家通过聆听土壤中的声音来监测和评估土壤健康的新方法。
37．细节理解题。根据“Scientists in Australia wanted to see if they could use listening to check how healthy soil was.”可知科学家们想通过聆听来检查土壤的健康状况。故选A。
38．细节理解题。根据“animals without backbones like ants and worms help nutrients (营养) and water pass through soil”可知像蚂蚁和蠕虫这样的无脊椎动物有助于营养和水通过土壤，即它们对土壤的健康有帮助。故选C。
39．主旨大意题。根据“For the study, the scientists first put special microphones (麦克风) into the soil and then moved away and stood silently...”可知第四段主要描述了科学家进行研究的具体步骤。故选A。
40．推理判断题。根据“Everyone can just buy their own little microphone and hear the sounds of soil.”可知未来每个人都可以买自己的小麦克风来听土壤的声音，即听土壤这种方式可以被更多人使用。故选B。
41．B 42．B 43．A 44．D
【导语】本文讲述了一只翼龙在博物馆中捉住两个小偷的故事。
41．词义猜测题。根据“At midnight, Dacty sees lights moving inside the museum. He flies closer to see what is happening. There are two men inside the museum. They are wearing masks and they are trying to open a box”可知，Dacty看到博物馆里有灯光移动，飞近后发现有两个人在试图打开一个盒子，故此处划线部分指代 “两个人试图打开一个盒子”。故选B。
42．细节理解题。根据“at night he flies around the museum”可知，在夜间他在博物馆周围飞，即b，排除AC；根据“Don’t be silly. It’s only a statue (雕像),”可知Eric和Bert看到Dacty并认为它是雕像，即e；根据“Dacty flies down and catches Eric. The thief is so scared that he can’t say a thing. Dacty flies up and leaves him on top of a statue.”可知Dacty抓住Eric并把他留在雕像上，即c，排除D。故选B。
43．细节理解题。根据“‘First things first,’ Aunt Elizabeth says. She goes into the restaurant, opens the door of the fridge and takes out some fish.”可知Aunt Elizabeth认为第一件事是给Dacty喂食。故选A。
44．细节理解题。根据“Six months pass and Dacty, the pterodactyl, is very big now.”可知，Dacty是一只翼龙。故选D。
45．B 46．D 47．C
【导语】本文主要介绍了“SQ3R”这种阅读策略。
45．细节理解题。根据“Survey: Get a main idea”可知第一步的目的是获取文章的主要大意。故选B。
46．细节理解题。根据“Without looking at your book, answer the questions you designed earlier again.”以及“Check your questions, answers, notes and the book to test how well you did at remembering the main ideas.”可知需要读者自己回答提问的步骤是Recite和Review。故选D。
47．推理判断题。本文主要介绍了“SQ3R”这种阅读策略，最可能摘自杂志的“教育”版块。故选C。
48．A 49．B 50．A 51．D 52．C
【导语】本文节选自《钢铁是怎样炼成的》，讲述了失明的革命者Pavel Korchagin克服困难坚持写作的故事。
48．细节理解题。根据“I will write a book,”；“He used a wooden board with grooves (凹槽), threading strings (线, 弦) across it to guide his pencil”；“Day after day, he put paper under the strings, tracing words along the grooves.”；“Then I’ll rewrite them,”；“After five months, he gave the full manuscript to Dasha’s hands.”可知，正确顺序是：先有计划→制作工具→描摹字母→重写章节→完成手稿。故选A。
49．细节理解题。根据“Dasha begged to help, but Pavel refused.”可知，Pavel拒绝帮助并独立完成写作，B项错误。故选B。
50．推理判断题。根据“If I surrender to this darkness, I lose everything,”可推知，他拒绝帮助是因为独自面对黑暗具有意义。故选A。
51．细节理解题。根据“When the first six chapters were destroyed in a post office fire”可知，前六章毁于一场大火。故选D。
52．词句猜测题。根据“Steel only grows stronger in fire.”以及Pavel克服困难坚持写作的故事可知，这句话是比喻困难使人更强大。故选C。
53．B 54．B 55．A 56．C
【导语】本文主要介绍了2024年5月24日发生在巴布亚新几内亚的重大山体滑坡灾害。
53．细节理解题。根据“It happened at 3 a.m.”可知，山体滑坡发生在凌晨。故选B。
54．细节理解题。根据“Rescue teams had trouble reaching the village because the road was blocked.”可知，由于道路堵塞，救援队很难到达那个村庄。故选B。
55．细节理解题。根据“Human actions: People cut down forests for mining and farming. Without trees, the soil became loose (松的).”可知，砍伐树木使土壤变得脆弱。故选A。
56．细节理解题。根据“Planting trees and caring for our earth can help prevent such disasters”可知，种树和爱护地球有助于预防这类灾难，所以从这次灾难中我们学会了：要保护森林。故选C。
57．C 58．A 59．C
【导语】本文是一篇应用文。文章主要介绍了动画电影《哪吒 2：魔童闹海》在沭阳县的放映详情，包括多家影院的地址、场次、票价等信息。
57．细节理解题。根据“The animated film Ne Zha 2, released on January 29, 2025, has become a huge success in the film industry.”可知，《哪吒 2》在 2025年1月29日上映，故选C。
58．细节理解题。根据各影院信息栏可知，SFC International Cinema场次中无IMAX放映，若想看IMAX场次，不能选该影院，故选A。
59．推理判断题。根据“Wanda IMAX Cinema ... Ticket Prices: 2D: 50 3D: 65 IMAX: 90 ( 40 student tickets)”可知，看3D场，Sandy是学生，父母是成人，所以花费为 65×2 + 40 = 170元，故选C。
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