2025-2026学年六年级英语下学期期末模拟卷(鲁教版五四学制)(含答案解析+听力音频及听力原文)

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2025-2026学年六年级英语下学期期末模拟卷(鲁教版五四学制)(含答案解析+听力音频及听力原文)

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2025-2026学年六 年级英语下学期期末模拟卷
(鲁教版五四学制)
英语
(考试时间:120分钟 试卷满分:150分)
第一部分 听力(共四节,满分30分)
第一节(共5个小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听录音,在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.A.It’s me. B.It’s mine. C.Yes, it’s mine.
2.A.Sure. Go ahead. B.At home. C.Porridge.
3.A.By train. B.By plane. C.On foot.
4. A.Good idea. B.Bread and milk. C.Play soccer.
5. A.China. B.America. C.England.
第二节(共5个小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
6.Where are they
A.In the shop. B.In the classroom. C.In the supermarket.
7.How often does the boy go to the sports club
A.Once a week. B.Twice a week. C.Every day.
8.How much should the man pay in total
A.10 yuan. B.12 yuan. C.14 yuan.
9.What are they talking about
A.A new film. B.A birthday party. C.A school trip.
10.Where is the girl going to eat
A.At Mr. Jackson. B.At Sam’s. C.At the boy’s house.
第三节(共5个小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听对话, 回答以下各小题。
11.Where is the dog
A.In front of a cake shop. B.In front of a book shop. C.In front of a pet shop.
12.What does Sam think of dogs
A.They are playful. B.They are lovely. C.They are smart.
13.Who has a dog at home
A.Sam’s friend. B.Sam’s sister. C.Sam’s cousin.
14.What does Spot look like
A.It has big ears. B.It has short legs. C.It has a black tail.
15.What is Spot good at
A.Swimming. B.Running. C.Playing with balls.
第四节(共5个小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
你将听到一篇短文,听短文两遍,然后从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答每个问题的正确答案。
16.How many subjects does Mark have this year
A.7. B.8. C.9.
17.What does Mark like doing in his music class
A.Learning to play the piano. B.Learning to play the guitar. C.Learning to sing new songs.
18.Who can teach Mark French
A.His grandfather. B.His grandmother. C.His mother.
19.What does Mark think of biology
A.Difficult. B.Easy. C.Useful.
20.Where does Mark probably like to go after school
A.To the library. B.To the sports field. C.To the art building.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节 阅读理解(共20个小题:每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
{
21.Gina has __________ classes a day.
A.three B.four C.five D.six
22.Gina has a P. E. class on ________.
A.Monday morning B.Friday afternoon
C.Thursday morning D.Tuesday afternoon
23.Gina’s classes finish at ________.
A.15:50 B.15:00 C.11:00 D.14:50
24.From 10:00 to 10:50 on Wednesday, Gina has ________.
A.English B.History C.Math D.Science
25.Gina needs to study (学习) ________ subjects at school.
A.six B.eight C.nine D.seven
B
Dear Mum,
I’m happy to get your letter. I’m very good at school. Do you want to know about my after-class time Well, the classes finish at half past four. We have different activities after class. I usually go to the library and read books on Tuesdays and Thursdays. It’s relaxing. I usually play ping-pong with my classmates on Wednesdays.
I’m not good at it, but I like it. On Fridays, I always go to the art club, because I like drawing. I can draw dogs well now. We usually have dinner at six o’clock.
In the evening, we study in the classroom from 7:00 to 8:30. We usually do our homework. Science is difficult, but my friend Alan helps me with it. I often listen to music or talk with my roommates (室友) before bedtime. Then we go to bed at 9:30 p.m.
Remember to pick me up (接我) at five o’clock on Friday afternoon.
Yours,
Cindy
26.Cindy usually ________ after class on Wednesdays.
A.goes to the library B.listens to music C.plays ping-pong D.goes to the art club
27.Cindy studies for ________ hour(s) in the classroom in the evening.
A.1 B.1.5 C.2 D.2.5
28.Alan helps Cindy with her ________.
A.English B.Maths C.Science D.Chinese
29.When do Cindy and her roommates go to bed
A.9:30 p.m. B.8:30 p.m. C.9:45 p.m. D.10:00 p.m.
30.From the passage, we know ________.
A.Cindy is good at playing ping-pong B.Cindy often reads before bedtime
C.Cindy can’t listen to music at school D.Cindy goes home on Friday afternoon
C
If you want to give birthday gifts to people but you don’t have much money, what should you do Here are some do-it-yourself gift ideas. You can have a try.
To your parents
You can clean your house, sing a song or write a letter to your parents. You can also draw a picture or make a birthday card for them. For them, these are the best gifts.
To your grandparents
You can make some small cakes for them. Having a big meal with them at home is also a good idea.

You can make a nice card with the words of thanks on it. You can write down your favourite things you learn in the teacher’s class. This will make your teacher feel happy.
To your friend
When your friend has his/her birthday, you can make a birthday card for him/her by hand. It’s a small thing, but it means a lot to him/her. You can also sing the song Happy Birthday to him/her.
31.According to the passage, what can you do for your grandparents’ birthday
A.Write a letter to them. B.Clean their house.
C.Make some small cakes. D.Draw a picture.
32.Which can we put in the “ ▲ ”
A.To your sister B.To your teacher C.To your brother D.To your classmate
33.What does the underlined word “it” refer to(指的是)in Paragraph 4
A.The card B.The letter C.The song D.The picture
34.Which is the structure(结构)of the passage
A. B. C. D.
35.What is the main idea of the passage
A.Finding ways to make money to buy birthday gifts.
B.Making different gifts for different people on their birthdays.
C.Buying some expensive gifts for people on their birthdays.
D.Singing the song Happy Birthday to people on their birthdays.
D
Sally is a sports lover. She plays different sports each season.
Baseball is Sally’s favourite sport in spring. After the cold winter, she just wants to play with her friends outside. Baseball is the perfect sport for this. Practising batting and catching (击和接) the balls is hard work,but Sally enjoys it.
In the hot summer, Sally likes to go swimming. She finds it’s very exciting to play in the water with friends. And she’s thinking about learning to dive (跳水) because it looks cool.
In autumn, Sally plays football. She loves running and kicking (踢) the ball. And Sally makes many new friends when playing football. They have a match every Sunday.
Then winter comes. Sally plays basketball. When playing the sport, she runs and jumps a lot. They help make her body strong. Also, she learns to think fast and work with others.
Then another year begins. Another year means four more seasons. And every season has a perfect sport!
36.Sally likes to ________ in spring.
A.play baseball B.go swimming C.play football D.play basketball
37.Sally thinks diving is ________.
A.exciting B.scary C.cool D.dangerous
38.How often does Sally have a football match in autumn
A.Once a month. B.Once a week. C.Twice a month. D.Three times a week.
39.Playing basketball helps Sally get ________.
A.strong and beautiful B.polite and welcome
C.smart and strong D.beautiful and welcome
40.What can be the best title (标题) for the passage
A.Sally has four hobbies. B.Every season has a perfect sport.
C.It is important to do sports every day. D.A girl has fun swimming with friends.
第二节 阅读七选五(共5个小题:每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Do you like pandas They were endangered in the past. During the past years, China has been trying hard to protect them. 41 So the government built 52 protection areas for them. In these areas, trees and bamboos grow well, which provides pandas with proper places to live and enough food to eat.
In 1980, the Chinese government set up China Conservation and Research Centre (中国保护和研究中心) for the giant panda. The centre educates people about protecting pandas and does research to help save them. 42 What’s more, the Chinese government made some rules to stop pandas from being hunted.
In the 1970s, there were just 1,114 pandas in the world. 43 The panda has not been an endangered animal since September 2016. However, there is still a long way to go to protect pandas.
44 They were once mainly in east China, Japan, Russia and South Korea. But later, people thought the crested ibis (朱鹮) died out. However, in 1981, people found seven crested ibises in Shaanxi Province. 45 Now, the number of them has reached 2,000 in China because of our hard work.
A.They started to save the birds.
B.But now there are more than 1,800.
C.And it raises (饲养) new pandas and sends them back into the wild.
D.We all hope that there will be more crested ibises (朱鹮) in the future.
E.China also works to help other endangered animals like the crested ibises (朱鹮).
F.Few people have realized the importance of saving the endangered animals.
G.The most important work in saving pandas is to protect their living environment.
第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分35分)
第一节 补全对话(共5个小题:每小题1分,满分5分)
阅读下面对话,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
A: Hi, George. Can I ask you some questions
B: Sure. What are they
A:
B: At 6:30.
A:
B: Do morning exercises.
A:
B: For about 40 minutes (分钟).
A:
B: Yes. I usually go to bed at 9 o’clock.
A: Wow, your living habits are really healthy. By the way, can you speak Chinese
B: Just a little. My Chinese isn’t good.
A: Oh, my Chinese isn’t good, either.
B: Good idea.
46.A.What do you eat for breakfast B.What time do you get up every morning
C.Do you get up at 6:30 D.Do you like reading
47.A.What do you usually do after getting up B.Why do you exercise
C.Do you get up early D.How often do you exercise
48.A.How do you exercise B.What time do you exercise
C.How long do you usually do morning exercises D.Who do you exercise with
49.A.Who is your Chinese teacher B.Do you like English
C.Why don’t you play with them D.Do you go to bed early
50.A.I usually exercise on Sunday. B.It’s time for class.
C.Chinese is useful. D.Let’s join the Chinese club.
第二节 完形填空(共15个小题:每小题1分,满分15分)
Look at the photo. It’s my family. The old man and the old 51 are my grandparents. This is my father. He is next to his brother,my 52 . This woman is my mother. She is also my English teacher. You can 53 three kids in the photo. The two girls are my 54 . The girl in a red dress is Nancy, 55 the girl in a yellow dress is Susan. Who is the boy Do you know It’s me. My grandparents live in the USA.I live in Beijing 56 my parents now. My father is a 57 . He works in Beijing Hospital. He often has milk 58 breakfast. And he likes to eat 59 bread. My mother often 60 some eggs and some milk.
Today is my birthday. In the morning, my mother 61 a big birthday cake. My father buys a nice watch 62 me. My sisters go to buy some drinks and food. They want to have a birthday party for me. 63 about 6:00 p.m., all my friends come. They 64 the birthday song. I am so surprised. I 65 all my friends and family.
How happy I am!
51.A.boy B.girl C.woman D.people
52.A.aunt B.uncle C.sister D.cousin
53.A.see B.take C.help D.look
54.A.parents B.friends C.sisters D.brothers
55.A.and B.but C.with D.so
56.A.from B.of C.with D.and
57.A.teacher B.doctor C.farmer D.worker
58.A.for B.to C.in D.at
59.A.a B.some C.many D.any
60.A.eat B.has C.have D.had
61.A.makes B.plays C.does D.has
62.A.on B.of C.for D.to
63.A.In B.On C.At D.For
64.A.like B.sing C.play D.say
65.A.play B.give C.thank D.spend
第三节 阅读填空(共10个小题:每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
My birthday is 66 June 12th. It is also my favorite day of the year, because on that day, I always have a big party at home. I invite all my good friends to come. I am very happy because no one will be absent 67 the party.
My family always get ready for the party together. My mother cooks lots of nice food for us. My father helps clean the rooms. My brother thinks of some interesting games for us. At the party, we enjoy bread, fresh fruit, sweet juice and 68 (sandwich) . We sing birthday songs, dance 69 (happy) and play games together. All my friends are relaxed, happy and 70 (play) .
I love my party very much, 71 it makes me feel very happy and 72 (luck) to have my family and friends around me. Their love makes my life more beautiful.
It is 73 important day for me. I really hope 74 (have) a happy party like this every year. And I will always remember 75 (it) love and warmth.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节情境运用(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据所提供的图片,用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76.
A: Does your brother have a ping-pong ball
B: No, he doesn’t. But __________________________
77.
A:______________________________________
B: Twice a week.
78.
A:______________________________________
B: It’s Teng Fei’s
79.
A:______________________________________
B: No, it’s not mine, it’s Tom’s.
80.
A: Why do you like playing badminton
B: __________________________________
第二节作文(满分25分)
81.假定Eric是你的好朋友,请根据表格中的信息写一篇英语短文介绍一下Eric。
姓名 Eric
年龄 13岁
生日 12月3日
最喜爱的动物 熊猫
爱好 听音乐、打篮球、弹吉他
日常生活 上午7:30上学、下午5:30回家。每天7节课,每节课45分钟。
家规 1.放学回家先写作业。 2.上学日不能使用手机。 3.睡前整理好书包。
要求:
1.短文必须包括上述要点;
2.词数80词左右,题目和开头已给出,不计入总词数;
3.语言通顺,行文连贯,语法正确,书写规范;
4.文中不得出现真实校名和姓名。
My best friend
Eric is my best friend.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
试卷第1页,共3页
试卷第1页,共3页2025-2026学年六 年级英语下学期期末模拟卷
(鲁教版五四学制)解析卷
英语
(考试时间:120分钟 试卷满分:150分)
第一部分 听力(共四节,满分30分)
第一节(共5个小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听录音,在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.
A.It’s me. B.It’s mine. C.Yes, it’s mine.
【答案】B
【原文】Whose baseball glove is it
2.
A.Sure. Go ahead. B.At home. C.Porridge.
【答案】C
【原文】What do you usually have for breakfast
3.
A.By train. B.By plane. C.On foot.
【答案】B
【原文】How do we get to the USA from China
4.
A.Good idea. B.Bread and milk. C.Play soccer.
【答案】B
【原文】What do you usually have for breakfast
5.
A.China. B.America. C.England.
【答案】A
【原文】Where are pandas from
第二节(共5个小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
6.Where are they
A.In the shop. B.In the classroom. C.In the supermarket.
【答案】B
【原文】M: Would you like a sweet
W: No, thank you. We can’t eat snacks in class.
7.How often does the boy go to the sports club
A.Once a week. B.Twice a week. C.Every day.
【答案】A
【原文】W: Do you go to the sports club every day
M: No. I usually go there on Friday afternoon.
8.How much should the man pay in total
A.10 yuan. B.12 yuan. C.14 yuan.
【答案】A
【原文】A: I need some notebooks and small erasers.
B: The small erasers are 2 yuan each and the notebooks are 3 yuan each.
A: OK. I’ll take 2 erasers and 2 notebooks.
9.What are they talking about
A.A new film. B.A birthday party. C.A school trip.
【答案】C
【原文】W: Hey, John, have you heard about the school trip next month
M: Yeah, I’m really excited. I hope we can go to the zoo.
10.Where is the girl going to eat
A.At Mr. Jackson. B.At Sam’s. C.At the boy’s house.
【答案】B
【原文】A: Can you tell me where there is a good place to eat
B: Sure. Mr. Jackson makes the most delicious hamburgers and a new place called Sam’s serves really healthy sandwiches. You’d better go there.
A: OK. I’ll try Sam’s.
第三节(共5个小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听对话, 回答以下各小题。
11.Where is the dog
A.In front of a cake shop. B.In front of a book shop. C.In front of a pet shop.
12.What does Sam think of dogs
A.They are playful. B.They are lovely. C.They are smart.
13.Who has a dog at home
A.Sam’s friend. B.Sam’s sister. C.Sam’s cousin.
14.What does Spot look like
A.It has big ears. B.It has short legs. C.It has a black tail.
15.What is Spot good at
A.Swimming. B.Running. C.Playing with balls.
【答案】11.A 12.C 13.B 14.A 15.C
【原文】W: Hi, Sam. Look at that dog in front of the cake shop.
M: Oh, what’s its name
W: I don’t know, but it looks very friendly. Do you like dogs
M: Sure, dogs are smart. They can do many things for us.
W: You’re right. Do you have a dog at home
M: No, I don’t. But my sister has a little dog. Its name is Spot.
W: Spot. That’s a good name. What color is Spot
M: It’s black and white. It has big ears and a long tail.
W: Do you often play with it
M: Yes, I go to see it every Saturday afternoon. I think Spot is happy to see me.
W: What can Spot do
M: Well, it is really good at playing with balls.
W: That sounds great.
第四节(共5个小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
你将听到一篇短文,听短文两遍,然后从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答每个问题的正确答案。
16.How many subjects does Mark have this year
A.7. B.8. C.9.
17.What does Mark like doing in his music class
A.Learning to play the piano. B.Learning to play the guitar. C.Learning to sing new songs.
18.Who can teach Mark French
A.His grandfather. B.His grandmother. C.His mother.
19.What does Mark think of biology
A.Difficult. B.Easy. C.Useful.
20.Where does Mark probably like to go after school
A.To the library. B.To the sports field. C.To the art building.
【答案】16.B 17.C 18.B 19.A 20.B
【原文】
My name is mark. I’m in Grade 6. This year, I have English, math, biology, history, IT, music, PE and French. My favorite subject is music, because I like learning to sing new songs in class. I’m good of French. My grandmother can teach me this subject. She can speak French well but biology makes me feel bad sometimes. It’s difficult for me. My classmates are very kind. They often helped me with this subject. After school, I like doing sports at my school.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节 阅读理解(共20个小题:每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
{
21.Gina has __________ classes a day.
A.three B.four C.five D.six
22.Gina has a P. E. class on ________.
A.Monday morning B.Friday afternoon C.Thursday morning D.Tuesday afternoon
23.Gina’s classes finish at ________.
A.15:50 B.15:00 C.11:00 D.14:50
24.From 10:00 to 10:50 on Wednesday, Gina has ________.
A.English B.History C.Math D.Science
25.Gina needs to study (学习) ________ subjects at school.
A.six B.eight C.nine D.seven
【答案】21.C 22.D 23.A 24.B 25.C
【导语】本文展示了吉娜一周的学校课程表,介绍了她每日的课程数量、各时段课程安排、上课时间以及在校学习的全部科目。
21.课程表显示,Gina每天上午有3节课、下午有2节课,全天一共5节课。
22.课程表原文显示,周二下午15:00-15:50的课程是P.E.,因此Gina在周二下午有体育课。
23.课程表最右侧最晚的上课时间段为15:00-15:50,由此可知Gina的课程在15:50结束。
24.课程表周三一行、10:00-10:50时间段对应的课程为History,因此此时Gina上历史课。
25.通读整张课程表,出现的全部科目为:English, Science, Chinese, Math, Geography, History, Art, Music, P.E.,一共9门学习科目。
B
Dear Mum,
I’m happy to get your letter. I’m very good at school. Do you want to know about my after-class time Well, the classes finish at half past four. We have different activities after class. I usually go to the library and read books on Tuesdays and Thursdays. It’s relaxing. I usually play ping-pong with my classmates on Wednesdays.
I’m not good at it, but I like it. On Fridays, I always go to the art club, because I like drawing. I can draw dogs well now. We usually have dinner at six o’clock.
In the evening, we study in the classroom from 7:00 to 8:30. We usually do our homework. Science is difficult, but my friend Alan helps me with it. I often listen to music or talk with my roommates (室友) before bedtime. Then we go to bed at 9:30 p.m.
Remember to pick me up (接我) at five o’clock on Friday afternoon.
Yours,
Cindy
26.Cindy usually ________ after class on Wednesdays.
A.goes to the library B.listens to music C.plays ping-pong D.goes to the art club
27.Cindy studies for ________ hour(s) in the classroom in the evening.
A.1 B.1.5 C.2 D.2.5
28.Alan helps Cindy with her ________.
A.English B.Maths C.Science D.Chinese
29.When do Cindy and her roommates go to bed
A.9:30 p.m. B.8:30 p.m. C.9:45 p.m. D.10:00 p.m.
30.From the passage, we know ________.
A.Cindy is good at playing ping-pong B.Cindy often reads before bedtime
C.Cindy can’t listen to music at school D.Cindy goes home on Friday afternoon
【答案】26.C 27.B 28.C 29.A 30.D
【导语】本文是一篇书信类文章,Cindy写信给妈妈,讲述了自己在学校课后的活动安排、晚餐时间、晚上学习情况以及周五的接送安排等信息。
26.第二段指出“I usually play ping-pong with my classmates on Wednesdays.”,这直接说明Cindy通常在周三课后和同学打乒乓球。
27.第三段提到“In the evening, we study in the classroom from 7:00 to 8:30.”,从7点到8点30分,总共1.5小时,说明Cindy晚上在教室学习1.5小时。
28.第三段提到“Science is difficult, but my friend Alan helps me with it.”,这表明Alan帮助Cindy学习科学。
29.第三段提到“Then we go to bed at 9:30 p.m.”,说明Cindy和她的室友晚上9点30分睡觉。
30.最后一段提到“Remember to pick me up (接我) at five o’clock on Friday afternoon.”,说明Cindy周五下午回家。A选项,第二段提到“I’m not good at it”,可知Cindy不擅长打乒乓球;B选项,第三段提到“I often listen to music or talk with my roommates (室友) before bedtime.”,可知Cindy睡前经常听音乐或和室友聊天,不是读书;C选项,文中未提及Cindy在学校不能听音乐。
C
If you want to give birthday gifts to people but you don’t have much money, what should you do Here are some do-it-yourself gift ideas. You can have a try.
To your parents
You can clean your house, sing a song or write a letter to your parents. You can also draw a picture or make a birthday card for them. For them, these are the best gifts.
To your grandparents
You can make some small cakes for them. Having a big meal with them at home is also a good idea.

You can make a nice card with the words of thanks on it. You can write down your favourite things you learn in the teacher’s class. This will make your teacher feel happy.
To your friend
When your friend has his/her birthday, you can make a birthday card for him/her by hand. It’s a small thing, but it means a lot to him/her. You can also sing the song Happy Birthday to him/her.
31.According to the passage, what can you do for your grandparents’ birthday
A.Write a letter to them. B.Clean their house.
C.Make some small cakes. D.Draw a picture.
32.Which can we put in the “ ▲ ”
A.To your sister B.To your teacher C.To your brother D.To your classmate
33.What does the underlined word “it” refer to(指的是)in Paragraph 4
A.The card B.The letter C.The song D.The picture
34.Which is the structure(结构)of the passage
A. B. C. D.
35.What is the main idea of the passage
A.Finding ways to make money to buy birthday gifts.
B.Making different gifts for different people on their birthdays.
C.Buying some expensive gifts for people on their birthdays.
D.Singing the song Happy Birthday to people on their birthdays.
【答案】31.C 32.B 33.A 34.A 35.B
【导语】本文是一篇说明文,主要针对“没有太多钱买生日礼物”这一情况,提供了一些不同对象(父母、祖父母、老师、朋友)的DIY(自制)生日礼物建议。
31.根据文中“To your grandparents”这一部分的内容:“You can make some small cakes for them.”可知,为祖父母做小蛋糕是一个建议。
32.根据“▲”下方的内容:“You can make a nice card with the words of thanks on it. You can write down your favourite things you learn in the teacher’s class. This will make your teacher feel happy.”可知,这一段是讲给老师的礼物建议,因此标题应该是“To your teacher”(给你的老师)。
33.根据第四段中的You can make a nice card with the words of thanks on…,以及根据上下文逻辑,“it”指代的是前一句提到的“the card”。
34.第一段:提出问题(没钱买礼物怎么办)并引出主题(DIY礼物建议),属于总述;第二段:给父母的建议;第三段:给祖父母的建议;第四段:给老师的建议;第五段:给朋友的建议。文章整体结构为“总—分”结构,即第一段总起,后四段分别针对不同对象进行分述。即①为总起,②③④⑤为并列分述的结构,符合文意。
35.文章列举了给父母、祖父母、老师和朋友等不同人群制作不同礼物的建议,符合文章主要内容。
D
Sally is a sports lover. She plays different sports each season.
Baseball is Sally’s favourite sport in spring. After the cold winter, she just wants to play with her friends outside. Baseball is the perfect sport for this. Practising batting and catching (击和接) the balls is hard work,but Sally enjoys it.
In the hot summer, Sally likes to go swimming. She finds it’s very exciting to play in the water with friends. And she’s thinking about learning to dive (跳水) because it looks cool.
In autumn, Sally plays football. She loves running and kicking (踢) the ball. And Sally makes many new friends when playing football. They have a match every Sunday.
Then winter comes. Sally plays basketball. When playing the sport, she runs and jumps a lot. They help make her body strong. Also, she learns to think fast and work with others.
Then another year begins. Another year means four more seasons. And every season has a perfect sport!
36.Sally likes to ________ in spring.
A.play baseball B.go swimming C.play football D.play basketball
37.Sally thinks diving is ________.
A.exciting B.scary C.cool D.dangerous
38.How often does Sally have a football match in autumn
A.Once a month. B.Once a week. C.Twice a month. D.Three times a week.
39.Playing basketball helps Sally get ________.
A.strong and beautiful B.polite and welcome
C.smart and strong D.beautiful and welcome
40.What can be the best title (标题) for the passage
A.Sally has four hobbies. B.Every season has a perfect sport.
C.It is important to do sports every day. D.A girl has fun swimming with friends.
【答案】36.A 37.C 38.B 39.C 40.B
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。主要讲述了Sally作为运动爱好者,每个季节喜欢从事不同的运动项目。
36.细节理解题。根据“Baseball is Sally’s favourite sport in spring.”可知,Sally喜欢在春天打棒球。故选A。
37.细节理解题。根据“And she’s thinking about learning to dive (跳水) because it looks cool.”可知,她认为跳水很酷。故选C。
38.细节理解题。根据“They have a match every Sunday.”可知,Sally在秋天每周有一次比赛。故选B。
39.细节理解题。根据“Sally plays basketball. …They help make her body strong. Also, she learns to think fast and work with others.”可知,打篮球让Sally变得强壮和聪明。故选C。
40.最佳标题题。通读全文并根据“ She plays different sports each season.”可知,文章主要讲述了Sally作为运动爱好者,每个季节喜欢从事不同的运动项目。选项B“每个季节都有一项完美的运动”最适合当文章标题。故选B。
第二节 阅读七选五(共5个小题:每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Do you like pandas They were endangered in the past. During the past years, China has been trying hard to protect them. 41 So the government built 52 protection areas for them. In these areas, trees and bamboos grow well, which provides pandas with proper places to live and enough food to eat.
In 1980, the Chinese government set up China Conservation and Research Centre (中国保护和研究中心) for the giant panda. The centre educates people about protecting pandas and does research to help save them. 42 What’s more, the Chinese government made some rules to stop pandas from being hunted.
In the 1970s, there were just 1,114 pandas in the world. 43 The panda has not been an endangered animal since September 2016. However, there is still a long way to go to protect pandas.
44 They were once mainly in east China, Japan, Russia and South Korea. But later, people thought the crested ibis (朱鹮) died out. However, in 1981, people found seven crested ibises in Shaanxi Province. 45 Now, the number of them has reached 2,000 in China because of our hard work.
A.They started to save the birds.
B.But now there are more than 1,800.
C.And it raises (饲养) new pandas and sends them back into the wild.
D.We all hope that there will be more crested ibises (朱鹮) in the future.
E.China also works to help other endangered animals like the crested ibises (朱鹮).
F.Few people have realized the importance of saving the endangered animals.
G.The most important work in saving pandas is to protect their living environment.
【答案】41.G 42.C 43.B 44.E 45.A
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文,主要介绍中国为保护大熊猫建立保护区和研究中心,数量得到恢复,同时也在拯救其它濒危生物,如朱鹮。
41.空后讲政府建立保护区,为熊猫提供生存环境和食物,空前应衔接保护熊猫的核心工作是保护其生存环境,G项“The most important work in saving pandas is to protect their living environment.”承上启下。
42.空前介绍熊猫保护和研究中心的工作,空处应承接该中心的其他举措,C项“And it raises new pandas and sends them back into the wild.”符合语境。
43.空前讲70年代熊猫仅1114只,空后说熊猫不再是濒危动物,所以空处应体现现在熊猫数量的增长,B项“But now there are more than 1,800.”符合语境。
44.后文开始介绍朱鹮的保护,空处应起到过渡作用,说明中国也在保护朱鹮等其他濒危动物,E项“China also works to help other endangered animals like the crested ibises.”符合语境。
45.空前讲1981年发现7只朱鹮,空后说其数量已达2000只,空处应衔接人们开始拯救这些朱鹮,A项“They started to save the birds.”符合语境。
第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分35分)
第一节 补全对话(共5个小题:每小题1分,满分5分)
阅读下面对话,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
A: Hi, George. Can I ask you some questions
B: Sure. What are they
A:
B: At 6:30.
A:
B: Do morning exercises.
A:
B: For about 40 minutes (分钟).
A:
B: Yes. I usually go to bed at 9 o’clock.
A: Wow, your living habits are really healthy. By the way, can you speak Chinese
B: Just a little. My Chinese isn’t good.
A: Oh, my Chinese isn’t good, either.
B: Good idea.
46.A.What do you eat for breakfast B.What time do you get up every morning
C.Do you get up at 6:30 D.Do you like reading
47.A.What do you usually do after getting up B.Why do you exercise
C.Do you get up early D.How often do you exercise
48.A.How do you exercise B.What time do you exercise
C.How long do you usually do morning exercises D.Who do you exercise with
49.A.Who is your Chinese teacher B.Do you like English
C.Why don’t you play with them D.Do you go to bed early
50.A.I usually exercise on Sunday. B.It’s time for class.
C.Chinese is useful. D.Let’s join the Chinese club.
【答案】46.B 47.A 48.C 49.D 50.D
【导语】本文主要讲述A向George询问日常作息及语言能力,最后提议一起学中文的对话。
46.George回答“At 6:30”,此处需用询问时间的问句提问,故用“What time do you get up every morning ”引出下文。
47.George回答“Do morning exercises”,此处需用询问做什么的问句提问,故用“What do you usually do after getting up ”引出下文。
48.George回答“For about 40 minutes”,此处需用询问时长的问句提问,故用“How long do you usually do morning exercises ”引出下文。
49.George回答“Yes. I usually go to bed at 9 o’clock.”,此处需用一般疑问句提问,且内容与睡觉相关。故用“Do you go to bed early ”衔接下文。
50.George回答“Good idea.”及上文“my Chinese isn’t good, either.”,此处是提议学中文,故用“Let’s join the Chinese club.”承上启下。
第二节 完形填空(共15个小题:每小题1分,满分15分)
Look at the photo. It’s my family. The old man and the old 51 are my grandparents. This is my father. He is next to his brother,my 52 . This woman is my mother. She is also my English teacher. You can 53 three kids in the photo. The two girls are my 54 . The girl in a red dress is Nancy, 55 the girl in a yellow dress is Susan. Who is the boy Do you know It’s me. My grandparents live in the USA.I live in Beijing 56 my parents now. My father is a 57 . He works in Beijing Hospital. He often has milk 58 breakfast. And he likes to eat 59 bread. My mother often 60 some eggs and some milk.
Today is my birthday. In the morning, my mother 61 a big birthday cake. My father buys a nice watch 62 me. My sisters go to buy some drinks and food. They want to have a birthday party for me. 63 about 6:00 p.m., all my friends come. They 64 the birthday song. I am so surprised. I 65 all my friends and family.
How happy I am!
51.A.boy B.girl C.woman D.people
52.A.aunt B.uncle C.sister D.cousin
53.A.see B.take C.help D.look
54.A.parents B.friends C.sisters D.brothers
55.A.and B.but C.with D.so
56.A.from B.of C.with D.and
57.A.teacher B.doctor C.farmer D.worker
58.A.for B.to C.in D.at
59.A.a B.some C.many D.any
60.A.eat B.has C.have D.had
61.A.makes B.plays C.does D.has
62.A.on B.of C.for D.to
63.A.In B.On C.At D.For
64.A.like B.sing C.play D.say
65.A.play B.give C.thank D.spend
【答案】
51.C 52.B 53.A 54.C 55.A 56.C 57.B 58.A 59.B 60.B 61.A 62.C 63.C 64.B 65.C
【导语】本文描述了一张家庭照片中的人物关系,并介绍了作者的家人以及他们的职业和生活习惯,最后,介绍了作者生日当天的庆祝活动。
51.句意:那位老人和那位老妇人是我的祖父母。
boy男孩;girl女孩;woman女人;people人。根据“The old man and the old... are my grandparents.”可知,此处与“man”对应,应填woman,“the old woman”指作者的祖母。故选C。
52.句意:他紧挨着他的哥哥(弟弟),我的叔叔(伯伯)。
aunt阿姨;uncle叔叔,伯伯;sister姐姐,妹妹;cousin堂兄(或弟、姊、妹);表兄(或弟、姊、妹)。根据“This is my father. He is next to his brother,”可知,父亲的兄弟应该是作者的叔叔或伯伯。故选B。
53.句意:你可以在照片中看到三个孩子。
see看见;take拿走;help帮助;look看,和介词at连用。根据“in the photo”可知,此处指在照片中看到三个孩子。故选A。
54.句意:这两个女孩是我的姐妹。
parents父母;friends朋友;sisters姐姐,妹妹;brothers哥哥,弟弟。根据“The two girls”和倒数第二段“My sisters go to buy some drinks and food.”可知,这两个女孩是作者的姐妹。故选C。
55.句意:穿红衣服的女孩是南希,穿黄衣服的女孩是苏珊。
and和;but但是;with具有;so所以。分析句子可知,“The girl in a red dress is Nancy,”和“the girl in a yellow dress is Susan.”之间是并列关系,所以填连词and。故选A。
56.句意:我现在和我的父母住在北京。
from来自;of……的;with和;and和。live in sp with sb“和某人住在某地”,是固定搭配。故选C。
57.句意:我的父亲是一名医生。
teacher老师;doctor医生;farmer农民;worker工作者。根据“He works in Beijing Hospital.”可知,作者的父亲是一名医生。故选B。
58.句意:他早餐经常喝牛奶。
for为了;to到;in在……里面;at在。have/has...for breakfast“早餐吃……”,是固定表达。故选A。
59.句意:他喜欢吃一些面包。
a一;some一些,一般用于肯定句或表示请求、建议的疑问句中;many很多;any任何,一般用于否定句和疑问句中。bread是不可数名词,并且这是一句肯定陈述句。故选B。
60.句意:我的妈妈经常吃一些鸡蛋、喝一些牛奶。
eat吃,动词原形;has吃,动词三单形式;have吃,动词原形;had吃,动词过去式。根据“often”可知,时态为一般现在时,主语是“My mother”,所以谓语用动词三单形式。故选B。
61.句意:早上,我的妈妈做了一个大生日蛋糕。
makes做;plays玩;does做;has有。根据“a big birthday cake”可知,此处表示“做生日蛋糕”,用动词makes。故选A。
62.句意:我的爸爸给我买了一块漂亮的手表。
on在……上面;of……的;for为了,给;to到。buy sth for sb“为某人买某物”,是固定搭配。故选C。
63.句意:大约下午6点,我所有的朋友都来了。
In在……里面;On在……上面;At在;For为了。根据“about 6:00 p.m.”可知,时间点前用介词at。故选C。
64.句意:他们唱生日歌。
like喜欢;sing唱;play玩;say说。根据“the birthday song”可知,此处指唱生日歌。故选B。
65.句意:我感谢我所有的朋友和家人。
play玩;give给予;thank感谢;spend花费。根据上文内容可知,家人和朋友为作者庆祝生日,作者应该是感谢他们。故选C。
第三节 阅读填空(共10个小题:每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
My birthday is 66 June 12th. It is also my favorite day of the year, because on that day, I always have a big party at home. I invite all my good friends to come. I am very happy because no one will be absent 67 the party.
My family always get ready for the party together. My mother cooks lots of nice food for us. My father helps clean the rooms. My brother thinks of some interesting games for us. At the party, we enjoy bread, fresh fruit, sweet juice and 68 (sandwich) . We sing birthday songs, dance 69 (happy) and play games together. All my friends are relaxed, happy and 70 (play) .
I love my party very much, 71 it makes me feel very happy and 72 (luck) to have my family and friends around me. Their love makes my life more beautiful.
It is 73 important day for me. I really hope 74 (have) a happy party like this every year. And I will always remember 75 (it) love and warmth.
【答案】
66.on 67.from 68.sandwiches 69.happily 70.playful 71.because 72.lucky 73.an 74.to have 75.its
【导语】本文介绍了作者的生日派对,讲述了家人为派对的准备、派对上的活动与感受,表达了对家人和朋友陪伴的珍视,以及对生日的喜爱。
66.句意:我的生日在6月12日。表示具体日期前需用介词on。
67.句意:我很开心,因为没有人会缺席派对。“be absent from”表示“缺席……”,from符合语境。
68.句意:在派对上,我们吃面包、新鲜水果、甜果汁和三明治。sandwich是可数名词,前面列举了多种食物,此处需用复数形式sandwiches。
69.句意:我们一起唱生日歌、开心地跳舞和玩游戏。修饰动词dance需用副词,happy的副词形式是happily。
70.句意:我所有的朋友都很放松、开心且爱玩。and连接并列的形容词,play的形容词形式是playful,表示“爱玩耍的”。
71.句意:我非常喜欢我的派对,因为有家人和朋友在身边让我感到非常幸福。前后句为因果关系,后半句说明原因,用连词because。
72.句意:我非常喜欢我的派对,因为有家人和朋友在身边让我感到非常幸福和幸运。feel后接形容词作表语,luck的形容词形式是lucky。
73.句意:对我来说,这是重要的一天。important以元音音素开头,表示“一个”需用不定冠词an。
74.句意:我真的希望每年都能有这样一个快乐的派对。“hope to do sth.”表示“希望做某事”,to have符合语境。
75.句意:我会永远记住它的爱与温暖。修饰名词love需用形容词性物主代词,it的形容词性物主代词是its。
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节情境运用(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据所提供的图片,用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76.
A: Does your brother have a ping-pong ball
B: No, he doesn’t. But __________________________
77.
A:______________________________________
B: Twice a week.
78.
A:______________________________________
B: It’s Teng Fei’s
79.
A:______________________________________
B: No, it’s not mine, it’s Tom’s.
80.
A: Why do you like playing badminton
B: __________________________________
【答案】76.he has a ping-pong bat. 77.How often do you play football 78.Whose basketball is this 79.Is this notebook yours /Is this your notebook 80.Because it’s fun and good for health. (答案不唯一)
【解析】76.根据图片和问句“Does your brother have a ping-pong ball ”以及答句的否定回答可知,B的哥哥没有乒乓球,但是他有一个乒乓球拍,人称代词he作主语,置于But后,“有”的英文为have,时态为一般现在时,谓语动词用三单形式has,“乒乓球拍”的英文为ping-pong bat。
77.根据图片和答语“Twice a week.”可知,问句应表达“你多久踢一次足球?”,本句为特殊疑问句,特殊疑问词用how often。置于句首,首字母大写,主语为you,助动词do,置于How often与you之间,“踢足球”英文为play football,置于主语you之后。
78.根据图片和答语“It’s Teng Fei’s.”可知,问句应表达“这是谁的篮球?”,本句为特殊疑问句,特殊疑问词whose后接basketball,表达“谁的篮球”,置于句首,首字母大写,“这是”的英文为this is,is需提前。
79.根据图片和答语“No, it’s not mine, it’s Tom’s.”可知,问句应表达“这个笔记本是你的吗?”或“这是你的笔记本吗?”,本句为一般疑问句,“这个笔记本”this notebook或者“这个”this,作主语,时态为一般现在时,be动词用is,置于句首,首字母大写,“你的(笔记本)”yours或者“你的笔记本”your notebook,作表语。故填Is this notebook yours /Is this your notebook?
80.本句为开放性问题,回答合理即可。根据图片及问句“Why do you like playing badminton ”可知,答句需用because引导原因状语从句,说明喜欢的理由,because位于句首,首字母大写。例:Because it’s fun and good for health.
第二节作文(满分25分)
81.假定Eric是你的好朋友,请根据表格中的信息写一篇英语短文介绍一下Eric。
姓名 Eric
年龄 13岁
生日 12月3日
最喜爱的动物 熊猫
爱好 听音乐、打篮球、弹吉他
日常生活 上午7:30上学、下午5:30回家。每天7节课,每节课45分钟。
家规 1.放学回家先写作业。 2.上学日不能使用手机。 3.睡前整理好书包。
要求:
1.短文必须包括上述要点;
2.词数80词左右,题目和开头已给出,不计入总词数;
3.语言通顺,行文连贯,语法正确,书写规范;
4.文中不得出现真实校名和姓名。
My best friend
Eric is my best friend.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
【答案】例文
My best friend Eric is my best friend. He is 13 years old, and his birthday is on December 3rd. His favorite animal is pandas. He has many hobbies, such as listening to music, playing basketball and playing the guitar.
He goes to school at 7:30 a.m. and gets home at 5:30 p.m. He has 7 classes every day, and each class is 45 minutes long.
At home, he has some rules: he must do his homework first after school, he can't use his phone on school days, and has to pack his schoolbag before bed.
【详解】 写作步骤
[第一步:审题立意]
确定文体:记叙文(人物介绍类短文)
明确要点:介绍Eric的基本信息(年龄、生日、喜好)、日常校园生活、家规要求
确定人称:第三人称(he)为主,第一人称(I)引出话题
注意事项:需包含表格中所有信息;词数80词左右;开头已给出;不得出现真实校名和姓名
[第二步:构思布局]
三段式结构:
开头段:承接已给开头,介绍Eric的基本信息与个人喜好
主体段:描述Eric的日常校园生活(作息与课程)
结尾段:介绍Eric的家规,补充人物细节
[第三步:要点展开]
要点一:基本信息与个人喜好
基本信息:13 years old/birthday is on December 3rd
个人喜好:favorite animal is pandas/hobbies: listening to music, playing basketball, playing the guitar
要点二:日常校园生活
作息安排:goes to school at 7:30 a.m./gets home at 5:30 p.m.
课程情况:has 7 classes every day/each class is 45 minutes long
要点三:家规要求
家规 1:must do his homework first after school
家规 2:can’t use his phone on school days
家规 3:has to pack his schoolbag before bed
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