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2026届高三年级4月测试卷
英语
注意事项：
1．答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
例:How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. What does the woman want the man to do
A. Buy a cake mixer.
B. Get the cake mixer back.
C. Take the cake mixer to Mandy.
2. Why does the woman talk to the man
A. To change her refrigerator.
B. To ask for the instructions.
C. To have her refrigerator checked.
3. What problem does the man mention
A. The room is not decorated.
B. There are not enough tables.
C. The furniture delivery is delayed.
4. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Classmates. B. Mother and son. C. Teacher and student.
5. What does the woman suggest
A. Cutting project costs. B. Holding a concert. C. Calling for donations.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. When will Mr. Warren have the strategy meeting tomorrow
A. At 10:00 am. B. At 3:00 pm. C. At 4:30 pm.
7. What does Mr. Warren ask Jane to do
A. Attend a meeting.
B. Prepare meeting materials.
C. Arrange the schedule for tomorrow.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. Why does the man go to France
A. For shopping. B. For business. C. For sightseeing.
9. Where does the man come from
A. Thailand. B. The Netherlands. C. Britain.
10. What can we learn from the conversation
A. The flight is during the day.
B. The woman is good at geography.
C. The man has ever been to the Netherlands.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What does the woman want to ask about
A. A driving test.
B. The car’s condition.
C. Parking tips.
12. What do we know about the car
A. Its brakes are broken.
B. It has a serious accident.
C. Its engine is not good.
13. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Trading a car. B. Parking a car. C. Repairing a car.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. What is the woman’s favorite Chinese kung fu
A. Tai chi. B. Wing Chun. C. Shaolin kung fu.
15. How does the man like Drunken Boxing
A. It is predictable. B. It is graceful. C. It is interesting.
16. What does Chinese kung fu promote according to the man
A. Discipline and respect.
B. Imbalance and adjustment.
C. Self-sacrifice and self-control.
17. What is the speakers’ attitude to Chinese kung fu
A. Appreciative. B. Critical. C. Indifferent.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. What is the main purpose of New York City’s road pricing
A. To ease economic pressure.
B. To decrease pollution.
C. To reduce car use.
19. How much do passenger vehicles pay during peak hours
A. $2. 25. B. $9. C. $11. 25.
20. Why do some people support road pricing
A. It helps businesses grow.
B. It reduces traffic and pollution.
C. It benefits high-income drivers.
第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
With a growing focus on health and well-being, people are increasingly seeking fun and engaging ways to exercise and stay active. This trend has led to the rise of several exciting and innovative sports. Let’s have a look at some of the sports.
Stand-up paddle boarding
This is a sport inspired by surfing. Unlike traditional surfing where you lie on the board and paddle with your hands, stand-up paddle boarding involves standing on a broader, more stable board and using a long paddle to move through waves. Wearing a life jacket and attaching a footrope are crucial for safety.
Land surfing
Land surfing is an exciting sport that gives the thrill of surfing without needing a drop of water. Urban adventurers “surf” down ground hills on smooth, wheeled boards. Make sharp turns in city squares by shifting weight! Popular among young people, it is cheap, eco-friendly, and turns sidewalks into endless summer fun.
Bubble football
Emerging from Europe, bubble football has gained global popularity recently. This lively sport combines traditional soccer thrills with the playful chaos of bumper cars. Players wear transparent, head-to-toe suits on a regular-sized field, enabling safe yet energetic collisions without injury risks. It is a typical sport that requires cooperation among teammates, making it perfect for parties or family days.
Archery tag (攻防箭)
Born in the US, this fast-paced game mixes archery accuracy with ball game action. Teams battle on basketball-court-sized fields using soft plastic arrows and lightweight bows. The game has gained widespread popularity due to its enjoyable, competitive, and safe nature, with no obvious injury risks for players.
21. Which of the following is a water sport
A. Stand-up paddle boarding. B. Land surfing.
C. Bubble football. D. Archery tag.
22. Who would land surfing attract most
A. Teenagers keen on indoor sports.
B. Teenagers keen on outdoor activities.
C. Seniors fond of climbing ground hills.
D. Seniors fond of wandering in city squares.
23. What do bubble football and archery tag have in common
A. They are ball sports. B. They are team sports.
C. They are confirmed as risky sports. D. They are designed as family sports.
B
At 27, as a new mother, I had been wrestling with stress and worry, which led me to explore acupuncture (针灸). A friend’s firm recommendation inspired me to book my first session. I chose Ora, a clinic I had visited during its grand opening in 2020, drawn to its environment and knowledgeable staff. Though the cost — $130 for an initial 65-minute session — was high, I viewed it as an investment in my well-being.
Before the appointment, I researched how to prepare: eating a meal to stabilize blood sugar and avoiding medicine to ensure relaxation. Upon arriving at Ora, I was struck by the calming atmosphere. After a brief consultation with my acupuncturist, Sian James, who evaluated my lifestyle and health concerns, I changed into a towel and lay down. James checked my tongue, noting its red tip as a sign of stress, and explained how it guided her needle placement.
She inserted 10-13 thin needles into my forehead, wrists, chest, knees, and feet. The slight pain was tolerable, and she explained that the selected points were targeted to stimulate my nervous system and release biochemicals to address stress. Once the needles were in place, I rested for 20-25 minutes in a dimly lit room with calming music. Initially tense, I eventually relaxed, drifting into a quiet state — deeply calm yet aware of my surroundings.
When James removed the needles, I felt a profound sense of quiet that lasted the entire day. She advised avoiding tiring activities to maintain the effects. While the calmness faded by Monday morning, the experience was impactful. Acupuncture forced me to pause, breathe, and disconnect from life’s pressure.
Though not a cure-all, acupuncture is a valuable tool for managing stress. As a person who struggled to unwind, I found it incredibly effective, and now, I plan to incorporate it into my routine. It’s a reminder to prioritize self-care. Otherwise, I couldn’t handle my busy work and daily life.
24. Why did the author decide to explore acupuncture
A. Because of financial investment. B. Because of a sports injury.
C. Because of a firm’s recommendation. D. Because of emotional anxiety.
25. What can be inferred about the acupuncturist’s treatment approach
A. It relied on surroundings over needles.
B. It used finger pressure instead of needles.
C. It combined examination with assessment.
D. It prioritized observation over communication.
26. How did the author feel after having acupuncture
A. Peaceful. B. Cautious. C. Pressured. D. Tired.
27. What does the author learn from her experience
A. Rome wasn’t built in a day.
B. Busy hands make a happy heart.
C. You can’t pour from an empty cup.
D. A calm sea does not make a skilled sailor.
C
The day when Mount St. Helens erupted in 1980 is forever remembered by people around the world. A powerful flow of lava (熔岩) destroyed almost all living things within miles.
After the ash and rocks cooled down, scientists suggested that gophers (囊地鼠), by digging and turning over the soil, could bring helpful bacteria and fungi (真菌) to the surface, possibly helping nature recover. Two years after the eruption, they decided to test this idea. In the experiment, scientists placed gophers on parts of the damaged mountain for just 24 hours.
Allen, a professor of plant pathology, and his colleague flew by helicopter to an area where the lava had turned the ground into broken pieces of porous rock. At that time, only about a dozen plants had managed to grow there. A few seeds had been brought by birds, but the young plants struggled to survive. After scientists dropped a few local gophers onto two pieces of land for a day, the area soon became full of new life again. Six years after the experiment, 40,000 plants were growing well on the gopher-treated land. The land that had not been touched remained mostly empty. More than 40 years later, the team studied the area and found they had made a lasting difference. “Land with past gopher activity had more different types of bacteria and fungi than the surrounding old forests,” the team explained.
Although the gophers played an unusual and important role, the real heroes of the recovery were the fungi. After the eruption, scientists worried that nearby pine and spruce forests would take a long time to recover, because the ash covered their needles and caused them to fall off. However, this did not happen, again, thanks to fungi. “These trees have their own fungi that took in nutrients from the fallen needles and helped them grow back quickly,” said Emma Aronson, a co-author of the study. “The trees came back almost immediately in some places. They didn’t all die as everyone had thought.”
28. What do we know about the 1980 Mount St. Helens eruption
A. It turned the ground into a big rock.
B. It killed all living things within miles.
C. It impressed people worldwide deeply.
D. It made scientists test gophers at once.
29. What result did the gopher experiment bring
A. More fungi died in the treated land.
B. More plants grew on the tested land.
C. Birds brought fewer seeds to the area.
D. Fungi helped turn over damaged lands.
30. What can we infer from paragraph 4
A. Pine trees recovered very slowly. B. Ash cut off trees’ nutrient supply.
C. Scientists predicted fast tree growth. D. Fungi aided forests’ recovery greatly.
31. What is the main idea of the text
A. Small helpers speed ecosystem recovery up.
B. Fungi are the heroes of forest protection.
C. Gophers save dying plants in old forests.
D. Volcanic eruption harmed local wildlife.
D
When advertising leaders call themselves “cockroaches (蟑螂) ”, it is no self-criticism. It means that they have an extraordinary ability to survive great changes. Copywriters adjusted to radio in the 1920s; artists accepted TV in the 1950s; agencies survived the 2000s shift to online ads. Facing artificial intelligence (AI) — the most serious change — they gathered confidently at their annual Cannes meeting. As one of the fields most greatly influenced by AI, advertising offers a preview of how the technology will reshape other industries.
The gap between human ad workers and AI chatbots is narrower than imagined. Creative work was once thought safe from automation — large language models (LLMs) value predictability more than creativity. Yet while truly creative ads like attaching step-counters to chickens to promote free-range eggs are still made by humans, leading technology companies now offer AI tools that produce acceptable videos or rewrite ad copy. However, with large amounts of money spent on ads yearly, most goes to common campaigns. The claim that AI will handle 95% of marketing work and that humans may only keep the 5% most creative tasks is more a warning than an exaggeration (夸张).
Big companies gain most from AI, which goes against the idea that AI will make skills and intelligence available to all. Small businesses benefit — they can now make TV-quality ads for thousands instead of millions — but some big tech firms control half the global ad market. AI needs expensive computing power and large data sets, resources only the rich can get. Unlike human intelligence, which is widely spread, AI can be bought. Instead of making the competition fair, AI lets the wealthy hoard competitive advantages.
AI’s effects are hard to predict. Advertisers are moving budgets from TV to simple outdoor billboards — AI now uses big data to prove if people who saw the billboard bought the product, turning guesses into clear results. Traditional public relations is another unexpected winner: As consumers use chatbots more, brands must make LLMs speak well of them. The best way is to influence the news sources LLMs depend on. In the AI age, offline communication may work better than high-tech “search-engine optimization”. Though advertising has special survival skills, its AI experience shows what’s coming for all businesses.
32. What does the example of the “step-counter chicken campaign” mainly show
A. The wide use of creative marketing strategies.
B. The rapid development of AI advertising tools.
C. AI’s inability to finish common advertising tasks. D. Humans’ unique advantage in creative advertising.
33. What does the underlined word “hoard” in paragraph 3 probably mean
A. Keep. B. Lose. C. Share. D. Exchange.
34. What mainly leads to the growing popularity of outdoor billboards
A. Their stronger visual attraction than TV ads.
B. AI’s ability to measure their effects accurately.
C. Their lower cost than high-tech online campaigns.
D. Consumers’ growing preference for offline advertising.
35. Which can be a suitable title for the text
A. AI: A Threat to Advertising Leaders
B. Big Companies: Winners of AI Revolution
C. AI and Advertising: Changes and Lessons
D. “Cockroaches” in AI Ads: A Way to Survive
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Everyone can feel their life is going nowhere and fast. Do you think that your life is stagnating (停滞的) Have you reached a plateau where things are OK, but not very exciting Do you feel that is not good enough 36 .
Treat yourself
37 . Make your first task a treat that you’ve long been looking forward to. Don’t make excuses about not having time or money. Treats can be free, and you can always make time. It’s not hard to organize some time in your day if you want to.
Take up a hobby
When you lead a boring life, it is great to have something to think about that takes you into another world. Hobbies are brilliant for giving you something different to do that you enjoy. 38 . Maybe crafting or painting will appeal to you as more creative hobbies.
Learn a skill
Learning a new skill is one of the most satisfying things you can do. 39 . A great way is to join a class. Not only will you learn, but you will make new friends. Whether it’s learning a foreign language or playing a musical instrument, there may be a class near your home.
40
Do you assume the worst will happen in any situation Being negative damages your quality of life. Start being an optimist. It will change the way you think and bring greater happiness. “Can do” is a fantastic motto for life. Why not buy a T-shirt with “YES I CAN” written on the front
A. Save up for something special
B. Grow a positive thinking habit
C. It doesn’t matter if it’s a meal out, or a visit to a theater
D. If you love to read, devote time to just sitting with a book
E. It is proved that learning something new is tiring and boring
F. You will feel a sense of achievement that may boost your self-image
G. Follow the list of things to do now to make your life better and happier
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I had just picked up my son’s routine fever medicine on Monday, eager to drive home hurriedly. Suddenly, some acute discomfort swept over me, 41 a physical abnormality. It was a severe sudden 42 caused by an unexpected cardiovascular (心血管的) disorder, striking without warning and catching me 43 .
It was a (n) 44 moment. My face ached sharply and my eyes almost squeezed shut in my car. Struggling to breathe, I feared 45 before caring for my son. I took my son and hurried into the nearby drugstore to buy some medicine, where clerks, Sam and Emily, quickly got 46 .
They stayed rooted by my side as they found my 47 of illness, their calm behavior easing my panic. One comforted my frightened son, while the other 48 dialed emergency services to ensure the medical staff were 49 , coordinating every step to obtain precious time for my survival.
“Don’t be afraid,” Sam told me, while waiting for the ambulance. “I think you came in at just the 50 time when there weren’t many people to serve,” he added. Their selfless response was more than luck-it was truly 51 . At that critical time, I kept the thought of my son in my mind, desperate to 52 and watch him grow up.
Luckily, I recovered at last. Then I went to the drugstore to express my sincere 53 to Sam and Emily, who not only pulled me back from danger but also 54 to my son. Yet they replied modestly, “It’s nothing at all.” They assured me that helping a 55 was simply their duty.
41. A. treating B. reducing C. suggesting D. controlling
42. A. disease B. loss C. confusion D. rejection
43. A. within reach B. off guard C. at ease D. on duty
44. A. puzzling B. violent C. adventurous D. horrible
45. A. waking B. refusing C. collapsing D. interacting
46. A. stuck B. caught C. paid D. involved
47. A. signs B. kinds C. causes D. strategies
48. A. frequently B. instantly C. hesitantly D. scarcely
49. A. appointed B. contacted C. dismissed D. warned
50. A. right B. busy C. permanent D. traditional
51. A. time-saving B. life-saving C. cost-saving D. labor-saving
52. A. come up B. get across C. pull through D. take over
53. A. apology B. regret C. concern D. gratitude
54. A. attended B. looked C. turned D. objected
55. A. clerk B. family C. customer D. watcher
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The value of imports and exports of Northwest China’s Xinjiang Uygur Autonomous Region increased from 156. 91 billion yuan in 2021 to 434. 16 billion yuan in 2024, marking an average annual growth rate of 40 percent, as 56 (report) by the region’s department of commerce. From January to August, Xinjiang’s imports and exports reached 356. 31 billion yuan, 57 is 21. 9 percentage points higher than the national growth rate.
Since 58 (it) launch in November 2023, the China (Xinjiang) Pilot Free Trade Zone has helped establish more than 17,000 enterprises. Xinjiang’s commercial economy is showing 59 steady upward trend in recent years. So far, notable achievements 60 (make) in boosting domestic demand, 61 (rapid) expanding foreign trade, attracting investment, and fostering foreign economic and trade cooperation.
A leader of Xinjiang’s commerce department said that since 2021, the region has introduced 20 rounds of policy 62 (measure) aimed at ensuring steady and high-quality growth in foreign trade, accelerating the development of new forms and models of foreign trade, expanding cross-border e-commerce, and enhancing 63 (finance) support for the market.
Xinjiang has more than 40 international warehouses for cross-border e-commerce in 10 countries, such as Kazakhstan and Kyrgyzstan. In 2024, exports through market procurement (采购) trade reached 2. 03 billion yuan, accounting 64 a nearly fourfold increase. The region, 65 (seek) new partners in the markets of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations, the Middle East, and Africa, is embracing broader development prospects.
第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是李华，五一期间，你想邀请外教Sarah去附近乡村采摘野菜。请你给她写一封邮件，内容包括：
（1）写信目的；
（2）活动安排。
注意：
（1）写作词数应为80个左右；
（2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Sarah, Yours, Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
As a college student majoring in automotive repair, I joined our department’s community service program, which became the most meaningful experience in my college life.
We put down our textbooks and picked up the tools in the campus auto workshop, putting what we’d learned about engines and circuits into practical use. Guided by our teachers, we repaired cars for teachers and nearby people at low prices, and we also restored donated cars for single mothers with transportation troubles. This program not only improved our skills but also taught us to use what we’d learned to help people around us.
We spent all our spare time on this repair work, checking every small detail. We wiped off oil, replaced broken parts, and tested cars again and again to make sure they were safe and dependable. Our teacher, Mr Black, always told us that the mothers were truly grateful and that many of them said they would find a way to pay back our kindness. “They treasure your help more than you can imagine,” he added with a smile. We just kept working quietly, never thinking their words would become a real surprise later.
Recently, our team managed to turn an old donated car into a brand new one. It was specially prepared for Mary, a single mother raising two little children. We heard that she walked several miles every day to send her kids to the care center and then went to her part-time job, even on rainy and snowy days. We cleaned the car fully, tidied the seats nicely, put a small toy in the back for her kids, and waited for her arrival eagerly.
The big day finally arrived. We stood quietly beside the fully repaired car, holding clean rags in our hands, feeling excited. We knew our efforts paid off, and we were looking forward to seeing Mary’s smile. However, we had no idea that an even warmer surprise was waiting for us just around the corner.
注意：
（1）续写词数应为150个左右；
（2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Mary, with her two kids, finally walked into the workshop to accept her car. Sure enough, Mary and other grateful mothers came to repay our kindness with gifts.
2026届高三年级4月测试卷
英语参考答案
听力部分录音材料
听力部分。该部分分为第一、第二两节。
注意：回答听力部分时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到答题卡上。
停顿00'10''
现在是听力试音时间。
M: Hello. International Friends Club. Can I help you
W: Oh, hello. I read about your club in the paper today and I thought I’d phone to find out a bit more.
M: Yes, certainly. Well, we are a sort of social club for people from different countries. It’s quite a new club — we have about 50 members at the moment, but we are growing all the time.
W: That sounds interesting. I’m British actually, and I came to Washington about three months ago. I’m looking for ways to meet people. Er, what kinds of events do you organize
M: Well, we have social get-togethers, and sports events, and we also have language evenings.
W: Could you tell me something about the language evenings
M: Yes. Every day except Thursday we have a language evening. People can come and practice their languages — you know, over a drink or something. We have different languages on different evenings. Monday — Spanish; Tuesday — Italian; Wednesday —German; and Friday — French. On Thursday we usually have a meal in a restaurant for anyone who wants to come.
W: Well, that sounds great. I really need to practice my French.
M: OK. Well, if you can just give me your name and address, I’ll send you the form and some more information. If you join now, you can have the first month free.
试音到此结束。
听力考试正式开始。
停顿00'10''
请看听力部分第一节。
第一节
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
停顿00'02''
例如：现在你有5秒钟的时间看试卷上的例题。
停顿00'05''
你将听到以下内容：
M: Excuse me. Can you tell me how much the shirt is
W: Yes, it’s nine fifteen.
停顿00'02''
你将有5秒钟的时间将正确答案标在试卷上。
停顿00'05''
衬衫的价格为9镑15便士，所以你选择C项，并将其标在试卷上。
现在，你有5秒钟的时间阅读第1小题的有关内容。
停顿00'05''
(Text 1)
W: Mandy told me she needed to borrow this cake mixer. Would you mind taking it to her
M: No problem. As soon as I finish my work in hand, I will do it.
(Text 2)
M: This is Joe. May I help you
W: Something is wrong with the refrigerator I bought yesterday.
M: Did you read the instructions
W: Of course. Could you please send someone to take a look
(Text 3)
W: Hi, Jim. Is the hotel ready for this evening’s awards dinner
M: Actually, the room has been set up, but we’re a few tables short.
W: Oh, I’ve already taken care of that. The furniture will be delivered in an hour.
(Text 4)
W: What do you think of the test
M: It had challenges. But generally, everything was covered in the textbook.
W: You sound confident. I spent all of last week reviewing the book and felt like I wasted my time.
(Text 5)
M: I’m sad to say that our club has run out of funds for this year.
W: We can organize more fundraising projects. Why don’t we put up a concert
M: Good idea. You can count me in to help out.
第一节到此结束。
第二节
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。现在，你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。
(Text 6)
W: Good afternoon, Mr. Warren. I want to brief you on tomorrow’s schedule.
M: OK. Please go ahead.
W: In the morning, you will have a strategy meeting with the marketing team at 10:00. Then, you will have lunch with the client Ms. Carey at noon.
M: What about the afternoon
W: There will be a conference call with the international partners at 3:00, followed by a budget review meeting at 4:30. I’ve arranged everything including your materials.
M: Thank you, Jane. Please ensure all the documents are prepared for the meetings.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。现在，你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
(Text 7)
M: Hey, I guess it’s your book. It dropped right at my foot.
W: Oh, yeah. Thank you. I almost fell asleep. The night flight can be really tiring. I’m Anna. Nice to meet you.
M: Nice to meet you, too. I’m Chandler. Are you flying to France for travel
W: Yes. I’ll travel with my friends. And you
M: Just for work. You know, the usual work-related trip.
W: I see. You look like an Asian. Are you from Thailand
M: You’re half-right. My mother is Thai, but I’m from London. Where are you from
W: I’m from Amsterdam.
M: Ah, Amsterdam. It is the capital of the Netherlands.
W: That’s right. Have you been to the Netherlands
M: Yes, I was there for traveling.
听下面一段对话，回答第11至第13三个小题。现在，你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
(Text 8)
W: Hello, I’m Jessica James. You must be Dylan Warren.
M: Yes. Glad to meet you!
W: Glad to meet you, too. Let’s get down to business. How old is your car
M: Four years old. It has power windows, automatic locks, air conditioning, and new tires.
W: I see. Well, was that scratch from a car accident
M: No, I got it when parking.
W: Can I take a test drive
M: Sure.
W: Okay... The brakes are OK. However, the engine doesn’t sound good. Anyway, what’s your asking price
M: I think $6,500 would be good.
W: Come on. There is a scratch. And I’m not sure if it had a serious accident. Let’s make a deal — $6,000, okay
M: I’m sorry I can’t accept that.
听下面一段对话，回答第14至第17四个小题。现在，你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。
(Text 9)
W: Aaron, do you know anything about Chinese kung fu
M: Absolutely! There’s so much diversity in Chinese kung fu. Which one do you like best
W: I love tai chi best for its graceful movements and healthy benefits. How about you
M: It’s hard to pick just one for me. I love Shaolin kung fu. It’s so powerful and dynamic.
And I’m into Wing Chun. Its focus on efficiency is impressive. Besides, Drunken Boxing is also attractive for me. The appeal lies in its uniquely entertaining combination of smooth, unpredictable movements and interesting elements.
W: So how do you view the importance of Chinese kung fu
M: Well, apart from self-defense, they are deeply rooted in Chinese culture, promoting discipline and respect. Additionally, they serve as a means of self-cultivation and mental focus.
W: Yeah, and they also reflect Chinese philosophy. The yin yang concept is evident in the balance between offense and defense.
听下面一段独白，回答第18至第20三个小题。现在，你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
(Text 10)
W: New York City’s road pricing is the first of its kind in the US. So, what is road pricing Well, it’s a fee charged per car with the goal of discouraging driving. So as of January 5th, driving into Manhattan got even pricier. Passenger vehicles now pay $9 during peak hours and 2. 25 during off-peak hours overnight to enter Manhattan each day. Road pricing has been a debated topic concept there for decades as early as the 1950s. Those in favor of road pricing say it would reduce traffic in one of the world’s busiest areas, while also reducing pollution and providing a source of income for city projects. On the other hand, critics are saying that it will direct business away from this city, and it’s an unnecessary burden on those who travel to and from work by car every day.
第二节到此结束。
现在，你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
听力部分到此结束。
试题答案
听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1 — 5 CCBAB 6 — 10 ABBCC 11 — 15 BCAAC 16 — 20 AACBB
阅读（共20小题；每小题2.5分，满分50分）
21 — 23 ABB 24 — 27 DCAC 28 — 31 CBDA 32 — 35 DABC
36 — 40 GCDFB
七选五：文章给出了应对因生活停滞而感到乏味的问题的几条建议。
36. G 37. C 38. D 39. F 40. B
语言运用第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41 — 45 CABDC 46 — 50 DABBA 51 — 55 BCDAC
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. reported 57. which 58. its 59. a 60. have been made
61. rapidly 62. measures 63. financial 64. for 65. seeking
语法填空
56. reported 57. which 58. its 59. a 60. have been made
61. rapidly 62. measures 63. financial 64. for 65. seeking
评分原则：
1．铅笔作答不给分。
2．有拼写或大小写错误的作答不给分。
3．所填词汇正确，但有形式错误的不给分。
4．英式、美式拼写均可给分。
5．除所列答案外，若试评过程中发现其他可接受答案，经评卷专家组讨论确认后也可给分。
写作：
第一节（满分15分）
参考范文：
Dear Sarah,
I’m writing to invite you to pick wild vegetables in a nearby village during the May Day holiday, which is a popular spring activity in Chinese countryside.
We will go there by bike early at 8 am on May 1st, as the village is not far from our school. Local farmers will show us how to pick safe and tasty wild greens. After that, we will return to my home, where my mom will cook delicious dishes with the vegetables we pick. It will be a wonderful chance to enjoy fresh food and beautiful scenery.
I would be delighted if you could join me. Looking forward to your reply.
Yours,
Li Hua
一、评分原则
1．本题总分为15分，按五个档次进行评分。
2．评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性。
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4．评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于60个的，酌情扣分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（13—15分）
——覆盖了所有内容要点，表述清楚、合理。
——使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。
——有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（10—12分）
——覆盖了所有内容要点，表述比较清楚、合理。
——使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档（7—9分）
——覆盖了大部分内容要点，有个别地方表述不够清楚、合理。
——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
——基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（4—6分）
——遗漏或未清楚表述一些内容要点，或一些内容与写作目的不相关。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
——几乎不能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。未能达到预期的写作目的。
第一档（1—3分）
——遗漏或未清楚表述大部分内容要点，或大部分内容与写作目的不相关。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。完全未达到预期的写作目的。
零分
——未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容与题目要求完全不相关。
第二节（满分25分）
参考范文：
Mary, with her two kids, finally walked into the workshop to accept her car. They held a bunch of fresh wildflowers and smiled at us. At the sight of the shiny blue car that looked brand new, she was moved, with tears of joy running down her face. She hugged each of us tightly, saying that the car would end her tiring daily walks and help her support her family well. “I can’t thank you enough. This changes everything for my kids and me,” Mary said softly. She added excitedly that she and other mothers we had helped were preparing a surprise for us.
Sure enough, Mary and other grateful mothers came to repay our kindness with gifts. They carefully planned a surprise celebration, bringing homemade cookies, warm milk tea, and handwritten thank-you cards with sincere words. What moved us most was that they raised money together to buy advanced check tools for our auto lab, solving the shortage of equipment we had been facing. When they walked in with big smiles, we were covered in oil and totally shocked. This unexpected kindness made us realize that love is a cycle, and our selfless help had finally turned into more touching warmth.
一、评分原则
1．本题总分为25分，按五个档次进行评分。
2．评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）创造内容的质量，续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4．评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于120个的，酌情扣分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（21—25分）
——创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。
——使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。
——有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
第四档（16—20分）
——创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高。
——使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档（11—15分）
——创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。
——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
——基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档（6—10分）
——内容或逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文情境有一定程度脱节。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
——未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第一档（1—5分）
——内容或逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节。
——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
零分
——未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。

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