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河南省信阳市普通高中2025-2026学年高二下学期期中教学质量检测英语试卷
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the man want to borrow
A. A textbook. B. A notebook. C. A dictionary.
2. Where will the woman go first
A. To the bank. B. To the post office. C. To the supermarket.
3. Why does the man refuse the coffee
A. He dislikes the taste. B. He is too nervous. C. He can’t sleep well.
4. How will the speakers go to the station
A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. By subway.
5. When will the meeting begin
A. At 2:15 pm. B. At 2:45 pm. C. At 2:30 pm.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。
6. How was the science competition
A. Quite easy. B. Very difficult. C. Rather boring.
7. What did the man learn from it
A. The value of teamwork. B. The courage to speak up. C. the skill of designing.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What does the man invite Lisa to do
A. Enjoy a concert. B. Visit the city hall. C. Watch a painting show.
9. What will Lisa do this Sunday evening
A. Draw some pictures. B. Help with an art show. C. Meet some collectors.
10. What does the man think of Lisa’s cousin
A. She is creative and polite. B. She is talented and diligent. C. She is easy-going and honest.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Ways to stay calm.
B. Ways to reduce exam stress.
C. Ways to avoid making mistakes.
12. Why does the man feel nervous before exams
A. He lacks sleep. B. He fears bad grades. C. He has no clear plan.
13. What does the woman advise the man to do
A. Study late at night. B. Keep his study plan secret. C. Do some outdoor exercise.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14. What does Mrs. Turner expect the students to do in class
A. Listen to speeches quietly. B. Focus only on note-taking. C. Take an active part in sharing.
15. What takes up the largest part of the final grade
A. Daily performance. B. The mid-term assignment. C. The final writing portfolio.
16. What will Mrs. Turner do next
A. Explain the class rules. B. Show some good writings. C. Collect the weekly homework.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Why does the speaker give the talk
A. To introduce a new book. B. To start a cultural activity. C. To introduce a guest lecturer.
18. What did Dr. Wilson do before teaching
A. He studied at Stanford University.
B. He worked as a translator.
C. He did research in Asia.
19. When did Dr. Wilson start his research on communication styles
A. In 2010. B. In 2020. C. In 2000.
20. What is the purpose of Dr. Wilson’s book
A. To help people understand cultural differences.
B. To teach people how to learn foreign languages.
C. To introduce different cultural customs and traditions.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Theodore Roosevelt National Park, which is named for President Theodore Roosevelt, features more than 70,000 acres of North Dakota Badlands. It’s a place that feels wide-open and quiet, shaped by wind, water, and time.
Best times to visit Theodore Roosevelt National Park
The park is open to visitors year-round, though the most popular time to visit is between spring and fall. Summer draws the biggest crowds, thanks to its warm weather and bright, sunny days. However, spring and early summer are ideal for birdwatching, when activity is at its highest. Fall brings brisk weather and stunning foliage, making it a perfect time for hiking or camping. On the other hand, winter brings a quieter kind of beauty. Snowfall transforms the landscape into a peaceful setting and creates opportunities for skiing within the park.
What else you need to know
Entrance to the park costs $ 30 per vehicle and is valid for seven days. For those planning to visit multiple times in a year, the annual pass is $ 55. There’s also the America the Beautiful Pass, which costs $ 80 and grants entry to all participating national parks, making it an ideal choice for travelers planning to explore several parks throughout the year. There is no accommodations within Theodore Roosevelt National Park itself, but visitors can find hotels in nearby towns like Medora and Watford City. Besides, the park has two campgrounds for visitors.
Are pets allowed Pets are welcome in the park, but there are rules to keep both them and visitors safe. Dogs must be on a leash no longer than six feet and are not allowed on the trails. They are only permitted on paved surfaces, such as sidewalks, roads, and parking areas.
21. When is the best time for birdwatching
A. Spring and early summer. B. Summer and fall.
C. Late fall and early winter. D. Winter and spring.
22. Which of the following is TRUE
A. Visitors can find free accommodations in nearby towns.
B. A $ 30 entrance ticket is for a single visitor and lasts a week.
C. There are three campgrounds provided for visitors in the park.
D. The $ 55 annual pass allows repeated visits to the park in a year.
23. What rule must visitors follow when taking pets to the park
A. Pets can walk freely on all hiking trails.
B. Dogs should be on a leash up to six feet long.
C. Pets are not allowed in the parking areas.
D. Dogs can only walk on unpaved surfaces.
B
Born in Wingham, Ontario, in 1931, Alice Munro grew up in a rural community that later became the setting for many of her stories. Her childhood was marked by her father’s work as a fox farmer and her mother’s struggle with Parkinson’s disease, experiences that shaped her understanding of life’s difficulties.
In 1951, Alice received a scholarship to study at the University of Western Ontario. However, financial problems forced her to leave college shortly after she married James Munro. During these busy years as a housewife and bookstore owner, Alice continued writing whenever she could. In 1968, Munro published her first collection, Dance of the Happy Shades, which won the Governor General’s Literary Award, Canada’s highest literary honor. This success introduced readers to her unique style: detailed observations of ordinary life mixed with deep emotional understanding.
Over the following decades, she continued to write about women, relationships, and small-town life in Canada. Her stories often moved between past and present, exploring themes of love, loss, and identity. She published several important collections, including Who Do You Think You Are (1978) and The Progress of Love (1986), both of which won Governor General’s Literary Awards, earning her comparisons to the Russian writer Chekhov for psychological depth. Her story “The Bear Came Over the Mountain” was adapted into the film Away from Her (2006), bringing her work to wider audiences. In 2009, she received the Man Booker International Prize for her lifetime achievement. Her biggest honor came in 2013, when she won the Nobel Prize in Literature, becoming the first Canadian woman to receive this award. The Swedish Academy praised her as the “master of the contemporary short story.” Alice Munro passed away in 2024, leaving behind thirteen collections that changed the short story forever.
24. How did Alice Munro’s childhood experiences influence her writing
A. By setting a rural community.
B. By improving her education.
C. By shaping her personalities.
D. By shaping her understanding of life’s difficulties.
25. What happened after Munro published Dance of the Happy Shades
A. She married with James Munro.
B. She won Canada’s highest literary award.
C. She demonstrated her unique writing skills.
D. She worked as a mother and bookstore owner.
26. Why is Chekhov mentioned in Paragraph 3
A. To show Munro’s educational background of psychology.
B. To highlight Munro’s writing style of psychological insight.
C. To explore Munro’s writing theme of love and relationships.
D. To help Munro receive Governor General’s Literary Awards.
27. What does the text mainly talk about
A. A Canadian woman writer. B. A writing course.
C. A collection of short stories. D. A literary award.
C
Artificial intelligence is changing the way people connect with each other. While tools like ChatGPT help with daily tasks, a new type of AI is becoming popular — AI companion apps designed to provide friendship and emotional support.
According to TechCrunch, a technology news site, the number of AI companion apps surged by 700% between 2022 and mid-2025. These apps, such as Replika and Character. AI, now attract millions of users worldwide. Character. AI alone has 20 million monthly users, with more than half under the age of 24. “It’s been a norm for a while for Replika users to ‘marry’ their AI companion in virtual weddings to which they invite friends and colleagues,” said Rachel Wood, PhD, a cyberpsychology researcher also an adviser on the ethical design of AI systems.
Why do people turn to AI for companionship Research shows two main reasons: therapy and companionship. A recent survey found that nearly half of adults with mental health conditions used AI tools for emotional support. When people feel lonely or stressed, they may develop strong connections with AI chatbots that offer encouragement and understanding.
Studies suggest that AI companions can help reduce loneliness. Researchers at Harvard Business School discovered that talking to an AI companion reduced loneliness as effectively as talking to a real person. Users reported feeling “heard” and respected during these conversations. Additionally, AI companions can serve as safe spaces for practicing social skills, especially for those who find real-life interactions challenging.
However, experts remind us that these tools require careful design and responsible use. Developers are working to improve voice interactions and create more natural conversation styles. While AI companions offer benefits, psychologists continue studying their long-term effects on human relationships and mental health. As technology advances, AI companions will likely become more common in daily life. Understanding both their advantages and potential risks will help users make informed decisions about these digital relationships.
28. What is the main feature of AI companion apps compared with ChatGPT
A. They attract more users worldwide.
B. They are designed to build relationships.
C. They help with daily tasks as useful tools.
D. They are affected by their users’ emotions.
29. What can the underlined word “surged” in Paragraph 2 be replaced by
A. Impacted. B. Deduced. C. Increased. D. Reduced.
30. Which person in the following tends to use AI companion apps
A. An old man who enjoys his retired life.
B. A white-collared female who lives alone.
C. A high school student with his big family.
D. An outgoing teenager with lots of friends.
31. What is the author’s attitude toward AI companions
A. Objective. B. Disapproving. C. Supportive. D. Indifferent.
D
In the aftermath of a stroke (中风), people are often left confused by what others are trying to tell them. And a third of stroke survivors will develop aphasia, a disorder that makes it harder to understand and produce written and spoken language, leading to daily challenges and social isolation.
A study by researchers from Stanford University and KU Leuven, published in January 2026, investigated this issue. As Jill Kries, the lead author, explained: “We were interested to see whether people with a language disorder after stroke would mix up the order of different sounds when they hear speech, or whether it would be some other mechanism that goes wrong.”
During the study, 63 people — 39 of whom had post-stroke aphasia — listened to a story while the researchers tracked electrical activity in their brains with an electroencephalogram (EEG). Later, the team used machine learning to identify how the brain responded to individual speech sounds.
They were surprised to find that people with aphasia not only stopped processing sounds sooner than others but also showed less electrical activity in the parts of their brains associated with language processing. Most significantly, they did not take additional time to process “ambiguous” sounds. For example, the sound “m” starts many words, providing little initial information. Healthy brains spend more time on such sounds to predict the correct word, but brains with aphasia did not.
The findings suggest that, rather than mixing up the order of sounds they hear, as Kries had assumed, people with aphasia may simply stop processing sounds too soon, before they can figure out what word they’re hearing. This discovery could lead to better diagnostic tools to explain exactly how aphasia disrupts an individual’s language processing.
The team is now expanding its work, conducting similar experiments with children who have dyslexia, epilepsy, or autism — conditions also linked to language difficulties. “Language is affected in many neurological disorders,” said Kries. “Hopefully, we can find something that will help more than one group of people.”
32. What was the researchers’ initial theory about aphasia
A. Slower overall speed in all cognitive processing tasks.
B. A complete loss of hearing ability for specific sounds.
C. A malfunction in the brain’s short-term memory storage.
D. An inability to correctly order the sequence of sounds they hear.
33. How was the brain activity data gathered from the participants during the experiment
A. By analyzing their spoken retelling of the story.
B. Via MRI scans performed before and after the story.
C. Through the use of EEG while they listened to a narrative.
D. By assessing their language comprehension through tests after listening.
34. According to Jill Kries, why is the team expanding their work to children with other conditions
A. To prove that aphasia has a different cause in children.
B. To develop separate treatment tools for each specific disorder.
C. To replace current diagnostic methods for dyslexia and autism.
D. To identify a common underlying mechanism that could benefit multiple groups.
35. What is the main idea of the passage
A. The social and emotional challenges faced by people suffering from aphasia.
B. The development of a machine learning tool for diagnosing language disorders.
C. A new discovery about how brains with aphasia process speech sounds differently.
D. A comparison between stroke survivors and healthy individuals in daily communication.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Starting a jogging routine can seem challenging, but with the right approach, it can become an enjoyable and sustainable habit. 36. ______ Here are some key steps to begin your journey safely and effectively.
37. ______ To avoid getting hurt when starting a new exercise plan, wear comfortable shoes that support your foot size, and walking style — ask a running store for help to find the right pair of sneakers. Softer ground like grass or running tracks, will cause less impact on joints and muscles than hard concrete. If you have pre-existing health conditions, consult a physician to ensure jogging is safe for you.
Don’t forget to warm up and cool down. Harvard Health says proper stretching before and after aerobic (有氧的) exercise makes your joints and muscles more flexible, increases your movement range and prevents injury from exercise. Spend 2 minutes doing stretching exercises for your knees, thighs, hips and other key parts before jogging, then walk slowly for 5 minutes to cool down. 38. ______
Start with walk-jog intervals instead of nonstop jogging. Walk for 3-5 minutes first, then jog for the same time, and repeat until you finish 20 minutes. 39. ______ Research shows this mild way of exercising helps you stick to it more easily than intense workouts.
Increase the workload slowly over time. Only push harder or go farther when your body feels ready, not under pressure — overdoing it early can overload and damage muscles. Judge progress by your mood and energy, not numbers like speed or distance.
40. ______ Every small step forward will improve your heart health, mental strength and overall well-being.
A. Prioritize both your comfort and safety.
B. This keeps your muscles loose and joints smooth.
C. Push yourself as hard as possible to make quick progress.
D. Gradually make your jogging time longer as your endurance gets better.
E. The most effective jogging routine is one you can keep long with key points in mind.
F. Investing in professional running gear can greatly boost your performance and motivation.
G. Every small, consistent effort you make will benefit your heart and overall well-being in the long run.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Since age 4, Santangelo has been obsessed with soccer. Growing up in an athletic household, Santangelo has worn her cleats for as long as she can remember. She describes herself as an uplifting, reliable, and 41 soul.
Santangelo wanted to play soccer at the collegiate level. However, she went to an 42 ‘bad at soccer’ high school, so she never got many 43 to play college soccer. Her father, one of her biggest 44 , enrolled her in soccer camps to help her get her name out.
Santangelo felt uneasy during the application process and even was 45 by the New York University soccer coach. By this point, she had received countless 46 and began to accept her dream might not come true.
All that changed when her father insisted she 47 one more school. 48 , her last attempt turned fruitful when she got a spot on the URochester women’s soccer team.
After arriving in Rochester, she faced new challenge and was moved from midfield to the attack role — a 49 forcing her to adapt quickly. Earning minutes as a starting player brought opportunity but also 50 . “I pushed myself a little too far sometimes,” she recalled. Yet Santangelo lives for the pressure, it means 51 for her, not stress. “when you are about to play, you get the energy up, it’s an 52 feeling.”
Santangelo also combined her 53 for soccer with her journalism ambition and was a warm mentor to teammates. Her 54 reminds us that staying true to our passions and embracing challenges with a smile is the 55 to a meaningful life.
41. A. shy B. lazy C. gentle D. competitive
42. A. equal B. excellent C. ordinary D. outstanding
43. A. offers B. gifts C. tasks D. prizes
44. A. coaches B. teachers C. doctors D. supporters
45. A. helped B. ignored C. praised D. guided
46. A. gifts B. messages C. rejections D. invitations
47. A. show off B. give up C. try out for D. devote to
48. A. Hence B. However C. Unluckily D. Fortunately
49. A. shift B. choice C. chance D. mistake
50. A. honor B. pressure C. question D. success
51. A. fear B. sadness C. motivation D. loneliness
52. A. boring B. common C. stressful D. unmatched
53. A. passion B. doubt C. effort D. commitment
54. A. warmth B. optimism C. ambition D. responsibility
55. A. way B. key C. path D. method
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
An exhibition celebrating the skills of disabled workers in the field of intangible cultural heritage opened on Friday at the Palace Museum in Beijing, highlighting their great contributions 56 China’s cultural landscape. 57 (hold) in the museum’s Sensory Experience Gallery, the Shanghai disabled persons’ culture and art exhibition showcases a diverse collection of works 58 (feature) renowned intangible heritage crafts, including leather carving, straw weaving and wax printing. The gallery, which opened to public in late 2024, 59 (establish) by the Palace Museum in partnership with the China Disabled Persons’ Federation (CDPF).
A central theme of the exhibition is the creative dialogue between master artisans and a new generation of disabled artists, who are bringing fresh 60 (perspective) to these traditional crafts.
Speaking at the ceremony, Yang Ning, 61 master of wax printing and embroidered spheres (绣球) 62 trains disabled students, described the intangible cultural heritage (ICH) as a powerful vehicle for empowerment. “Learning ICH skills offers a 63 (true) flexible way for disabled individuals, as it prioritizes dexterity (灵巧) and focus over physical strength,” she said.
Wu Di, director of the Palace Museum’s Cultural and Creative Department, said the exhibition’s unique setting in the Palace Museum offers an opportunity for the works of these artists 64 (gain) global recognition.
The exhibition provides a platform for disabled artists who have recently entered the professional art scene, offering them unparalleled 65 (visible).
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是李华，你校学生会将举办主题为“Reading Makes Us Better”的读书活动，旨在丰富校园生活、激发阅读兴趣。请你写一封邀请信，面向全校同学发出邀请，内容包括：
1．时间与地点；2．活动内容；3．活动意义。
注意：
1．写作词数应为80个左右；2．可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯
Dear friends,
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Mark was walking home from school one day when he noticed the boy ahead of him trip and drop all his books, along with two sweaters, a baseball bat, a glove and a small tape recorder — one that Bill often used to listen to baseball stories. The boy stood there, flustered and at a loss as his things lay scattered all over the ground. Without hesitation, Mark hurried over, knelt down and helped him pick up the scattered articles one by one. Since they were going the same way, Mark offered to carry part of the burden to lighten his load. As they walked side by side, Mark learned the boy’s name was Bill, that he loved video games, baseball and history, and that he’d been feeling lonely lately because his family had just moved to the neighborhood.
They arrived at Bill’s home first, and Mark was warmly invited in for a Coke and to watch some interest-ing cartoon shows on television. The afternoon passed pleasantly with a lot of laughs and casual small talk, and the two boys quickly hit it off before Mark went home. They soon became good friends, seeing each other around school every day, having lunch together and playing baseball after class. Then both graduated from junior high school and luckily ended up in the same high school. They kept in touch all the time and grew closer over the years. Finally, the long-awaited senior year came, and three weeks before graduation, Bill found Mark and asked if they could have a chat somewhere quiet on the campus.
Bill smiled as he reminded Mark of the ordinary day years ago when they had first met by chance. “Do you ever know how much that day meant to me ” asked Bill in a soft and sincere voice. “You see, I was new here and had no friends at all. I felt so lonely and even afraid to go to school every day. But when you came over and helped me, and stayed to chat with me, it made me feel warm and not alone anymore. That afternoon was the start of the best friendship I’ve ever had. So you see, Mark, when you picked up my books that day, you did a lot more than that. You gave me the courage to fit in and made my school life full of joy.”
注意：1．续写词数应为150左右；2．请按如下格式作答。
Paragraph 1: Hearing his words, Mark reached out and pulled Bill into a tight hug.______________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2: On graduation day, Bill handed Mark a carefully wrapped gift box.________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
参考答案
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
1—5 CBCCA 6—10 BAABB 11—15 BBCCC 16—20 ACBAA
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
21-25 ADBDB 26-30 BABCB 31-35 ADCDC 36-40 GABDE
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
41-45 DCADB 46-50 CCDAB 51-55 CDABB
56. to 57. Held 58. featuring 59. was established 60. perspectives
61. a 62. who 63. truly 64. to gain 65. visibility
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节：
Dear friends,
I’m writing to invite you to take part in our reading activity with the theme “Reading Makes Us Better”. It will be held in our school hall this Friday afternoon.
During it, we’ll share great books, exchange ideas and talk about our reading experiences with each other. We can also listen to the teacher’s wonderful comments on classic works, which is a perfect chance to communicate and learn from one another. There is no doubt that reading broadens our horizons and makes us wiser and more thoughtful. It can also calm our hearts and enrich our colorful campus life. I’m sure everyone will gain a lot from this meaningful activity.
I would appreciate it if you could accept my invitation. Looking forward to your coming.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节：
Paragraph 1: Hearing his words, Mark reached out and pulled Bill into a tight hug. A surge of warmth welled up in his chest as he patted Bill’s back gently, his eyes soft with emotion. “I never thought a small kind act could mean so much,” he said, “and I’m truly lucky to have you as my friend.” Bill leaned into the hug, his voice thick with emotion as he recalled the sweet moments they’d shared — playing baseball after class, comforting each other during tough exams, and laughing over silly jokes. Mark listened quietly, grateful for this precious friendship born from a random encounter. As they stood there on the campus path, Bill’s mind wandered, already thinking about what special gift he could prepare for Mark on graduation day to express his sincere thanks.
Paragraph 2: On graduation day, Bill handed Mark a carefully wrapped gift box. Inside lay the well-polished small tape recorder — the one he used to listen to baseball stories when they first met, with a handwritten note on its cover: “To my best friend — thank you for picking up my books and my lonely heart that day.” Mark traced the smooth surface with his fingertips, a big smile spreading across his face as he met Bill’s shining eyes. They took a photo side by side on the campus lawn, arms around each other, joy and gratitude evident in every gesture. They promised to keep their friendship forever, knowing that a small act of kindness could blossom into a lifelong treasure, and warmth and care would always be the most beautiful light in life.

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