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2026年中考模拟试题(一)
英语
注意事项：
1.本试卷共10页，满分100分，考试时间120分钟。答卷前，考生务必用0.5毫米黑色签字笔将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号填写在答题卡规定的位置。考试结束后，只需将答题卡交回。
2.非选择题答在答题纸上，答在本试卷上不得分。
第一部分听力(共四节，满分20分)
做题时，可先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，必须将答案填涂到答题卡上。第一节(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5段对话。选择与对话内容相对应的图片。每段对话读两遍。
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
第二节(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面2段对话。第一段对话后有2个小题，第二段对话后有3个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟，每段对话读两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第6和7小题。
6. What's the woman's favourite book
A. The Journey To The West. B. Cinderella. C. The Man And Sea.
7. Why does the woman like this story
A. They got great success at last.
B. Sun Wukong is very smart. He always tries his best to protect his master.
C. The book is translated into many languages around the world.
听第二段对话，回答第8至 10 小题。
8. When did Martin arrive
A. Last Tuesday. B. Last Wednesday. C. Last Friday.
9. What does Kitty think of China
A. Small. B. Beautiful. C. Modern.
10. What might Martin do next
A. Go back home. B. Hang out with Kitty. C. Continue to stay in the hotel.
第三节(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面1段独白。独白后有5个判断题，正确的用“A”表示，不正确的用“B”表示。听独白前，你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段独白读两遍。
11. Frank is 15 years old.
12. Frank wants to be an engineer like his father.
13. Frank thinks the life in Italy is different from in America.
14. Frank can see the streets from his window.
15. Frank enjoys swimming in the river and lakes.
第四节(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面1段对话。对话后有5个填空题，根据所听内容在空格处填入适当的单词，每空词数不限。听对话前，你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段对话读三遍。
16. When did Linda work as a volunteer in a children's hospital
Linda worked as a volunteer in a children's hospital last .
17. How many children in the hospital
There were about children in the hospital.
18. When did Lina go there with her friends
Linda and her friends went there on 28.
19. What did her friend Tina do there
Tina taught the children to draw .
20. What does the man think of this activity
He thinks this activity is
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Why do lips get dry in winter
Reason 1 Winter air is cold and dry. It pulls water away from our lips. Reason 2 Most of our skin has oil glands to stay soft.But lips have NO oil glands(腺体). So they dry out faster.
Result Lips crack (开裂) and hurt. When lips lose too much water, they crackand may hurt.Small cracks can even bleed. Solution How can we protect our lips Drink enough water. · Use lip balm(润唇膏). · Don't lick lips. · Cover your mouth in cold weather.
21. What pulls water away from our lips in winter
A. The cold air. B. The oil on lips. C. A deep breath.
22. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a way to protect lips in winter
23. Where can you read the information above
A. In a storybook.
B. In a healthy magazine.
C. In a science report.
B
Have you ever wondered where Chinese characters come from Let's travel back 3,000
years and follow one simple character: 马.
About 3,000 years ago, during the Shang Dynasty, people wrote characters on turtle shells and animal bones. The earliest“ horse” looked like a simple drawing of a real horse —— you could clearly see its head, four legs, and tail.
When the Zhou Dynasty began, people started writing characters on bronze vessels(容器).This style, called“ metal script(金文)”, made the“ horse” character rounder and more decorative(装饰性)
In 221 BCE, Emperor Qin Shi Huang standardized the writing system. He called it zhuanshu, or“ seal script”. The“ horse” character became simpler, but still a bit like a real horse.
Around 300 BC, the government created lishu, or“ clerical script ”. The“ horse ”character became fatter and wider. Its four legs turned into four short strokes(笔画). The tail became a simple line.
During the Tang Dynasty, kaishu or“ regular script” became the standard. The“ horse”character got its modern form. Every stroke had a clear start and finish. Calligraphy(书法)masters spent years perfecting this style.
In the 1950s, the government made characters simpler to help people read and write. The traditional“馬” became“马”— with only three strokes.
24. How does the writer start the passage
A. By telling a story.
B. By listing numbers.
C. By asking a question.
25. Which is the correct order of changes for the“horse” character
① Seal Script ② Metal Script ③ Clerical Script ④ Regular Script ⑤ Simplified Script
A. ①→②→③→④→⑤
B. ①→④→③→②→⑤
C. ②→①→③→④→⑤
26. Which of the following characters was written in regular script during the Tang
Dynasty
27. Why did the Chinese government introduce simplified characters in the 1950s
A. To follow the international trend of writing.
B. To help more people learn to read and write.
C. To make the characters more artistic.
C
“You showed me where the key was yesterday,” she laughed.“I' ve got it in my pocket. So you ought to show me the door today!”
The robin hopped on to an old climbing plant on the wall, and sang his most beautiful song. Suddenly the wind made the plant move, and Mary saw something under the dark green leaves. The thick, heavy plant was covering a door. Mary's heart was beating fast and her hands were shaking as she pushed the leaves away and found the keyhole. She took the key out of her pocket, and it fitted the hole. Using both hands, she managed to unlock the door. Then she turned round to see if anyone was watching. But there was no one, so she pushed the door,which opened, slowly, for the first time in ten years. She walked quickly in and shut the door behind her. At last she was inside the secret garden!
It was the loveliest, most exciting place she had ever seen. There were old rose trees everywhere, and the walls were covered with climbing roses. She looked carefully at the grey branches. Were the roses still alive Ben would know. She hoped they weren't all dead. But she was inside the wonderful garden, in a world of her own. It seemed very strange and silent, but she did not fell lonely at all. Then she noticed some small green shoots coming up through the grass. So something was growing in the garden after all! When she found a lot more shoots (嫩芽) in different places, she decided they needed more air and light, so she began to pull out the thick grass around them. She worked away, clearing the ground, for two or three hours, and had to take her coat off because she got so hot. The robin hopped around, pleased to see someone gardening.
Excerpted from The Secret Garden
28. Where was the door according to the passage
A. Under the ground B. In Mary's room C. Under the dark green leaves
29. Why was Mary's heart beating fast as she pushed the leaves away
A. Because she knew she had made a big mistake.
B. Because she was very excited to see the keyhole.
C. Because she was punished by her uncle.
30. What's in the garden
A. A small boy B. An old cat C. Some rose trees
31. What do you think of the girl
A. She was curious and brave.
B. She was bad tempered all the time.
C. She was as beautiful as her mother.
D
In the Yellow River Basin (流域), scientists studied how human activities could influence nature. They looked at the area from 2001 to 2020 and found some interesting results.Though human activities increased in 66.3% of the area, the quality of nature actually got improved by 22.61%. That is to say with the right actions, we can better nature even when there are more people and more human activities.
One interesting finding was that some farmland was turned back into natural land.Because of the government's nature-friendly program“Grain for Green”, people are encouraged to plant more trees and grass instead of growing crops. This added 15,994 square kilometers of natural land. The change helped to make the air fresher, the water cleaner, and the home to animals better.
Another interesting finding was that 45.88% of the area had both more human activities and improved nature at the same time. This proves that humans and nature can develop together if humans make good choices, such as recycling rubbish and saving energy.
The study showed that the wild nature in 33.7% of the Yellow River Basin also improved a lot. People started wetland protection activities and the area of wetland became8,3000 square kilometers larger. Many endangered birds came to live and some fish swam back.
In a word, only by carrying out eco-friendly activities and making good use of the environment can humans and nature live in harmony (和谐).
32. How does the writer show the results of the study in the first paragraph
A. By telling a story. B. By giving an example. C. By listing numbers.
33. What can we know about the” Grain for Green” program from the text
A. It centered on planting more trees and grass to feed animals.
B. It made a very big difference in helping to protect nature.
C. It increased the amount of farmland and made the air cleaner.
34. What is the structure(结构) of this passage (P= Paragraph)
35. Which sentence is right according to the text
A. The wetland area became smaller after people started protection activities.
B. Less than 40% of the area had more human activities and better nature together.
C. Human activities increased in most of the Yellow River Basin and nature improved a lot.
第二节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
Have you ever heard of“slow reading” 36. Unlike fast reading, which focuses on speed, slow reading pay s more attention to understanding and feeling.
Slow reading has many good points. First, it helps you understand the text better. When you read slowly, you can catch more small parts and think deeply about the meaning. Second, it reduces stress.37. Third, it improves your writing. By reading carefully, you can learn good words and sentences, which helps you write better.
38. Here are some ways. First, choose a quiet place. Noise can make you lose focus. Second, set a goal. For example, read only five pages in an hour. Third, take notes.39. Fourth, don't use phones or computers. They can take your attention away easily.
In today's fast-paced world, many people read quickly to save time.40. It can help you get more from reading and enjoy the pleasure of reading.
A. But slow reading is worth (值得) trying. B. It's helpful to improve our reading skills. C. How can we practice slow reading D. Reading slowly makes you feel relaxed and calm. E. It's a way of reading that asks people to read slowly and carefully. F. Writing down important points can help you remember better.
答案: 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
第三部分 语言运用(共三节，满分20分)
第一节(共6小题；每小题1分，满分6分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Last term, the bookshelf in our classroom broke. Books fell off every day, making the classroom messy. Our teacher asked if anyone could fix it, but no one raised his or her hand. Iremembered my dad often said,“Don't be afraid to have a try. Nothing is impossible if you try your best.” So I 41 to have a try.
The next day, I asked my dad for a few 42 tools:a hammer (锤子) and some nails(钉子). My dad 43 me how to use the hammer safely and told me to be patient.At first, I didn't know how to start. The bookshelf was shaking, and I was afraid to make it worse. I carefully checked the broken part and found that some nails were loose (松的). Itightened them first, but the bookshelf was still not firm (坚固的)
I didn't give up. After half an hour of hard work, the bookshelf 44 ! It stood firmly,and we could put our books on it again. Our teacher and classmates praised me, and I 45very proud.
This experience teaches 46 a lot. Once I dare to try, I'm already halfway to success.
From then on, I' ve often tried to fix small things by myself. It also makes me realize that as long as I keep trying and never give up, I will succeed.
41. A. decided B. went C. refused
42. A. hard B. strange C. simple
43. A. taught B. told C. asked
44. A. was fixed B. was caught C. was built
45. A. feel B. feeling C. felt
46. A. him B.my C.me
第二节(共6小题；每小题1分，满分6分)
阅读下面短文，从方框中的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
A. Choose B. how much C. good D . wiser E. is visited F. good enough G. took part in
Our school started a Green Corner program last month. It asked every class to look after a small garden area outside the classroom building. All my classmates 47 the program actively as soon as we heard the news. We sat together to make a detailed plan first and divided the daily work into different small parts fairly.
We needed to finish all the preparation work in seven days. Our biology teacher taught us how to 48 healthy young plants and water them properly in the first guidance class.She told us to water the plants slowly in the early morning. It was much 49 than watering at noon because the midday sun is too strong and easily to take away the water.
One of my friend is 50 at drawing and writing. She offered to draw beautiful warning signs to remind everyone to protect the green plants carefully. Every morning before class, someone in our class does the cleaning work for the small garden. We never leave any rubbish or waste water there to keep the plants safe and strong.
Last Monday, we got a big surprise. Our first little tomato grew out on the vine(茎蔓) and looked bright and lovely. The sweet smell of flowers around the garden filled the air, too.The happiness on our faces showed 51 we loved this meaningful small garden.Now our class Green Corner becomes more and more popular in school. It 52 by more and more students every day and everyone says it brings them joy and useful new knowledge about nature.
答案: 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 第三节(共8小题；每小题1分，满分8分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
These days, people online are talking about the 24-hour food banks in Shenzhen's Futian District. These smart cabinets, looking like parcel lockers(快递柜), stand as a guiding light in the city, providing free, fresh food day and night to people 53 need. The project started in May 2022. It works with the government, 54 (company), and social groups. Up to now, 22 smart cabinets in 10 streets of Futian are 55 (fill) with bread, fruits, vegetables, and other safe food. The food is 56 (main) from 87 partner business, such as shops and hotels. They donate extra food or food that is almost out of date but still safe to eat.
The food banks follow one important rule: help the people who need it most first.
Low-income families, disabled people can get free food by 57 (book) on the" iShenzhen" App before 8 p. m.. After 8 p. m., any food left can be taken by all citizens. This is to make less waste. There are strict rules 58 (keep) the food safe. The cabinets stay at a low temperature all the time. People can find where every food item comes panies that give food get tax cuts and praise. By March 2026, the project 59 (help)516,000people, and it has saved 205 tons of food from being wasted. It also has cut 410 tons of carbon emissions. These food banks do more than give out food; they build community love and care for environmental protection. In short, they show Shenzhen's 60 (kind) and creative spirit and they give the world a good example of city care.
答案: 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60.
第四部分 阅读表达(共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，按照题目要求用英语回答问题。
At the 2026 Spring Festival Gala, Chinese humanoid robots returned to the stage. They drew the world's attention again. These robots, developed by Unitree Robotics(宇树科技有限公司), showed amazing skills.
Unitree Robotics is a famous tech company from Hangzhou. Its founder, Wang Xingxing,started the company to build robots that can move like humans and animals. Their robots are not just for shows. They will be tested to help people with difficult tasks in the future.
The progress of these robots has been truly amazing. During the 2025“Year of the Snake”Gala, the H1 robots performed a traditional Yangge dance and showed perfect balance while waving handkerchiefs. The 2026 performance was a much bigger step forward. This time, theH1 and G1 robots performed“Martial Arts”. The company shared that the robots could jump,flip, and spin at a very high speed, which was once thought impossible for machines.
The most memorable part was the 1.8-meter-tall H2 robot appearing as the“MonkeyKing.” It wore a heavy costume and held a“Golden Cudgel” while standing on a“cloud” made of robot dogs. This creative idea brought an old Chinese story to life using modern technology.
Many people online were surprised by their progress. The robots could only dance last year, but now they are like kung fu masters. In the future, these robots will move from the stage to our homes, helping us with daily tasks and making our lives much more convenient.
61. Which company developed the humanoid robots at the 2026 Spring Festival Gala
62. Where is Unitree Robotics from
63.Did the H1 robots perform a traditional Yangge dance at the 2025 Spring Festival Gala
64. What performance did the H1 and G1 robots give in 2026
What do you think these robots can do to help people in daily life in the future
第五部分补全对话(共4小题；第(67)小题2分，其余每小题1分，满分5分)
阅读下面对话，在每个空白处填入一个适当的句子，使对话完整，合乎情境。
Tom: Hi, Lily! Long time no see.66.
Lily: Pretty good! I just came back from the school English corner activity.
Tom: Sounds great! What did you do there
Lily:67. .
Tom: That's really meaningful.68.
Lily:I go to the English corner activity every Friday afternoon. It helps me a lot with myEnglish.
Tom:I really want to improve my English too.69.
Lily: Of course! You can go with me next Friday. We can go there together and practiceEnglish.
Tom: Wonderful! Thank you for your help.
Lily:70. . See you then!
第六部分书面表达(满分15分)
某英文网站正在开展以“面对挫折，助力成长”为主题的征文活动。假如你是李华，请用英语写一篇短文投稿，谈谈你生活中一次挫折的经历以及你是如何面对的，你的收获是什么。
提示：
What's your experience
How did you deal with the trouble
What have you learned from this experience
要求：
1.根据所给题目，写一篇短文，词数不少于80(开头与结尾已给出，不计入总词数)；
2.语言流畅、书写规范、卷面整洁；
3.文中不得使用真实姓名、校名，否则以零分计。
My Experience of Growing Up
中考模拟试题参考答案及评分标准（一）
一、听力测试
（一）参考答案：
1-5 ACDBF 　　6-10 ABABB 11-15 BAAAB
16. summer 17. 200/two hundred 18. August 19. pictures 20.meaningful
（二）评分说明：
1．本大题共20分，每小题1分。
2．凡与答案不符者不得分。
二、阅读理解
（一）参考答案： 21-23 A C B 24-27 C C B B
28-31 C B C A 32-35 C B C C
36-40 E D C F A
（二）评分说明：
1．本大题共20小题；每小题1.5分，计30分。
2．凡与答案不符者不得分。
三、语言运用
（一）参考答案：
A 41-46 A C A A C C
B 47-52 G A D C B E　　　　
C 53. in panies 55. filled 56. mainly
57. booking 58. to keep 59. has helped 60. kindness
（二）评分说明：
1．本大题共2O小题；每小题1分，计20分。
2．凡与答案不符者不得分。
五、阅读表达(共5小题，计10分)
（一）参考答案：
61． Unitree Robotics.
62． Hangzhou.
63． Yes, they did.
64． “Martial Arts.”
65． (答案不唯一)例子：They can help us do housework.
（二）评分说明：
1．本大题共5小题；每小题2分，计10分。
2．有与答案不符者，只要符合本题要求，句意和语法正确，即可得分；有大小写错误、拼写错误或语法错误，可酌情扣分；所写的句子虽无语法错误，意思通顺，但与题意不符者，不得分。
六、补全对话（计5分）
（一）参考答案：
66. How is everything going recently？/How is it going？
67. I practiced my spoken English there./ I had conversations with classmates in English.（答案不唯一，言之有理即可）
68. How often do you go to the English corner activity？
69. Can I go to the English corner with you next time？
（二）评分说明：
1．本大题共4小题；计5分， 67 题2分，其余1分。
2．有与答案不符者，只要符合本题要求，句意和语法正确，即可得分；有大小写错误、拼写错误或语法错误，可酌情扣分；所写的句子虽无语法错误，意思通顺，但与题意不符者，不得分。
七、书面表达（计15分）
（一）参考答案(略)
（二）评分说明：本大题共15分, 请按以下四档标准进行评分。
第一档：(15分)符合题意要求，表达完整，条理清晰，语句通顺，语言正确无误。
第二档：(11—14分)符合题意要求，表达基本完整，条理较清晰，语句较通顺，语言基本无误。
第三档：(6—10分)基本符合题意要求，表达基本完整，条理较清晰，语句较通顺，语言有部分错误。
第四档：(0—5分)不符合题意要求，表达不够清楚，逻辑关系混乱，语言错误很多。
若书写潦草，可在以上基础上酌情扣除1-3分。
(注意：短文中不得出现考生的姓名、学校及其他相关信息，否则不予评分。)
补充说明：
1.照抄试卷中的 阅读材料或题中要点提示句的一律判0分。
2.拼写与标点符号是语言准确的一个方向，应视其对语言表达的影响程度予以考虑，如 书写较差以致影响表达，将分数降低一个档次。
3.词数应在60词左右，如不足60词，只能最高按二档计分，超过60词，不扣分。
4.对完成了试题规定的任务，语言地道，准确的书面表达，可给予满分。

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