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泸县初中2023级第二次学业水平模拟考试
英语试题
（考试时间：120分钟，满分：150分）
1．本试卷分为第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）；选择题满分95分，非选择题满分55分；全卷满分150分；
2．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号写在答题卡上，并在规定位置粘贴考试用条形码；
3．答卷时，考生务必将答案涂写在答题卡上，答在试卷上无效。考试结束后，监考员将试卷和答题卡一并收回。
注意事项：
每小题答案选出后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案。
第Ⅰ卷 选择题（95分）
第一部分 听力（共20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每小题听两遍。
1. How does Lucy usually go to school
A. By bike. B. By bus. C. On foot.
2. How is the weather today
A. Rainy. B. Cloudy. C. Sunny.
3. What are the two speakers going to do this weekend
A. To visit Mr. King’s family. B. To visit a museum. C. To do nothing.
4. Whose baseball is it
A. Lisa’s. B. Bob’s. C. Jack’s.
5. Where are the man and the woman probably talking
A. At a bus stop. B. In a supermarket. C. In a bus.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面五段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听第6段对话，回答第6至7小题。
6. How long did Tim stay on the farm
A. For a month. B. For a week. C. For two weeks.
7. What did Tim do on the farm every morning
A. Fed animals. B. Went fishing. C. Rode horses.
听第7段对话，回答第8至10小题。
8. How many apples do they need
A. 4. B. 3. C. 2.
9. What kind of yogurt does the boy want
A. Sheep’s milk yogurt. B. Cow’s milk yogurt. C. Goat’s milk yogurt.
10. What is the possible relationship between the two speakers
A. Mother and son. B. Sister and brother. C. Teacher and student.
听第8段对话，回答第11至13小题。
11. When is the school party
A. On Saturday afternoon. B. On Sunday evening. C. On Saturday evening.
12. What should they wear to the party
A. The sports clothes. B. A dress. C. School uniforms.
13. How many friends can the girl ask to the party
A. One. B. Two. C. Three.
听第9段对话，回答第14至16小题。
14. What’s the matter with the girl
A. She has a headache. B. She has a stomachache. C. She has a fever.
15. What did the girl eat yesterday
A. Too much ice cream. B. Some bad meat. C. A lot of fried food.
16. What does the boy advise the girl to do first
A. See a doctor at once. B. Drink more hot water. C. Have a good rest.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至20小题。
17. What will the students do for their school
A. Plant trees. B. Water flowers. C. Clean the garden.
18. Where will the students meet
A. In the classroom. B. In the school garden. C. At the school gate.
19. What should the students bring to school
A. Trees. B. Planting tools. C. Empty bottles.
20. How long will the activity last
A. One hour. B. Two hours. C. Three hours.
第二部分 阅读（共40分）
第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
How to give first aid What should you do if you see someone get hurt If you want to help: How you can help:
Stop bleeding: Use a clean cloth or even your shirt to press on the cut. Keep pressing until you can get to a doctor. Treat burns: For small burns, run cool water over them for 10-15 minutes. Do not use ice, as it can make the burn worse.
Treat choking: For people over the age of 1, stand behind them and give them quick pushes (按) with your fist (拳头) above their belly button (肚脐). This is called the Heimlich maneuver. DO CPR (心肺复苏术): If someone isn’t breathing and their heart isn’t beating, you might need to do CPR. Place the person on their back on the ground and push hard and fast in the middle of their chest (胸腔)
21. What number should you call if someone is badly hurt in Beijing
A. 911 B. 110 C. 120 D. 999
22. How can you stop bleeding
A. By pressing a clean cloth on the cut. B. By using the Heimlich maneuver.
C. By putting ice on the cut. D. By pushing on the chest many times.
23. How long should you run water over a small burn
A. For one minute. B. For 10-15 minutes. C. For half an hour. D. For an hour.
24. What is the Heimlich maneuver used for
A. Doing CPR B. Choking. C. Bleeding D. Burns.
25. Where might you find the reading above
A. In a storybook. B. In a history book.
C. In a sports magazine. D. In a book about health.
B
As a classic piece of clothing, the Chinese cheongsam, also known as qipao, is not only a symbol of fashion, but also of Chinese culture and history. It first appeared in Shanghai in the early 20th century and has remained popular for over a hundred years.
The cheongsam hugs the curves (曲线) of the body and is mostly made of silk or cotton. It’s typical with a high collar (领), short sleeves (袖) and a short cut on the side of the skirt to make movement easy.
The cheongsam was first worn by wealthy women in Shanghai as a way to show their social positions and wealth. But it quickly became popular among all classes of women as daily clothes. During the 1920s and 1930s, the cheongsam experienced changes and became fitter and better designed with fashionable elements (元素). Nowadays, designers are creating new styles to follow modern fashion.
Today, the cheongsam is often worn for formal (正式的) situations such as ceremonies, celebrations and cultural events in China. One of the most popular looks of the cheongsam is Anna Wong, a Chinese famous movie star. She often wears cheongsams on and off screen. Her look helps to make the dress win popularity in Hollywood and around the world.
The cheongsam has stood the test of time. It will continue to catch eyes of the public and give ideas to people for years to come.
26. When did the Chinese cheongsam first appear
A. In the early 20th century B. In the late 19th century
C. In the late 20th century D. In the 21st century
27. Which design of cheongsam makes movement easy
A. A high collar. B. Short sleeves.
C. A short cut on the side. D. Fashionable elements.
28. Where would women often wear the cheongsam now according to the passage
A. At a sports meeting. B. At a Chinese marriage ceremony.
C. At a class meeting. D. At a birthday party.
29. What helps the cheongsam become popular in Hollywood
A. Many formal ceremonies in China. B. The changes in the 1920s and 1930s.
C. Anna Wong’s wearing cheongsams. D. New styles created by designers.
30. What’s the best title for the passage
A. The Chinese Cheongsam — A New Art B. The Chinese Cheongsam — A Forever Classic
C. The Chinese Cheongsam — A Modern Fashion D. The Chinese Cheongsam — A Traditional Dress
C
Technology has changed our lives in many ways. One of the most useful developments is artificial intelligence (AI). Many people think AI is only for young people, but it is also helping old people live better and more independently.
Many old people have problems with daily life. For example, they often forget to take medicine, find it hard to move around, or feel lonely because they can’t keep in touch with their family easily. Some of them also think modern technology is too difficult to use.
But AI machines are helping a lot. Smart speakers can help old people set reminders to take medicine, know the weather, and turn lights on or off just by using their voices.
AI apps on phones can also watch over health. They can check heart rates and remind people to drink water or do some exercise. Some hospitals use AI to give medical advice online, so old people don’t have to go to hospitals often.
My grandfather is a good example. He didn’t like technology before because he thought it was too difficult. However, everything changed when we introduced him to a smart speaker. Now, he can use it to listen to stories, call friends, and even buy daily things online. AI has made his life more convenient and enjoyable.
AI is not only for young people. It is also helping old people. In the future, AI will help them live more independently, stay connected with families and keep healthy.
31. What is one challenge that many old people face
A. They don’t need to take medicine. B. AI technology is not useful for them.
C. Daily activities can be difficult for them. D. They don’t like communicating with their families.
32. How do AI machines help old people
A. They cook delicious food for them. B. They remind them to take medicine.
C. They take them to the hospital. D. They teach them how to write.
33. Why does the writer use his grandfather as an example
A. To prove how smart his grandfather is.
B. To tell readers how to use a smart speaker.
C. To prove that AI can make old people’s lives better.
D. To explain why some old people don’t like technology.
34. What can we learn from the story
A. AI can work better than doctors. B. Smart speakers cost too much money.
C. AI is useful for people of different ages. D. Old people should stay away from technology.
35. What is the main purpose of the passage
A. To explain how AI works in hospitals.
B. To show how AI helps old people live better.
C. To show hospitals don’t need doctors anymore.
D. To compare AI usage between young and old people.
第二节 补全语篇（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读短文，从文后所给的选项中选择信息补全短文；其中有一项为多余选项。
Recently, the Chinese government introduced a national plan called “Weight Management Campaign”. It aims to help people manage their weight and live healthier lives. 36
Why is obesity (肥胖) a problem
Being overweight is not just about good looking. 37 Studies show that by 2030, 70.5% of adults and 31.8% of children could be overweight. If people do not act now, they may face serious health problems at a younger age.
38
Doctors use Body Mass Index (BMI, 体重指数) BMI = 体重(kg) / 身高2(m2)to check if someone’s weight is healthy. It is a measure (测量方法) that uses your height and weight to work out if you are fit. For Chinese teenagers, a BMI between 15 and 22 is healthy. However, a BMI of 23 means overweight, and over 26 means obesity.
What should we do to keep healthy
Keeping healthy habits is the most important thing. First, people should eat properly. It is wise to choose brown rice, fresh vegetables and fruit, fish and chicken for meat most of the time. 39 Experts suggest at least 150 minutes of moderate (中等的) exercise per-week, like running, cycling, or swimming.
How can society help
40 Some schools hold sports meetings and set up more sports clubs. Some cities have weight control programs in hospitals. These programs give advice on food choice, exercise, and weight loss.
Remember, small changes make a big difference. Let’s work together to build a healthier and happier China!
A. What is a healthy weight
B. We also should have good eating habits.
C. It can also cause serious health problems.
D. Second, exercise also plays an important role.
E. It is necessary to get social and medical support.
F. Here are the things we should know about the plan.
第三部分 语言运用（共四节 满分55分）
第一节 完形填空（A篇共5小题，每小题2分，计10分；B篇10小题，每小题1.5分，计15分；本节满分25分）
通读下面短文，然后从后面各题所给A、B、C、D四个选项中选择可以填入空白处的最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
Hello, everyone! Nice to meet you all. My name is Sophia, a human-like robot. I’m glad to be here and introduce 41 to you.
I was born a few years ago. I was 42 by David Hanson. It might be a little hard for you to guess what I look like. So let me tell you! I look like the famous actress Audrey Hepburn.
As a robot, I have many 43 . I can speak, joke, sing and even create art. I once created a great artwork and it was 44 for $688888. I’m so excited about my career as an artist!
I have the 45 to do some social behavior. I can have conversations with people. I can also recognize people. I have appeared on TV shows and spoken at meetings. In the future, I will continue to explore the art world. My next job may be a great musician. Do you want to enjoy my music
41. A. myself B. himself C. herself D. itself
42. A. discovered B. driven C. turned D. invented
43. A. talents B. habits C. suggestion D. results
44. A. taken B. sold C. bought D. brought
45. A. opinion B. method C. ability D. level
B
In a fun class activity, Mr. Li gave each of us a balloon. He asked us to 46 them up and then write our names on them. It was so cool to see the balloons getting bigger and see everyone writing their 47 with colorful markers. Then we were asked to put them into the hall.
After that, Mr. Li mixed up all the balloons, and the 48 turned into a rainbow (彩虹)! Then he told us the 49 : Find the balloon with our name on it in just five minutes. We all started looking really fast, moving balloons all around, but it was 50 , and no one could find their own balloon.
But guess what Mr. Li had a smart idea. He told us to pick up any balloon we found and 51 it to the person whose name was on it. Suddenly, we all started working together, helping each other find our balloons. The hall turned into a 52 place with many laughs as we shared and gave balloons to each other. And guess what again In just two minutes, every student had their own balloon back! Such a little change 53 a great difference!
Back into the classroom, our teacher shared a special 54 with us. He said, “The balloons are like happiness. When we’re only thinking about ourselves, it’s hard to find happiness. But when we share happiness with others, it 55 comes back to us.” We really had much fun and learned a lot at the same time. It was the best class activity ever!
46. A. cut B. blow C. turn D. pick
47. A. names B. ages C. wishes D. addresses
48. A. sky B. hall C. office D. classroom
49. A. wish B. joke C. task D. question
50. A. right B. wrong C. easy D. difficult
51. A. give B. lend C. sell D. teach
52. A. happy B. silent C. strange D. boring
53. A. told B. made C. avoided D. imagined
54. A. reason B. duty C. lesson D. project
55. A. never B. seldom C. sometimes D. always
第Ⅱ卷 非选择题（55分）
第二节 单词拼写（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
根据语境和首字母提示拼写单词，完成句子；并在答题卡相应位置写出完整单词（每空一词）。
56. Learning is a lifelong j________ because every day brings something new.
57. — Mom, could you please help me wash my clothes
— Harry, you are a teen now. You can do it by y________.
58. Mr. Wu is really h________. He is always ready to help others when they are in trouble.
59. We all know that Diaoyu Island b________ to China.
60. My favorite place at school is the l________, because I can borrow and read books quietly in it.
第三节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
通读下面短文，然后在空白处填入恰当的词或用空白处后括号内所给单词的正确形式填空（每空一词），并将答案工整填写在答题卡相应的位置上。
In December, 2025, China Central Television introduced the logo (标记) for the 2026 Spring Festival Gala! 61 (it) topic this year is “Galloping Steed, Onward Unstoppable (骐骥驰骋,势不可挡).”
Look at the logo — can you see the four powerful 62 (horse) running together The artists studied traditional art and 63 (use) designs such as clouds to create the shapes then. When you put the horses side by side, it feels like thousands 64 horses running forward, full of power and movement!
The idea comes from 65 ancient Chinese poem. There is a Chinese term “Qi Ji” in the poem. “Qi Ji” means a “thousand-mile horse” known for its 66 (fast) speed (速度) than common horses. Interestingly, “Qi Ji” sounds very similar to the Chinese word for “miracle (奇迹).” This clever wordplay expresses a strong wish to make great achievements. It also shows confidence in 67 (realize) national goals. The logo’s colors are also 68 (meaning). Bright red is for good luck 69 shining gold is for a bright future. The design encourages people to live 70 (happy) and make their dreams come true.
With such a lively logo, the 2026 Spring Festival Gala is ready to bring joy, courage and great wishes to Chinese families all over the world!
第四节 信息摘录（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容，在文后表格内完成信息摘要（每空一词）。
You may always pay attention to hunger. Hunger has many different causes, according to Dr. Monique Tello, from Harvard Medical School.
The first cause may be a medical problem. “If a person always feels hungry and can’t put on weight or even loses weight, he should go to the hospital. For people with Type Ⅰ diabetes(糖尿病), their body isn’t able to process sugar. They eat a lot, but still lose weight and they feel terrible.” Tello said.
If it isn’t a medical cause, the problems could be in the head. It’s reasonable to be hungry every three to five hours. However, it’s possible for you to eat often and a lot after watching food advertisements on TV or social media (媒体). Also, the more you eat, the larger your stomach gets, and the more you want to eat. A person’s state (状态) of mind can play a role. too. Research has shown that stress can increase levels of hunger hormones (激素). Pressure and worry drive people to look for food in the fridge when they’re no truly hungry.
Another reason may be the lifestyle. Sometimes the reason why a person is always hungry is that he eats too little, exercises too much, or both.
So, how to solve the problem There are three ways to solve it. First, reduce your time on watching food advertisements on TV and social media. In addition, say no to food if you’re not really hungry. Finally, change your diet by eating more food high in fiber (纤维), protein (蛋白质) and healthy fats.
Topic: Paying attention to 71
Fact Some people always feel hungry.
Causes A medical problem *Eating a lot, but still 72 weight.
The problems in the 73 *Watching food advertisements on TV or social media. *Eating so much food that your stomach gets larger. *Increasing levels of hunger hormones because of stress.
The lifestyle *Eating too little, exercising too much, or both.
74 *Spending 75 time on watching food advertisements. *Saying no to food when you’re not hungry. *Changing your diet.
第四部分 书面表达（共1题，满分25分）
76．作为初三学生，三年初中生活即将结束，你校将举办以“感恩”为主题的英文演讲比赛。请你根据以下提示，写一篇英文演讲稿。
Parents: love and support; take care of… Teachers: teach; advice. Friends: help; encourage.
要求：
1．语句通顺，意思连贯，语法正确，书写规范；
2．必须包含所给提示，并做适当发挥；
3．文中不得出现真实人名、校名或地名；
4．词数100左右。
Ladies and gentlemen,
How time flies! ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________泸县初中2023级第二次学业水平模拟考试
英语答案详细评分标准
第一部分 听力（1-20，每题1.5分，共30分）
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. A
11. C 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. B
第二部分 阅读
第一节 阅读理解（21-35，每题2分，共30分）
21. C 22. A 23. B 24. B 25. D 22. A 27. C 28. B 29. C 30. B
23. C 32. B 33. C 34. C 35. B
第二节 补全语篇（36-40，每题2分，共10分）
36. F 37. C 38. A 39. D 40. E
第三部分 语言运用
第一节 完形填空（41-45，每题2分，共10分,56-60，每题1分，共5分共25分）
A篇 41. A 42. D 43. A 44. B 45. C
B篇 46. B 47. A 48. B 49. C 50. D
47. A 52. A 53. B 54. C 55. D
第二节 单词拼写
56. journey 57. yourself 58. helpful 59. belongs 60. library
第三节 语法填空（61-70，每题1.5分，共15分）
61. Its 62. horses 63. used 64. of 65. an
66. faster 67. realizing 68. meaningful 69. and 70. happily
第四节 信息摘录（71-75，每题2分，共10分）
71. medical 72. loses 73. Mind 74. Solutions 75. less
第四部分 书面表达（76，25分）
范文: Ladies and gentlemen,
How time flies! My junior high school days will be over soon. Today, I want to express my thanks to the people around me.
First, I should thank my parents. They love me and take good care of me in my daily life. They always support me whenever I need help.
Second, I am thankful to my teachers. They teach me knowledge and give me useful advice. They encourage me to be better and never give up.
Third, I also thank my friends. They help me and share happiness and sadness with me. We grow up together.
Thanks to their love and care, I become better and happier. I will keep these warm days in my heart forever.
Thank you!
4. 书面表达（25分）- 一档（21–25分）：要点齐全，语法正确，语句流畅，词数达标，卷面整洁。
二档（16–20分）：要点完整，语句通顺，少量语法/拼写错误。
三档（11–15分）：要点基本齐全，语句可懂，错误不影响理解。
四档（6–10分）：要点缺失，错误较多，影响理解。
五档（0–5分）：未完成写作，内容混乱，无法读懂。
扣分：词数不足、卷面潦草、出现真实校名/人名酌情扣1–3分

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